MD2001 Week 4 Flashcards

1
Q

3 constituents of blood

A
  1. plasma
  2. leukocytes and platelets
  3. erythrocytes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

reticulocyte

A

newly formed erythrocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

types of leukocytes

A
  1. granulocytes (neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils)
  2. monocytes
  3. lymphocytes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what leukocytes performs chemotaxis?

A

neutrophils do this to cross membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what vasoactive amines do basophils secrete?

A

these cells secrete heparin (prevent clotting) and histamine (allergic reactions)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what 2 special mediators are released by basophils?

A
  1. eosinophil chemotactic factor of anaphylaxis (ECF)

2. slow reactive substance of anaphylaxis (SRS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what cell type differentiates into macrophages?

A

monocytes differentiate into this

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what happens when lymphocytes are exposed to mitogen phytohemagglutinin (PHA)?

A

lymphocytes transform into lymphoblasts when exposed to this

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

2 types of lymphocytes and their type of response

A
  1. plasma cells (humeral response)

2. cytotoxic T cells (cell mediated response)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

haematocrit

A

packed cell volume synonym

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

average [haemoglobin]

A

average: 15g/dl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

average RBC count

A

average: 5 x 10^12/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

average haematocrit/PCV

A

average 0.45L/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what MCV does one w/ macrositic anemia have?

A

someone w/ this condition would have an MCV >90fl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

signs of anemia (4)

A
  1. pallor
  2. glossitis (inflamed tongue)
  3. angular stomatitis
  4. koilonychia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

how are old platelets destroyed?

A

they are destroyed by phagocytosis in the spleen and Kupffer cells in liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

haemostasis

A

blood clotting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what, along with platelets, forms blood clots?

A

fibrinogen -> fibrin forms this

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

embolism

A

obstruction of artery by blood clot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

describe respiratory epithelium

A

pseudo stratified columnar, ciliated epithelium w/ goblet cells that secret mucus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

vomer

A

bone separating L and R nasal cavities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

boundaries of the nasal cavity

A

medial: septum
lateral: conchae
floor: hard/soft palate
roof: bone (ethmoid, frontonasal, sphenoid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

sinusitis

A

inflammation of nasal sinus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what structure drains tears?

A

nasolacrimal ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
4 main sinuses
1. frontal 2. ethmoidal 3. sphenoidal 4. maxillary
26
which vessels anastomose in the nasal cavity
the external carotid and internal carotids anastomose here
27
where do you puncture a tube for emergency airway access?
cricothyroid membrane is clinically essential for this
28
what is the opening of the larynx called?
laryngeal inlet
29
outline the main structures of the larynx
- aryepiglottic fold - laryngeal inlet - quadrangular membrane - vestibular fold - saccule - vocal fold
30
opening of the vocal folds
rima glottidis
31
main actions of laryngeal muscles (3)
1. close/open ary-epliglottic folds 2. close/open rima glottidis 3. shorten/lengthen vocal folds
32
what muscle opens the rima glottidis
posterior crico-artenoid does this
33
what nerves supply the larynx above and below the vocal cords respectively
the superior laryngeal nerve and the recurrent laryngeal nerve respectively
34
layers of the tunica intima (3)
1. simple squamous epithelium 2. sub-endothelial layer (smooth muscle w/ connective tissue properties) 3. internal elastic lamina
35
constituents of tunica media (3)
1. elastic sheets (laminae) 2. layers of smooth muscle 3. external elastic lamina
36
constituents of tunica adventitia
1. collagen and elastic fibres 2. vasa vasorum 3. lymphatics and nerve fibres
37
capillaries w/ holes in endothelium
fenestrated endothelium
38
vessel like fenestrated capillaries but have also incomplete basal lamina
blood sinusoids
39
rate enhancement
catalyses rate/uncatalysed rate
40
Michaelis-Menten constant
Km
41
significance of Km w/ how hexokinase and glucokinase works
Hexokinase has lower Km so ensures glucose used for energy even at low [ ]. Glucokinase has high Km so glucose only removed from blood for storage at high [ ].
42
how does organophosphate diisopropyl fluorophosphate (DIPF) work as a pesticide?
it irreversibly inhibits acetylcholinesterase, preventing acetylcholine from degrading into choline and acetic acid.
43
how does aspirin work as an irreversible inhibitor?
it irreversibly inhibits cyclooxygenase-1, preventing conversion of arachidonic acid into prostaglandin
44
example of competitive inhibition
example of this type of enzymal inhibition is sulphonamide: similar structure to 4-aminobenzoic acid, which bacteria use to make folic acid
45
2 types of allosteric inhibition
1. mixed inhibition | 2. non-competitive inhibition
46
example of allosteric inhibition in phosphofructokinase
example of this inhibition: phosphofructokinase binds ATP at two sites (active and inhibitory). W/ high levels of ATP, inhibitory site occupied and active site affected
47
causes of acute inflammation (4)
1. microbial infection 2. hypersensitivity reaction 3. physical agent 4. chemical agent
48
signs of acute inflammation (5)
1. red (dilated vessels) 2. hot (increased blood flow) 3. swollen (oedema) 4. painful (stimulated nerves) 5. loss of function
49
2 phases of acute inflammation
1. vascular phase | 2. exudative phase
50
characteristic cell of acute inflammation
neutrophil polymorph
51
lymphangitis
inflammation of lymph vessel
52
lymphadenitis
inflammation of lymph node
53
3 major opsonins
1. Fc fragment of IgG 2. C3b 3. Collectins (plasma proteins that bind to microbial cell wall)
54
what does acute inflammation look like? (7)
1. serous (exudate) 2. catarrhal (mucus) 3. fibrinous 4. hemorrhagic (vascular injury) 5. suppurative 6. membranous (epithelium coated by fibrin) 7. pseudomembranous (superficial mucosal slough)
55
beneficial effects of acute inflammation
- dilution of toxins - entry of antibodies, drugs, nutrients, oxygen (b/c increased vascular permeability) - fibrin formation (impedes movement of microorganisms) - transport of drugs - stimulation of immune response
56
harmful effects of acute inflammation
- digestion of normal tissue - swelling - hypersensitivity
57
pyrexia
term for fever
58
systemic effects of acute inflammation
- malaise, anorexia, nausea - weight loss due to negative nitrogen balance - hyperplasia of reticuloendothelial system - haematological changes - anaemia - leukocytosis
59
trachealis muscle
muscle that alters tracheal diameter
60
why are foreign bodies more likely to enter right lung?
foreign bodies more likely to enter this lung b/c its bronchus is shorter, wider, and more vertical
61
name the lobar bronchi of the R lung
1. superior lobar bronchus 2. middle lobar bronchus 3. lower lobar bronchus
62
level of bronchioles
1. conducting 2. terminal 3. respiratory
63
differences b/w bronchi and conducting bronchiole
epithelium changes to ciliated columnar and cartilage and glands disappear
64
epithelium of the terminal/respiratory bronchioles
respiratory structure w/ non-ciliated cuboidal epithelium (goblet cells disappear)
65
areas of pleura
1. cervical 2. costal 3. mediastinal 4. diaphragmatic
66
anatomical features of the L lung
1. apex 2. superior lobe 3. oblique fissure 4. cardiac notch 5. lingual 6. inferior lobe 7. base
67
hilum
where vessels travel in and out of lung
68
fissures of the R lung
1. horizontal/transvere fissure | 2. oblique fissure
69
where does the pleura end in relation to the lungs?
it ends 2 rib spaces lower than the lungs
70
what muscles depress and elevate the ribs respectively?
the internal intercostal and the external intercostal muscles do this respectively
71
what nerve supplies the diaphragm?
the phrenic nerve supplies this structure
72
pneumothorax
when air enters into pleural cavity
73
prognosis
likely course of a disease
74
idiopathic
disease that arises spontaneously or for which the cause is unknown
75
outline the sequelae of acute inflammation
1. resolution 2. suppuration 3. repair and organization 4. chronic inflammation
76
factors favouring resolution in inflammation
- minimal cell death/tissue damage - occurring in regenerative tissue (ex. liver) - rapid destruction of causal agent - rapid vascular drainage of fluid and debris
77
factors favouring organisation in inflammation
- large amounts of fibrin - substantial necrosis - exudate/debris can't be removed
78
constituents of granulation tissue (4)
1. capillaries 2. macrophages 3. fibroblasts 4. collagen
79
types of primary chronic inflammation
1. resistance of infective agent to phagocytosis (ex. leprosy) 2. foreign body reactions to endogenous material 3. foreign body reactions to exogenous material (ex. asbestos) 4. autoimmune disease (ex. rheumatoid arthritis) 5. specific disease of unknown aetiology (ulcerative colitis) 6. primary granulomatous disease (sarcoidosis)
80
osteomyelitis
inflammation of bone or bone marrow often caused by infection
81
factors favouring progression from acute to chronic inflammation
1. indigestible substances 2. deep suppurative inflammation where drainage delayed/inadequate 3. recurrent episodes of acute inflammation and healing
82
what does chronic inflammation look like?
- chronic ulcer - chronic abscess cavity - thickening of wall - granulomatous inflammation - fibrosis
83
what activate/inactivate macrophages?
migration inhibition factor (MIF) and macrophage activation factor (MAF)
84
histiocyte
macrophage in connective tissue
85
structure of a typical granuloma
central giant cell surrounded by histiocytes. Rim of lymphocytes
86
2 types of giant cells and their nucleus characteristic
1. Langhan's (nuclei in circumference) | 2. foreign body type (nuclei in row)
87
common disease caused by sporing bacteria
- botulism - gas gangrene - tetanus - food poisoning - anthrax
88
dimer of peptidoglycan
N-acetylglucosamine + N-acetylmuramic acid
89
differences b/w eukaryote and prokaryote
- nucleoid instead of nucleus - circular DNA - plasmids present - no membrane bound organelles - transcription and translation occur simultaneously
90
which microbe type has ssDNA, ds DNA, ds RNA, and ss RNA
viruses have these types of nucleic acid
91
6 steps to viral replication
1. adsorption 2. penetration 3. replication 4. assembly 5. maturation 6. release
92
examples of protozoal infections
- malaria - giardiasis - toxoplasmosis - cryptosporidiosis
93
hyphae
thread-like filament structure of fungi
94
term for fungal infection
mycoses
95
common fungal infections
- candidiasis (yeast) - cryptococcosis (affects lungs or meninges) - aspergillosis (yeast) - ringworm (skin infection)
96
3 types of helminths
1. nematoda 2. cestoda 3. trematoda
97
4 modes of helminth transmission
1. intermediate host (ingestion of larvae in host tissue) 2. fecal-oral 3. active skin penetration (larvae invade through skin) 4. injection by blood-sucking insect
98
hypoxia
term for oxygen deficiency
99
percentage of O2 in air
20% O2 in this
100
percentage of O2 we exhale
15% O2 in this
101
4 types of serine proteases
1. trypsin (neg. charged S1) 2. chymotrypsin (hydrophobic S1) 3. elastase (small S1) 4. subtilisin (in prokaryotes. similar to chymotrypsin)
102
what 3 enzymes make up the catalytic triad in serine proteases?
1. aspartate 2. serine 3. histidine
103
6 major types of enzymes and examples
1. oxidoreductases (alcohol dehydrogenase) 2. transferases (hexokinase in producing glucose-6-phosphate) 3. hydrolases (trypsin) 4. lyases (carbonic anhydrase) 5. isomerases 6. ligases (glutamine synthase)
104
what is a mitogen?
chemical substance that encourages a cell to commence cell division, triggering mitosis
105
kinetochore
structure on chromatids where spindle fibres attach
106
centrosome
pair of centrioles
107
basal body
base structures of cilia and flagella
108
how are reticulocytes stained?
their small amount of RNA is stained by either cresol violet or methylene blue