Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MD2001 > MD2001 Week 4 > Flashcards

MD2001 Week 4 Flashcards

1
Q

3 constituents of blood

A
  1. plasma
  2. leukocytes and platelets
  3. erythrocytes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

reticulocyte

A

newly formed erythrocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

types of leukocytes

A
  1. granulocytes (neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils)
  2. monocytes
  3. lymphocytes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what leukocytes performs chemotaxis?

A

neutrophils do this to cross membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what vasoactive amines do basophils secrete?

A

these cells secrete heparin (prevent clotting) and histamine (allergic reactions)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what 2 special mediators are released by basophils?

A
  1. eosinophil chemotactic factor of anaphylaxis (ECF)

2. slow reactive substance of anaphylaxis (SRS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what cell type differentiates into macrophages?

A

monocytes differentiate into this

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what happens when lymphocytes are exposed to mitogen phytohemagglutinin (PHA)?

A

lymphocytes transform into lymphoblasts when exposed to this

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

2 types of lymphocytes and their type of response

A
  1. plasma cells (humeral response)

2. cytotoxic T cells (cell mediated response)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

haematocrit

A

packed cell volume synonym

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

average [haemoglobin]

A

average: 15g/dl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

average RBC count

A

average: 5 x 10^12/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

average haematocrit/PCV

A

average 0.45L/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what MCV does one w/ macrositic anemia have?

A

someone w/ this condition would have an MCV >90fl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

signs of anemia (4)

A
  1. pallor
  2. glossitis (inflamed tongue)
  3. angular stomatitis
  4. koilonychia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

how are old platelets destroyed?

A

they are destroyed by phagocytosis in the spleen and Kupffer cells in liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

haemostasis

A

blood clotting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what, along with platelets, forms blood clots?

A

fibrinogen -> fibrin forms this

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

embolism

A

obstruction of artery by blood clot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

describe respiratory epithelium

A

pseudo stratified columnar, ciliated epithelium w/ goblet cells that secret mucus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

vomer

A

bone separating L and R nasal cavities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

boundaries of the nasal cavity

A

medial: septum
lateral: conchae
floor: hard/soft palate
roof: bone (ethmoid, frontonasal, sphenoid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

sinusitis

A

inflammation of nasal sinus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what structure drains tears?

A

nasolacrimal ducts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

4 main sinuses

A
  1. frontal
  2. ethmoidal
  3. sphenoidal
  4. maxillary
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

which vessels anastomose in the nasal cavity

A

the external carotid and internal carotids anastomose here

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

where do you puncture a tube for emergency airway access?

A

cricothyroid membrane is clinically essential for this

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is the opening of the larynx called?

A

laryngeal inlet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

outline the main structures of the larynx

A
  • aryepiglottic fold
  • laryngeal inlet
  • quadrangular membrane
  • vestibular fold
  • saccule
  • vocal fold
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

opening of the vocal folds

A

rima glottidis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

main actions of laryngeal muscles (3)

A
  1. close/open ary-epliglottic folds
  2. close/open rima glottidis
  3. shorten/lengthen vocal folds
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what muscle opens the rima glottidis

A

posterior crico-artenoid does this

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what nerves supply the larynx above and below the vocal cords respectively

A

the superior laryngeal nerve and the recurrent laryngeal nerve respectively

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

layers of the tunica intima (3)

A
  1. simple squamous epithelium
  2. sub-endothelial layer (smooth muscle w/ connective tissue properties)
  3. internal elastic lamina
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

constituents of tunica media (3)

A
  1. elastic sheets (laminae)
  2. layers of smooth muscle
  3. external elastic lamina
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

constituents of tunica adventitia

A
  1. collagen and elastic fibres
  2. vasa vasorum
  3. lymphatics and nerve fibres
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

capillaries w/ holes in endothelium

A

fenestrated endothelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

vessel like fenestrated capillaries but have also incomplete basal lamina

A

blood sinusoids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

rate enhancement

A

catalyses rate/uncatalysed rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Michaelis-Menten constant

A

Km

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

significance of Km w/ how hexokinase and glucokinase works

A

Hexokinase has lower Km so ensures glucose used for energy even at low [ ]. Glucokinase has high Km so glucose only removed from blood for storage at high [ ].

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

how does organophosphate diisopropyl fluorophosphate (DIPF) work as a pesticide?

A

it irreversibly inhibits acetylcholinesterase, preventing acetylcholine from degrading into choline and acetic acid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

how does aspirin work as an irreversible inhibitor?

A

it irreversibly inhibits cyclooxygenase-1, preventing conversion of arachidonic acid into prostaglandin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

example of competitive inhibition

A

example of this type of enzymal inhibition is sulphonamide: similar structure to 4-aminobenzoic acid, which bacteria use to make folic acid

45
Q

2 types of allosteric inhibition

A
  1. mixed inhibition

2. non-competitive inhibition

46
Q

example of allosteric inhibition in phosphofructokinase

A

example of this inhibition: phosphofructokinase binds ATP at two sites (active and inhibitory). W/ high levels of ATP, inhibitory site occupied and active site affected

47
Q

causes of acute inflammation (4)

A
  1. microbial infection
  2. hypersensitivity reaction
  3. physical agent
  4. chemical agent
48
Q

signs of acute inflammation (5)

A
  1. red (dilated vessels)
  2. hot (increased blood flow)
  3. swollen (oedema)
  4. painful (stimulated nerves)
  5. loss of function
49
Q

2 phases of acute inflammation

A
  1. vascular phase

2. exudative phase

50
Q

characteristic cell of acute inflammation

A

neutrophil polymorph

51
Q

lymphangitis

A

inflammation of lymph vessel

52
Q

lymphadenitis

A

inflammation of lymph node

53
Q

3 major opsonins

A
  1. Fc fragment of IgG
  2. C3b
  3. Collectins (plasma proteins that bind to microbial cell wall)
54
Q

what does acute inflammation look like? (7)

A
  1. serous (exudate)
  2. catarrhal (mucus)
  3. fibrinous
  4. hemorrhagic (vascular injury)
  5. suppurative
  6. membranous (epithelium coated by fibrin)
  7. pseudomembranous (superficial mucosal slough)
55
Q

beneficial effects of acute inflammation

A
  • dilution of toxins
  • entry of antibodies, drugs, nutrients, oxygen (b/c increased vascular permeability)
  • fibrin formation (impedes movement of microorganisms)
  • transport of drugs
  • stimulation of immune response
56
Q

harmful effects of acute inflammation

A
  • digestion of normal tissue
  • swelling
  • hypersensitivity
57
Q

pyrexia

A

term for fever

58
Q

systemic effects of acute inflammation

A
  • malaise, anorexia, nausea
  • weight loss due to negative nitrogen balance
  • hyperplasia of reticuloendothelial system
  • haematological changes
  • anaemia
  • leukocytosis
59
Q

trachealis muscle

A

muscle that alters tracheal diameter

60
Q

why are foreign bodies more likely to enter right lung?

A

foreign bodies more likely to enter this lung b/c its bronchus is shorter, wider, and more vertical

61
Q

name the lobar bronchi of the R lung

A
  1. superior lobar bronchus
  2. middle lobar bronchus
  3. lower lobar bronchus
62
Q

level of bronchioles

A
  1. conducting
  2. terminal
  3. respiratory
63
Q

differences b/w bronchi and conducting bronchiole

A

epithelium changes to ciliated columnar and cartilage and glands disappear

64
Q

epithelium of the terminal/respiratory bronchioles

A

respiratory structure w/ non-ciliated cuboidal epithelium (goblet cells disappear)

65
Q

areas of pleura

A
  1. cervical
  2. costal
  3. mediastinal
  4. diaphragmatic
66
Q

anatomical features of the L lung

A
  1. apex
  2. superior lobe
  3. oblique fissure
  4. cardiac notch
  5. lingual
  6. inferior lobe
  7. base
67
Q

hilum

A

where vessels travel in and out of lung

68
Q

fissures of the R lung

A
  1. horizontal/transvere fissure

2. oblique fissure

69
Q

where does the pleura end in relation to the lungs?

A

it ends 2 rib spaces lower than the lungs

70
Q

what muscles depress and elevate the ribs respectively?

A

the internal intercostal and the external intercostal muscles do this respectively

71
Q

what nerve supplies the diaphragm?

A

the phrenic nerve supplies this structure

72
Q

pneumothorax

A

when air enters into pleural cavity

73
Q

prognosis

A

likely course of a disease

74
Q

idiopathic

A

disease that arises spontaneously or for which the cause is unknown

75
Q

outline the sequelae of acute inflammation

A
  1. resolution
  2. suppuration
  3. repair and organization
  4. chronic inflammation
76
Q

factors favouring resolution in inflammation

A
  • minimal cell death/tissue damage
  • occurring in regenerative tissue (ex. liver)
  • rapid destruction of causal agent
  • rapid vascular drainage of fluid and debris
77
Q

factors favouring organisation in inflammation

A
  • large amounts of fibrin
  • substantial necrosis
  • exudate/debris can’t be removed
78
Q

constituents of granulation tissue (4)

A
  1. capillaries
  2. macrophages
  3. fibroblasts
  4. collagen
79
Q

types of primary chronic inflammation

A
  1. resistance of infective agent to phagocytosis (ex. leprosy)
  2. foreign body reactions to endogenous material
  3. foreign body reactions to exogenous material (ex. asbestos)
  4. autoimmune disease (ex. rheumatoid arthritis)
  5. specific disease of unknown aetiology (ulcerative colitis)
  6. primary granulomatous disease (sarcoidosis)
80
Q

osteomyelitis

A

inflammation of bone or bone marrow often caused by infection

81
Q

factors favouring progression from acute to chronic inflammation

A
  1. indigestible substances
  2. deep suppurative inflammation where drainage delayed/inadequate
  3. recurrent episodes of acute inflammation and healing
82
Q

what does chronic inflammation look like?

A
  • chronic ulcer
  • chronic abscess cavity
  • thickening of wall
  • granulomatous inflammation
  • fibrosis
83
Q

what activate/inactivate macrophages?

A

migration inhibition factor (MIF) and macrophage activation factor (MAF)

84
Q

histiocyte

A

macrophage in connective tissue

85
Q

structure of a typical granuloma

A

central giant cell surrounded by histiocytes. Rim of lymphocytes

86
Q

2 types of giant cells and their nucleus characteristic

A
  1. Langhan’s (nuclei in circumference)

2. foreign body type (nuclei in row)

87
Q

common disease caused by sporing bacteria

A
  • botulism
  • gas gangrene
  • tetanus
  • food poisoning
  • anthrax
88
Q

dimer of peptidoglycan

A

N-acetylglucosamine + N-acetylmuramic acid

89
Q

differences b/w eukaryote and prokaryote

A
  • nucleoid instead of nucleus
  • circular DNA
  • plasmids present
  • no membrane bound organelles
  • transcription and translation occur simultaneously
90
Q

which microbe type has ssDNA, ds DNA, ds RNA, and ss RNA

A

viruses have these types of nucleic acid

91
Q

6 steps to viral replication

A
  1. adsorption
  2. penetration
  3. replication
  4. assembly
  5. maturation
  6. release
92
Q

examples of protozoal infections

A
  • malaria
  • giardiasis
  • toxoplasmosis
  • cryptosporidiosis
93
Q

hyphae

A

thread-like filament structure of fungi

94
Q

term for fungal infection

A

mycoses

95
Q

common fungal infections

A
  • candidiasis (yeast)
  • cryptococcosis (affects lungs or meninges)
  • aspergillosis (yeast)
  • ringworm (skin infection)
96
Q

3 types of helminths

A
  1. nematoda
  2. cestoda
  3. trematoda
97
Q

4 modes of helminth transmission

A
  1. intermediate host (ingestion of larvae in host tissue)
  2. fecal-oral
  3. active skin penetration (larvae invade through skin)
  4. injection by blood-sucking insect
98
Q

hypoxia

A

term for oxygen deficiency

99
Q

percentage of O2 in air

A

20% O2 in this

100
Q

percentage of O2 we exhale

A

15% O2 in this

101
Q

4 types of serine proteases

A
  1. trypsin (neg. charged S1)
  2. chymotrypsin (hydrophobic S1)
  3. elastase (small S1)
  4. subtilisin (in prokaryotes. similar to chymotrypsin)
102
Q

what 3 enzymes make up the catalytic triad in serine proteases?

A
  1. aspartate
  2. serine
  3. histidine
103
Q

6 major types of enzymes and examples

A
  1. oxidoreductases (alcohol dehydrogenase)
  2. transferases (hexokinase in producing glucose-6-phosphate)
  3. hydrolases (trypsin)
  4. lyases (carbonic anhydrase)
  5. isomerases
  6. ligases (glutamine synthase)
104
Q

what is a mitogen?

A

chemical substance that encourages a cell to commence cell division, triggering mitosis

105
Q

kinetochore

A

structure on chromatids where spindle fibres attach

106
Q

centrosome

A

pair of centrioles

107
Q

basal body

A

base structures of cilia and flagella

108
Q

how are reticulocytes stained?

A

their small amount of RNA is stained by either cresol violet or methylene blue

MD2001 (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions