MD2001 Week 6 Flashcards
difference b/w deoxyribose and ribose
difference b/w these structures is missing O on carbon 2
5’-3’ Phosphodiester Linkage
backbone of DNA/RNA
structural difference of purines from pyrimidines
this group of nitrogen bases has 2 rings instead of one
what charge does DNA have?
this macromolecule has a negative charge
belt that connects sister chromatids together
centromere
what is a nucleosome?
147 nucleotide pairs around an octameric histone core
4 types of histone proteins in a nucleosome
- H2A
- H2B
- H3
- H4
types of repetitive DNA
- interspersed repeats (SINE/LINE)
2. tandem repeats
types of tandem repeats
- mini satellites 7-100 bases repeated
2. micro satellites 1-6 bases repeated
how does gel electrophoresis work?
DNA fragments separate and move through gel. Shorter molecules (less repeats) move faster and farther b/c they migrate more easily through pores of gel
myotonic dystrophy
an autosomal dominant disorder characterized by muscular dystrophy
characteristics of mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA)
- circular
- maternally inherited
task roles in a healthcare team (5)
- initiator
- coordinator
- information seeker
- information giver
- energizer
maintenance roles in a healthcare team (4)
- encourager
- compromiser
- group observer and commentator
- follower
stages of team development
- forming
- storming
- norming
- performing
- adjourning
how does skin act as a defensive barrier?
- surface is dry
- constant sloughing (removal)
- acidic pH
- sweat secretion
- rich blood/lymph supply
- produce antimicrobial substances (fatty acids, sebum, defensins)
normal skin microbiota (5)
- coagulase-negative staph (staph epidermis, staph aureus)
- streptococcus pyogenes
- propionibacterium acnes
- corynebacterium
- candida
where does gas gangrene occur?
this skin infection occurs in muscle
where does impetigo occur?
this skin infections occurs in the epidermis
what bacterial infection is often associated w/ cystic fibrosis?
pseudomonas auruginosa is often associated w/ this disease
what is the shape of pseudomonas aeruginosa?
shape of this bacteria s coccobacillus
characteristics of pseudomonas aeruginosa
- monotrichous
- opportunistic pathogen
- produces exotoxin A
vesicle (a skin lesion)
blister; fluid filled sac
abscess
collection of pus; pustule
pyoderma
pus-forming skin infection; cutaneous abscess
impetigo
vesicle developing into rupturing pustules then forming dried crusts
ecthyma
rupturing vesicles leading to erythametous lesions and dried crusts
folliculitis
inflammation of hair follicle
furuncle
boil; deep folliculitis
carbuncle
collection of boils
erysipelas
erythema and inflammation of superficial dermis
cellulitis
erythematous inflammation of deeper dermis and subcutaneous fat
acne
infection of sebaceous follicles
necrotising fasciitis
cellulitis w/ necrosis of skin, deeper fascia, and sometimes muscle
dehiscence
wound rupture along surgical suture
what skin infection commonly occurs in hot tubs and by what bacteria?
folliculitis commonly occurs here by pseudomonas auriginosa
group of fungi that cause skin disease
dermatophytes
some viral infections of the skin
- HPV
- Herpes simplex virus (HSV)
- Vericella zoster virus (VZV; chicken pox; shingles)
- Coxsackie A virus
scabies
skin disease caused by mites
what two vessels does the thoracic duct lie between?
this vessel lies between the aorta and azygos vein on the right
semi-conservative replication
type of replication where each daughter molecules has an old (template) and new strand
dNTP
deoxynucleoside triphosphate
roles in DNA replication
- DNA helicase
- DNA primate
- RNA primer
- DNA pol
- DNA ligase
role of telomerase
attaches RNA template to end of lagging strand at end of DNA molecule
exonuclease
enzyme that proofreads and fixes DNA
artificial DNA replication technology
polymerase chain reaction
reasons to use PCR to duplicate infectious agent
- faster than culturing infectious agent
- process dependent on amount of starting material, so can determine how much infectious agent in patient
how does DNA sequencing work?
- DNA strands are separated
- primer added
- ddNTP added
- gel electrophoresis that shit
Why does dideoxyribonucleoside triphosphate prevent strand extension?
ddNTP is missing OH group at 3’
what gram negative bacillus causes UTI, GI infections, pneumonia, and healthcare associated infections?
serratia marcescens causes these infections
what type of agar plate does serrate marcescens grow on?
this bacteria grows well on brain heart infusion (BHI) agar
functions of the kidney (3)
- maintain homeostasis by producing urine
- monitor acid/base balance by excreting H+ during acidosis, or OH- during alkalosis
- secrete renin and erythropoeitin
parts of the nephron (5)
- renal corpuscle (glomerulus)
- proximal convoluted tubule
- loop of Henle
- distal convoluted tubule
- collecting duct
name the structures between the renal pyramids and the ureter
- renal papilla
- minor calyx
- major calyx
- renal sinus
what level are the renal arteries at?
these arteries leave aorta at L2
calculi
term for stones
what vessels do the ureters cross over to reach the bladder?
these tubes cross the iliac vessels to reach its destination
list the structures of the hip bone
- iliac crest
- anterior superior iliac spine
- ischial spine
- acetabulum
- obturator foramen
- pubic tubercle
- pubic crest and symphysis
- pectineal line
bladder muscle
detrusor
what prevents semen back flowing into the bladder?
role of the internal sphincter (sympathetic)
2 ways bladder catheters may be placed
- urethrally
2. suprapubically
branches following the internal iliac artery that supply the bladder
superior/inferior vesical branches
continence
ability to control bladder/bowels
parts of the male urethra
- preprostatic (internal sphincter)
- prostatic
- membranous (external sphincter)
- spongy
what nerve supplies the bladder/urethra/prostate and from where?
pudendal nerve (S2, 3, 4)
what part of brain controls micturition?
“M” centre in pons controls this bodily function
types of RNA polymerases and what they make
- pol I – rRNA
- pol II – mRNA
- pol III – tRNA
what binds RNA pol II to TATA box?
TATA box binding protein (TBP) and transcription factors binds these things
2 types of genes
- transcriptionally regulated
2. housekeeping
what helps transcription factors bind to promoters?
enhancers
zinc fingers
a common binding structure on transcription factors
2 proteins that can loosen nucleosome
histone-modifying enzyme or chromatin-remodelling complex
some ways transcription factors can be activated
- phosphorylated
- ligand binding
- released from inhibitor
- change of binding parter
mRNA caps
5’ cap (methylated guanine) and poly-A tail
roles of mRNA caps (3)
- protect from exonuclease
- aid export
- identify as mRNA
what part of DNA makes the open reading frame?
exons
what type of RNA do spliceosomes have?
they have small nuclear RNA (snRNA)
what do spliceosomes do?
they splice introns into lariat structures
Frasier Syndrome
when not enough form of WT1 protein w/ KTS is made, causing glomerulonephropathy
factors of post-transcriptional modifications
- alternative promoters
- alternative splicing
- alternative 3’ end
- RNA editing
- translational control
path of sperm to semen
seminiferous tubules -> efferent ductules -> epididymis -> ductus deferens -> seminal gland -> ejaculatory duct -> prostate
what are testis surrounded by?
they are surrounded by the tunica vaginalis and scrotum
scrotum muscle
dartos
raphe of scrotum
midline of scrotum
what vessels supply the testicles?
the testicular vessels supply the testes
what vessel lies medial to the vas deferens in the abdomen?
inferior epigastric artery lies medial to this tube
what are the two distinct features on the prostate gland?
- veru montanum
2. openings of ejaculatory duct
what condition occurs in all men and involves enlargement of the prostate?
benign prostatic hyperplasia
where does pain refer to from organs that get their nerves from T10/11
nerves from this level cause referred pain in the peri-umbilical region
what membrane does the ovary hang on?
this structure hangs off the broad ligament on a mesovarium
2 bends of the uterus
anteverted and anteflexed
parts of the uterus
fundus -> body -> cervix -> ant/pos fornix
what structures do you pass when draining the peritoneal from the uterus?
you pass the posterior fornix and the recto-uterine pouch when draining this are from this organ
which arteries supplying the female reproductive system come directly from the aorta, or from the internal iliac arteries?
ovarian artery comes from aorta, while uterine and vaginal arteries come from internal iliac
what artery does the ureter pass inferior to?
this tube passes inferior to uterine artery
2 crura and their functions
- corpora cavernosa (fill w/ blood to produce erection)
2. corpus spongiosum (prevent urethra from compressing during erection)
what glands lubricate the vagina and what structure are they connected posteriorly to?
the greater vestibular glands do this and are connected to the vestibular bulbs
3 levels of tumour spread in the axillary nodes
Level 1: anterior/pectoral group (lateral to pectorals minor)
Level 2: central (deep to P. min)
Level 3: apical (medial to P. min)
what arteries supply the mammary glands?
this structure supplied by axillary and mammary arteries
3 groups of public health activities
- assessment
- policy development
- assurance
4 past waves of public health improvement.
- great public works
- refinement of scientific approach (ex. hospitals)
- restructure institutions (ex. NHS)
- risk theory of disease, lifestyle
what principles outline the determinants of public health
the 2 reports under the Marmot principle (ex. improve living conditions, employment for all)
Ecological Systems Theory
identifies five environmental systems with which an individual interacts
myo-epithelial cells
cells found in glandular epithelium as a thin layer above the basement membrane. Contract and expel the secretions of exocrine glands
cycle of hair follicle
- anagen
- catagen
- telogen
