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MD2001 > MD2001 Week 6 > Flashcards

MD2001 Week 6 Flashcards

1
Q

difference b/w deoxyribose and ribose

A

difference b/w these structures is missing O on carbon 2

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2
Q

5’-3’ Phosphodiester Linkage

A

backbone of DNA/RNA

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3
Q

structural difference of purines from pyrimidines

A

this group of nitrogen bases has 2 rings instead of one

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4
Q

what charge does DNA have?

A

this macromolecule has a negative charge

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5
Q

belt that connects sister chromatids together

A

centromere

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6
Q

what is a nucleosome?

A

147 nucleotide pairs around an octameric histone core

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7
Q

4 types of histone proteins in a nucleosome

A
  1. H2A
  2. H2B
  3. H3
  4. H4
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8
Q

types of repetitive DNA

A
  1. interspersed repeats (SINE/LINE)

2. tandem repeats

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9
Q

types of tandem repeats

A
  1. mini satellites 7-100 bases repeated

2. micro satellites 1-6 bases repeated

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10
Q

how does gel electrophoresis work?

A

DNA fragments separate and move through gel. Shorter molecules (less repeats) move faster and farther b/c they migrate more easily through pores of gel

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11
Q

myotonic dystrophy

A

an autosomal dominant disorder characterized by muscular dystrophy

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12
Q

characteristics of mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA)

A
  • circular

- maternally inherited

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13
Q

task roles in a healthcare team (5)

A
  1. initiator
  2. coordinator
  3. information seeker
  4. information giver
  5. energizer
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14
Q

maintenance roles in a healthcare team (4)

A
  1. encourager
  2. compromiser
  3. group observer and commentator
  4. follower
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15
Q

stages of team development

A
  1. forming
  2. storming
  3. norming
  4. performing
  5. adjourning
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16
Q

how does skin act as a defensive barrier?

A
  • surface is dry
  • constant sloughing (removal)
  • acidic pH
  • sweat secretion
  • rich blood/lymph supply
  • produce antimicrobial substances (fatty acids, sebum, defensins)
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17
Q

normal skin microbiota (5)

A
  1. coagulase-negative staph (staph epidermis, staph aureus)
  2. streptococcus pyogenes
  3. propionibacterium acnes
  4. corynebacterium
  5. candida
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18
Q

where does gas gangrene occur?

A

this skin infection occurs in muscle

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19
Q

where does impetigo occur?

A

this skin infections occurs in the epidermis

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20
Q

what bacterial infection is often associated w/ cystic fibrosis?

A

pseudomonas auruginosa is often associated w/ this disease

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21
Q

what is the shape of pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A

shape of this bacteria s coccobacillus

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22
Q

characteristics of pseudomonas aeruginosa

A
  • monotrichous
  • opportunistic pathogen
  • produces exotoxin A
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23
Q

vesicle (a skin lesion)

A

blister; fluid filled sac

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24
Q

abscess

A

collection of pus; pustule

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25
Q

pyoderma

A

pus-forming skin infection; cutaneous abscess

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26
Q

impetigo

A

vesicle developing into rupturing pustules then forming dried crusts

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27
Q

ecthyma

A

rupturing vesicles leading to erythametous lesions and dried crusts

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28
Q

folliculitis

A

inflammation of hair follicle

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29
Q

furuncle

A

boil; deep folliculitis

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30
Q

carbuncle

A

collection of boils

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31
Q

erysipelas

A

erythema and inflammation of superficial dermis

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32
Q

cellulitis

A

erythematous inflammation of deeper dermis and subcutaneous fat

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33
Q

acne

A

infection of sebaceous follicles

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34
Q

necrotising fasciitis

A

cellulitis w/ necrosis of skin, deeper fascia, and sometimes muscle

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35
Q

dehiscence

A

wound rupture along surgical suture

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36
Q

what skin infection commonly occurs in hot tubs and by what bacteria?

A

folliculitis commonly occurs here by pseudomonas auriginosa

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37
Q

group of fungi that cause skin disease

A

dermatophytes

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38
Q

some viral infections of the skin

A
  • HPV
  • Herpes simplex virus (HSV)
  • Vericella zoster virus (VZV; chicken pox; shingles)
  • Coxsackie A virus
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39
Q

scabies

A

skin disease caused by mites

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40
Q

what two vessels does the thoracic duct lie between?

A

this vessel lies between the aorta and azygos vein on the right

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41
Q

semi-conservative replication

A

type of replication where each daughter molecules has an old (template) and new strand

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42
Q

dNTP

A

deoxynucleoside triphosphate

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43
Q

roles in DNA replication

A
  1. DNA helicase
  2. DNA primate
  3. RNA primer
  4. DNA pol
  5. DNA ligase
44
Q

role of telomerase

A

attaches RNA template to end of lagging strand at end of DNA molecule

45
Q

exonuclease

A

enzyme that proofreads and fixes DNA

46
Q

artificial DNA replication technology

A

polymerase chain reaction

47
Q

reasons to use PCR to duplicate infectious agent

A
  • faster than culturing infectious agent

- process dependent on amount of starting material, so can determine how much infectious agent in patient

48
Q

how does DNA sequencing work?

A
  1. DNA strands are separated
  2. primer added
  3. ddNTP added
  4. gel electrophoresis that shit
49
Q

Why does dideoxyribonucleoside triphosphate prevent strand extension?

A

ddNTP is missing OH group at 3’

50
Q

what gram negative bacillus causes UTI, GI infections, pneumonia, and healthcare associated infections?

A

serratia marcescens causes these infections

51
Q

what type of agar plate does serrate marcescens grow on?

A

this bacteria grows well on brain heart infusion (BHI) agar

52
Q

functions of the kidney (3)

A
  1. maintain homeostasis by producing urine
  2. monitor acid/base balance by excreting H+ during acidosis, or OH- during alkalosis
  3. secrete renin and erythropoeitin
53
Q

parts of the nephron (5)

A
  1. renal corpuscle (glomerulus)
  2. proximal convoluted tubule
  3. loop of Henle
  4. distal convoluted tubule
  5. collecting duct
54
Q

name the structures between the renal pyramids and the ureter

A
  1. renal papilla
  2. minor calyx
  3. major calyx
  4. renal sinus
55
Q

what level are the renal arteries at?

A

these arteries leave aorta at L2

56
Q

calculi

A

term for stones

57
Q

what vessels do the ureters cross over to reach the bladder?

A

these tubes cross the iliac vessels to reach its destination

58
Q

list the structures of the hip bone

A
  • iliac crest
  • anterior superior iliac spine
  • ischial spine
  • acetabulum
  • obturator foramen
  • pubic tubercle
  • pubic crest and symphysis
  • pectineal line
59
Q

bladder muscle

A

detrusor

60
Q

what prevents semen back flowing into the bladder?

A

role of the internal sphincter (sympathetic)

61
Q

2 ways bladder catheters may be placed

A
  1. urethrally

2. suprapubically

62
Q

branches following the internal iliac artery that supply the bladder

A

superior/inferior vesical branches

63
Q

continence

A

ability to control bladder/bowels

64
Q

parts of the male urethra

A
  1. preprostatic (internal sphincter)
  2. prostatic
  3. membranous (external sphincter)
  4. spongy
65
Q

what nerve supplies the bladder/urethra/prostate and from where?

A

pudendal nerve (S2, 3, 4)

66
Q

what part of brain controls micturition?

A

“M” centre in pons controls this bodily function

67
Q

types of RNA polymerases and what they make

A
  1. pol I – rRNA
  2. pol II – mRNA
  3. pol III – tRNA
68
Q

what binds RNA pol II to TATA box?

A

TATA box binding protein (TBP) and transcription factors binds these things

69
Q

2 types of genes

A
  1. transcriptionally regulated

2. housekeeping

70
Q

what helps transcription factors bind to promoters?

A

enhancers

71
Q

zinc fingers

A

a common binding structure on transcription factors

72
Q

2 proteins that can loosen nucleosome

A

histone-modifying enzyme or chromatin-remodelling complex

73
Q

some ways transcription factors can be activated

A
  • phosphorylated
  • ligand binding
  • released from inhibitor
  • change of binding parter
74
Q

mRNA caps

A

5’ cap (methylated guanine) and poly-A tail

75
Q

roles of mRNA caps (3)

A
  1. protect from exonuclease
  2. aid export
  3. identify as mRNA
76
Q

what part of DNA makes the open reading frame?

A

exons

77
Q

what type of RNA do spliceosomes have?

A

they have small nuclear RNA (snRNA)

78
Q

what do spliceosomes do?

A

they splice introns into lariat structures

79
Q

Frasier Syndrome

A

when not enough form of WT1 protein w/ KTS is made, causing glomerulonephropathy

80
Q

factors of post-transcriptional modifications

A
  • alternative promoters
  • alternative splicing
  • alternative 3’ end
  • RNA editing
  • translational control
81
Q

path of sperm to semen

A

seminiferous tubules -> efferent ductules -> epididymis -> ductus deferens -> seminal gland -> ejaculatory duct -> prostate

82
Q

what are testis surrounded by?

A

they are surrounded by the tunica vaginalis and scrotum

83
Q

scrotum muscle

A

dartos

84
Q

raphe of scrotum

A

midline of scrotum

85
Q

what vessels supply the testicles?

A

the testicular vessels supply the testes

86
Q

what vessel lies medial to the vas deferens in the abdomen?

A

inferior epigastric artery lies medial to this tube

87
Q

what are the two distinct features on the prostate gland?

A
  1. veru montanum

2. openings of ejaculatory duct

88
Q

what condition occurs in all men and involves enlargement of the prostate?

A

benign prostatic hyperplasia

89
Q

where does pain refer to from organs that get their nerves from T10/11

A

nerves from this level cause referred pain in the peri-umbilical region

90
Q

what membrane does the ovary hang on?

A

this structure hangs off the broad ligament on a mesovarium

91
Q

2 bends of the uterus

A

anteverted and anteflexed

92
Q

parts of the uterus

A

fundus -> body -> cervix -> ant/pos fornix

93
Q

what structures do you pass when draining the peritoneal from the uterus?

A

you pass the posterior fornix and the recto-uterine pouch when draining this are from this organ

94
Q

which arteries supplying the female reproductive system come directly from the aorta, or from the internal iliac arteries?

A

ovarian artery comes from aorta, while uterine and vaginal arteries come from internal iliac

95
Q

what artery does the ureter pass inferior to?

A

this tube passes inferior to uterine artery

96
Q

2 crura and their functions

A
  1. corpora cavernosa (fill w/ blood to produce erection)

2. corpus spongiosum (prevent urethra from compressing during erection)

97
Q

what glands lubricate the vagina and what structure are they connected posteriorly to?

A

the greater vestibular glands do this and are connected to the vestibular bulbs

98
Q

3 levels of tumour spread in the axillary nodes

A

Level 1: anterior/pectoral group (lateral to pectorals minor)
Level 2: central (deep to P. min)
Level 3: apical (medial to P. min)

99
Q

what arteries supply the mammary glands?

A

this structure supplied by axillary and mammary arteries

100
Q

3 groups of public health activities

A
  1. assessment
  2. policy development
  3. assurance
101
Q

4 past waves of public health improvement.

A
  1. great public works
  2. refinement of scientific approach (ex. hospitals)
  3. restructure institutions (ex. NHS)
  4. risk theory of disease, lifestyle
102
Q

what principles outline the determinants of public health

A

the 2 reports under the Marmot principle (ex. improve living conditions, employment for all)

103
Q

Ecological Systems Theory

A

identifies five environmental systems with which an individual interacts

104
Q

myo-epithelial cells

A

cells found in glandular epithelium as a thin layer above the basement membrane. Contract and expel the secretions of exocrine glands

105
Q

cycle of hair follicle

A
  1. anagen
  2. catagen
  3. telogen

MD2001 (9 decks)

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