Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

LECTURE EXAMINATIONS > LOWER EXTREMITY > Flashcards

LOWER EXTREMITY Flashcards

Ortho conditions, AnaPhy, Special Tests

1
Q

A male patient complains of anterior knee pain especially on going down the stairs. You note that the ROM is full but with pain at end-range. The patella is noted to have a reduced medial glide. There is also some VMO atrophy and iliotibial band tightness. Which would not be included in the exercise program for the patient?

a. VMO squats
b. ITB stretching
c. gluteal setting
d. patellar taping

A

c. gluteal setting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Interdigital (Morton’s) neuroma is a benign tumor found most commonly in?
a. 1st interdigital nerve
b. 2nd interdigital nerve
c. 3rd interdigital nerve
d. 4th interdigital nerve

A

c. 3rd interdigital nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The 67-year old male patient came in with a diagnosis of avulsion fracture of the anterior superior iliac spine of the pelvis. What muscle might have caused this fracture?
a. Rectus femoris
b. Iliopsoas
c. Vastus medialis
d. Tensor fascia latae
e. Sartorius

A

e. Sartorius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

On palpation, tenderness under the metatarsal heads is often found in what injury?
a. fracture
b. sprain
c. achilles tendinitis
d. metatarsalgia
e. plantar fasciitis

A

d. metatarsalgia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Contusion to the ASIS due to direct trauma:
a. Trochanteric bursitis
b. ASIS avulsion fracture
c. Hip pointer injury
d. Snapping hip injury
e. Osteitis pubis

A

c. Hip pointer injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Stage 1 of LCPD:
a. fragmentation
b. initial/necrosis
c. healing
d. reossification

A

b. initial/necrosis

1: initial/necrosis
2: fragmentation
3: reossification
4: healing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Lesion at the inferior pole of the patella is:
a. Panner’s disease
b. Paget’s disease
c. Sinding-Larsen Johansson disease
d. Osgood Schlatter’s disease

A

c. Sinding-Larsen Johansson disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The 76-year old female patient sustained a hip fracture after a fall from her bed. X-rays show a femoral neck fracture and is advised surgery to avoid a complication common to this area. What is this complication?
a. Avascular necrosis
b. Malunion
c. Osteomyelitis
d. Delayed union

A

a. Avascular necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The common pain site of plantar fasciitis is at the:
a. Lateral calcaneus
b. Lateral talus
c. Medial talus
d. Lateral cuboid
e. Medial calcaneus

A

e. Medial calcaneus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The most commonly damaged bursa in the knee is the:
a. Medial bursa
b. Lateral bursa
c. Deep infrapatellar bursa
d. Prepatellar bursa

A

d. Prepatellar bursa

A.K.A. housemaid’s knee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

With symphisis pubis dysfunction in the pregnant patient with pain, special attention should be paid to which of the following?
a. All of the answers
b. overactive abductors
c. underactive adductors
d. poor spinal stabilizing muscles

A

d. poor spinal stabilizing muscles

b: ADD
c: ABD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A patient is seen walking on the ball of the foot with the heel off the ground on one of his lower limbs. One can conclude that he has:
a. Poliomyelitis
b. Pes valgus
c. Pes equinus
d. Genu varum

A

c. Pes equinus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

In post total hip joint arthroplasty patients, which of the following advice will be most useful?
a. Do not overbend the hip up towards the body.
b. Any or all of the answers.
c. Do not cross the leg over the midline.
d. Do not twist in sitting or standing.

A

b. Any or all of the answers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

In major pelvic fractures, emergency fixation should be done as life threatening complications of injury may occur. What is the most common complication?
a. Paralysis
b. Bleeding
c. Malunion
d. Infection

A

b. Bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

On palpation of the hip, if you are suspecting a hamstring strain, where is the area where you will concentrate your palpation?
a. Iliac crests
b. PSIS
c. Popliteal fossa
d. Ischial tuberosity

A

d. Ischial tuberosity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Mechanical interruption of the circulation of the femoral head can lead to a condition in which there is pain felt in the groin, proximal thigh, or buttock area, is usually exacerbated by weight bearing, but it is often present at rest. What is this condition?
a. Trochanteric bursitis
b. Osteoarthritis of the hip
c. Avascular necrosis of the femoral head
d. Septic arthritis of the hip

A

c. Avascular necrosis of the femoral head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

On examination of a patient with severe knee pain, there is note of knee redness, swelling, and warmth. Concomitantly, the patient has febrile episodes. What is this case?
a. Knee OA
b. Infective arthritis
c. Torn ACL
d. Knee bursitis

A

b. Infective arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

On examination of a young male athlete with knee pain, he notes that the pain behind his kneecap is noted more so when he is going down the stairs. What pathology do you consider?
a. Chondromalacia patella
b. Patellar bursitis
c. Patellar tendonitis
d. Torn meniscus

A

a. Chondromalacia patella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The 67 year old male patient came in with a diagnosis of avulsion fracture of the anterior iliac spine of the pelvis. What muscle might have caused this fracture?
a. Ilipsoas
b. Vastus medialis
c. Tensor fascia lata
d. Rectus femoris

A

d. Rectus femoris

A.K.A. Sartorius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The 20 year old athlete friend of yours has pain on the inside of the knee and he says it hurts when he is doing sideways movements. This may be because of:
a. Torn medial collateral ligament
b. Torn medial meniscus
c. Torn anterior cruciate ligament
d. Torn lateral collateral ligament

A

a. Torn medial collateral ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Your patient has anterior compartment syndrome with foot drop. The nerve most likely affected is:
a. common peroneal nerve
b. deep peroneal nerve
c. tibial nerve
d. sciatic nerve

A

b. deep peroneal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The portion of the achilles tendon that is usually affected in achilles tendinitis due to hypovascularity:
a. upper portion
b. lower portion
c. midportion
d. outer portion

A

c. midportion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The following are presentation of coxa valga:
I. posterior pelvic rotation
II. lengthening of ipsilateral leg
III. ER of hip
IV. pronated hip

a. I, II, III
b. III and IV
c. I, II, III
d. IV only

A

c. I, II, III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A snowmobile left the trail and struck a tree. The driver’s left knee was flexed approximately 90 degrees and the tibia impacted with the inside front of the snowmobile. What would this mechanism of injury MOST LIKELY result in?
a. dislocated patella
b. sprained or ruptured posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)
c. sprained or ruptured anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)
d. rupture of the popliteal artery

A

b. sprained or ruptured posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

A 7 year old child presents in the clinic with a limp. He complains of pain in the groin that radiates to the medial thigh and inner aspect of the knee. You noted a positive trendelenburg sign during the evaluation. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a. congenital dislocated hip
b. Legg-Calve-Perthes disease
c. slipped capital femoral epiphysis
d. fractured femoral head

A

b. Legg-Calve-Perthes disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Inflammation of the FHL tendon secondary to overuse:
a. turf toe
b. dancer’s tendinitis
c. splay foot
d. sever’s disease

A

b. dancer’s tendinitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

You have been asked to fabricate a splint for a one month old infant with congenital hip dislocation. In what position should the hip be replaced while in the splint?
a. Flexion and abduction
b. Flexion and adduction
c. Extension and adduction
d. Extension and abduction

A

a. Flexion and abduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Following a displaced femoral neck fracture, your patient underwent THR. You examine a client seven days status post total hip replacement. The client’s medical record indicates the surgeon utilized an anterolateral surgical approach. Which of the following motions would be the most important to restrict during the initial phase of rehabilitation?
a. knee extension
b. knee flexion
c. hip external rotation
d. hip internal rotation

A

c. hip external rotation

d: posterolateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

This condition presents with clicking or popping sound that occurs during running and dancing activities. This is thought to be because of the iliopsoas tendon riding over the greater trochanter or anterior acetabulum. What is this condition?
a. subtrochanteric bursitis
b. snapping hip syndrome
c. ischiogluteal bursitis
d. trochanteric bursitis

A

b. snapping hip syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The patient with a torn meniscus of the knee would present with what type of end feel on ROM of the knee?
a. springy block
b. empty feel
c. capsular feel
d. bony block

A

a. springy block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Prepatellar bursitis is common in activities such as:
a. carpet laying
b. gardening
c. wrestling
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

A 25 year old patient complains of pain and weakness in the lower leg, aggravated by jumping or running activities. The pain is located in the posterior ankle with minor swelling and tenderness. Active dorsiflexion is painful and limited.
a. achilles tendinitis
b. shin splints
c. ankle sprain
d. retrocalcaneal bursitis

A

a. achilles tendinitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Following direct trauma and contusion, extreme care must be taken in the management of myositis ossificans. The muscle MOST OFTEN affected is:
a. triceps
b. biceps brachii
c. quadriceps femoris
d. soleus

A

c. quadriceps femoris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Your patient presents to the clinic with anterior knee pain that worsens when squatting or jumping and uphill running. You know that this condition is caused by repeated eccentric overloading during deceleration activities. Also known as “jumper’s knee”, what is this condition?
a. Achilles tendinitis
b. Chondromalacia patella
c. Patellar tendinitis
d. ACL sprain

A

c. Patellar tendinitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

A teenager comes to an outpatient facility with complaints of pain at the tibial tubercle when playing basketball. The therapist notices that the tubercles are abnormally pronounced on bilateral knees. What condition does the patient most likely have?
a. Jumper’s knee
b. Runner’s knee
c. Osgood-Schlatter disease
d. ACL sprain

A

c. Osgood-Schlatter disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the most commonly damaged bursa in the knee?
a. Pes anserine bursitis
b. Baker’s cyst
c. Housemaid’s knee
d. Nun’s knee

A

c. Housemaid’s knee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Wagner classification stage 1:
a. intact skin
b. deep with osteomyelitis/abscess
c. superficial/local ulcer
d. gangrene of whole foot
e. partial gangrene of foot

A

c. superficial/local ulcer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

A 29 year old woman is referred to a therapist with a diagnosis of recurrent ankle sprains. The patient has a history of several inversion ankle sprains within the past year. No edema or redness is noted at this time. Which of the following is the best treatment plan?
a. Gastrocnemius stretching, ankle strengthening, and ice
b. rest, ice, compression, elevation, and ankle strengthening
c. ankle strengthening and a proprioception program
d. rest, ice, compression, elevation, and gastrocnemius stretching

A

c. ankle strengthening and a proprioception program

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

While gait training a patient following a stroke, the therapist observes the knee on the hemiparetic side going into recurvatum during stance phase. What is the MOST LIKELY cause of this deviation?
a. a tight gluteus maximus
b. tight hip flexors
c. weakness of severe spasticity of the quadriceps
d. a tight gastrocnemius-soleus complex

A

c. weakness of severe spasticity of the quadriceps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

A patient presents with flatfoot deformity. The therapist recognizes that this can result from injury to muscle tendon. Which structure should be examined?
a. Anterior tibialis tendon
b. Posterior tibialis tendon
c. Fibularis longus tendon
d. Achilles tendon

A

b. Posterior tibialis tendon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Osteochondritis dissecans occurs most commonly in the:
a. Capitellum
b. Humeral condyle
c. Medial femoral condyle
d. Lateral femoral condyle

A

c. Medial femoral condyle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

You evaluate your patient who is a runner. He complaints to have posteromedial leg pain while running which he associates with improper foot wear cushioning. The pain subsides with rest. Upon palpation, you noted tenderness of the tibial crest area. What is the BEST diagnosis for this patient?
a. Achilles tendinitis
b. Shin splints
c. Ankle sprain
d. Retrocalcaneal bursitis

A

b. Shin splints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

On physical examination of an infant patient, you observe that the forefoot is positioned lateral, the hind foot is in valgus, and the foot is in full dorsiflexion. This results simply from a large infant in too small fo a space, and the condition improves spontaneously. What is this deformity?
a. calcaneovalgus
b. calcaneovarus
c. equinovarus
d. equinovalgus

A

a. calcaneovalgus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What do you call this foot deformity in which there is a transverse plane deformity with adduction of all of the five metatarsals, which occurs at the tarsometatarsal joint?
a. Metatarsus adductus
b. Metatarsus varus
c. Metatarsus adductovarus
d. Forefoot adductus

A

a. Metatarsus adductus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

A therpist is scheduled to treat a patient with cerebral palsy who has been classified as a spastic quadriplegic. Your patient presents with the foot adducted, inverted and plantarflexed. What type of orthopedic deformity should the therapist expect to see in a patient’s feet?
a. Talipes equinovalgus
b. Talipes equinovarus
c. Clubfeet
d. B & C are correct

A

d. B & C are correct

b: A.K.A. clubfoot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

You examine your patient who presents to the rehab with complaints of plantar heel pain associated with retrocalcaneal bursitis. you palpate the calcaneal tuberosity at the distal end of the Achilles tendon and you indicate that he is positive for “pump bump”. What is the BEST diagnosis for this patient?
a. Achilles tendinitis
b. Haglund deformity
c. Calcaneovalgus
d. Sever’s disease

A

b. Haglund deformity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Hallux valgus describes a deformity of the first MTP joint in which the proximal phalanx is deviated laterally with respect to the first metatarsal. Hallux valgus is considered normal if it is less than:
a. 20 degrees
b. 25 degrees
c. 15 degrees
d. 30 degrees

A

c. 15 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Your patient has a history of recurrent lateral ankle sprain and increased symptoms when walking or running on uneven terrain as compared with an even terrain. Upon evaluation, she has inability to maintain quiet stance during single standing. What is the MOST likely diagnosis for this patient?
a. chronic lateral ankle instability
b. plantar fasciitis
c. Morton’s neuroma
d. metatarsalgia

A

a. chronic lateral ankle instability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Your 40-year old male patient was playing basketball and describes hearing a pop and feeling as though someone kicked in the back of the leg. The most common injury and special test to assess the problem is ___.
a. ACL tear, Lachman’s test
b. Achilles tendon rupture, Ober’s test
c. ACL tear, Thomas test
d. Achilles tendon rupture, Thompson test

A

d. Achilles tendon rupture, Thompson test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

A 19-year old male football player had injury to the anterior aspect of the leg and complains of severe pain over the area of injury. On PE, stretching of the ankle dorsiflexors is very painful. The skin is red, glossy, warm, and tender. The MOST likely diagnosis is ___:
a. contusion of the peroneal nerve
b. rupture of the plantaris tendon
c. anterior compartment syndrome
d. fracture of the fibula

A

c. anterior compartment syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

The Cinema sign which is pain on the knee increased on stair climbing, and relief on standing is observed in patients with:
a. patellar subluxation
b. chondromalacia patella
c. patellar dislocation
d. osteoarthritis of patella

A

b. chondromalacia patella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

The knee is the largest joint in the body and it is among the most frequently injured joints within athletic and industrial environments. The following statements apply correctly to this joint, EXCEPT:
I. It is a complex joint with three bones, two degrees of freedom of motion, and three articulating surfaces.
II. The medial tibiofemoral, lateral tibiofemoral, and patellofemoral articulations are enclosed by a common joint capsule.
III. The knee can support the body weight in the erect position without muscle activity.
IV. In walking and running, the normal knee requires vertical and lateral oscillations of the center of gravity of the body while sustaining vertical forces equal to 4 to 6 times the body weight.
V. The relatively shallow joint provides for limited motion, but the joint configuration means that the knee must rely on soft tissue structures for its primary support and stability.

a. AOTA
b. I, II, and III
c. II, III, IV
d. IV and V
e. Only IV

A

d. IV and V

V: limited motion = should be EXTENSIVE motion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

All are causes of PFPS, except:
a. femoral anteversion
b. foot pronation
c. genu valgum
d. external tibial torsion
e. none of these

A

e. none of these

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

A terminal lateral rotation of the tibia is said to “lock” the joint when the knee is fully extended. The key is the:
a. biceps femoris
b. popliteus
c. piriformis
d. gastrocnemius
e. soleus

A

b. popliteus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

A client with confirmed PCL tear is able to return to full dynamic activities following rehabilitation. Which of the following does not serve as secondary restrain to PCL?
a. ITB
b. popliteus
c. LCL
d. MCL

A

a. ITB

a: limit anterior translation of tibia (ACL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

The following statements are true of the patella, EXCEPT:
a. Decreases pressure and distribute forces on the femur.
b. It is unable to prevent damaging forces.
c. Increases the leverage of quadriceps femoris.
d. When the knee is flexed, it provides bony protection to the distal joint surfaces of the femoral condyles.

A

b. It is unable to prevent damaging forces.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

A predisposing factor to recurrent knee dislocation is:
a. marked genu varum
b. deep patellar groove
c. weak vastus medialis
d. lateral capsule laxity

A

c. weak vastus medialis

a: varum = should be VALGUM
b: deep patellar groove = should be SHALLOW
d: lateral = should be MEDIAL (mas dali ma kuan laterally)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Medial rotators of the tibia include the following:
I. Gracilis
II. Semitendinosus
III. Sartorius
IV. Popliteus

a. AOTA
b. I, II, and III
c. I and III
d. II and IV
e. only IV

A

a. AOTA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

The following statements are true of the collateral ligaments, EXCEPT:
a. lateral collateral ligament connects the femur and the fibula
b. These ligaments may be easily injured when force is applied to the knee while a person’s leg is extended with his foot firmly planted on the ground.
c. Medial collateral ligament connects the femur to the tibia.
d. Prevent side to side movement by tightening during leg extension
e. The collateral ligaments can tear when the femur is externally rotated on the tibia

A

e. The collateral ligaments can tear when the femur is externally rotated on the tibia

e: externally: should be INTERNALLY rotated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

The following describe the lateral meniscus, EXCEPT:
a. There is an area of no point attachment to the tibia from under the anterior cruciate ligament to the anterior margin of the tibia.
b. May move anteriorly-posteriorly as the condyle does.
c. The lateral meniscus is much less secure than the medial of movement by the lateral femoral condyle over the lateral plateau of the tibia.
d. Has considerably less mobility than the medial meniscus and by its shape and contour tends to be controlled much more by the femoral condyle.

A

d. Has considerably less mobility than the medial meniscus and by its shape and contour tends to be controlled much more by the femoral condyle.

less mobility: should be MORE mobility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

The aponeurotic insertion of the large extensor muscle of the knee largely provides the fibrous capsule for the front and sides of the joint. In the tendon of this powerful muscle, a sesamoid bone developed and became articular. Name this bone:
a. tibia
b. femoral condyle
c. patella
d. lateral condyle

A

c. patella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

The bursa that is affected in Baker’s cyst:
a. prepatellar bursa
b. suprapatellar bursa
c. infrapatellar bursa
d. popliteal bursa
e. pes anserine bursa

A

d. popliteal bursa

a: housemaid’s knee
c: clergyman’s knee, nun’s knee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Although knee motion occurs primarily in one plane, tibial rotation is possible when the knee is positioned in 90 degrees or more of flexion because in this position:
a. tension of the ligaments is decreased
b. patella deviates inferiorly
c. hamstrings act as a rotating force
d. condyles of the femur glide posteriorly on the condyles of the tibia

A

a. tension of the ligaments is decreased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

A therapist positions a patient in prone to measure knee flexion. Range of motion may be limited in this position due to:
a. passive insufficiency of the knee extensors
b. passive insufficiency of the sacrospinalis group
c. active insufficiency of the knee extensors
d. passive insufficiency of the knee fleors
e. active insufficiency of the knee flexors

A

a. passive insufficiency of the knee extensors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Your patient suffered from a patellar dislocation. What is the most common direction of dislocation?
a. superior
b. inferior
c. medial
d. lateral
e. anterior

A

d. lateral

e: for knee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

The compression reaction force on the patella is highest in:
a. crossed leg position
b. straight-leg raising exercises
c. squatting
d. crawling

A

c. squatting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Which of the following is true of the hamstring?
a. all of these
b. none of these
c. they extend the hip and/or flex the knee
d. rotates the knee joint when the joint is fully extended

A

c. they extend the hip and/or flex the knee

d: flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Course of the ACL:
a. upward, backward, medial
b. upward, forward, lateral
c. upward, forward, medial
d. upward, backward, lateral

A

d. upward, backward, lateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Which of the following structures form the angle of the Q-angle?
a. ASIS, mid patella, tibial tubercle
b. AIIS, mid patella, tibial tuberosity
c. PSIS, ligamentum patellae, tibial tubercle
d. PIIS, ligamentum patellae, tibial tuberosity

A

a. ASIS, mid patella, tibial tubercle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Quadriceps muscle paralysis occurs with severance of the femoral nerve from a gunshot or other trauma. Various compensations can be used so people with quadriceps weakness can walk and function in a safe manner without a noticeable limp. Which of these compensations is/are applicable?
a. Momentum from the hip can be used to straighten the knee in walking.
b. Use the gluteus maximus to extend the knee in closed chain motion.
c. The hand on the side of the weak quadriceps is used to push on the anterior thigh.
d. A slight forward lean from the hips to place the center of gravity of HAT in front of the knee’s axis of motion in the sagittal plane.
e. AOTA

A

e. AOTA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Contents of popliteal fossa from the deepest to the most superficial:
a. posterior tibial nerve, popliteal vein, popliteal artery
b. popliteal artery, popliteal vein, posterior tibial nerve
c. popliteal vein, popliteal artery, posterior tibial nerve
d. posterior tibial nerve, popliteal artery, popliteal vein
e. popliteal vein, posterior tibial nerve, politeal artery

A

b. popliteal artery, popliteal vein, posterior tibial nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

The attachments of this structure can be palpated and identified by placing the index finger on the lateral epicondyle of the femur and middle finger on the head of the fibula:
a. LCL
b. none of these
c. medial meniscus
d. MCL

A

a. LCL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

In screw-home mechanism, at the last 20 degrees of knee extension on OKC, the tibia:
a. externally rotates
b. internally rotates
c. moves variably
d. is immobile
e. none of these

A

a. externally rotates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Possible causes of genu recurvatum:
I. quadriceps weakness
II. quadriceps spasticity
III. plantarflexor spasticity
IV. plantarflexor weakness

a. I, II and III
b. I and III
c. II and IV
d. all of these
e. none of these

A

a. I, II and III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

In squatting, knee flexion is produced by:
a. Gravity with concentric contraction of hamstrings.
b. Gravity with eccentric contraction of quadriceps.
c. Gravity with concentric contraction of quadriceps.
d. Gravity with eccentric contraction of the illiopsoas.

A

b. Gravity with eccentric contraction of quadriceps.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Medial collateral ligament rupture in the knee is due to excessive:
a. varus
b. external rotation
c. internal rotation
d. valgus

A

d. valgus

a: lat. collateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What part of the meniscus of the knee is poorly vascularized?
a. peripheral outer 1/3
b. peripheral 2/3
c. inner 2/3
d. inner 1/3

A

c. inner 2/3

(vascularized inc. blood supply)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

The following statements are true of the terminal rotation of the knee, EXCEPT:
a. Allows humans with an energy-efficient mechanism a mechanical stability to stand erect without quadriceps muscle contraction.
b. Terminal rotation is seen as internal rotation of the femur on the fixed tibia in a closed chain motion.
c. In the last 20 degrees of knee extension, the tibia externally rotates about 20 degrees on the fixed femur.
d. It is a mechanical event that occurs only in active knee extension and can voluntarily be prevented.

A

d. It is a mechanical event that occurs only in active knee extension and can voluntarily be prevented.

terminal rotation: screwhome mechanism

d: only in active knee ext = should be ACTIVE/PASSIVE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

A therapist observing a patient complete a leg curl exercise notices 2 prominent tendons visible on the posterior surface of the patient’s knee. The visible tendons are most likely associated with the:
a. semimembranosus and semitendinosus
b. semitendinosus and biceps femoris
c. popliteus and semitendinosus
d. semimembranosus and biceps femoris

A

b. semitendinosus and biceps femoris

semitend = most prominent
biceps fem = lat. hams.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

False about screw home mechanism:
a. occurs on the last 20 degrees of knee extension
b. IR of tibia in closed kinematic chain motion
c. IR of femur in closed kinematic chain motion
d. ER of tibia in open kinematic chain motion

A

b. IR of tibia in closed kinematic chain motion

should be: ER of tibia in open kinematic chain motion

81
Q

Partial tearing to this ligament occurs at its femoral or tibial attachment and is a result of forced abduction of the tibia in the femur:
a. LCL
b. ACL
c. MCL
d. PCL

A

c. MCL

82
Q

Patient X landed with his knees hyperextended. A maneuver yields excessive anterior translation of the tibia on the femur. The patient shows apprehension upon doing this maneuver. The ruptured ligament is:
a. ACL
b. PCL
c. LCL
d. MCL
e. normal

A

a. ACL

83
Q

The most common knee deformity seen in patients with degenerative osteoarthritis is:
a. genu valgum
b. genu varum
c. tibial torsion
d. genu recurvatum

A

b. genu varum

b: OA
d: polio

84
Q

A patient’s severe knee sprain resulted from medial rotation of the femur on the tibia with simultaneous application of valgus force while the foot was placed on the ground. Which structures are most likely to be involved?
a. MCL, PCL, and lateral meniscus
b. MCL, LCL, and PCL
c. LCL, ACL, and medial meniscus
d. MCL, ACL, and medial meniscus

A

d. MCL, ACL, and medial meniscus

85
Q

In acute patellar dislocation, this muscle is usually disrupted or impaired:
a. vastus intermedius
b. rectus femoris
c. vastus lateralis
d. vastus medialis

A

d. vastus medialis

86
Q

You have a patient with a knee flexion contracture. Your goal is to increase knee extension by doing a stretching exercise. Which of the following does not need to be stretched?
a. hamstring muscle
b. gastrocnemius muscle
c. infrapatellar tendon
d. none of these

A

c. infrapatellar tendon

87
Q

Position of the knee where ACL is taut:
a. full flexion
b. 30-degree flexion
c. extension and IR
d. full extension and ER
e. 90 degrees flexion

A

c. extension and IR

88
Q

The following statements are true of the knee joint, EXCEPT:
a. Limitation by the two-joint rectus femoris muscle decreases knee flexion ROM when the hip is in flexion.
b. End-feel for extension or hyperextension is firm.
c. End-feel for passive knee flexion is soft.
d. It possesses two degrees freedom and range of flexion is from 120 to 150 degrees.

A

a. Limitation by the two-joint rectus femoris muscle decreases knee flexion ROM when the hip is in flexion.

89
Q

A stab wound to the popliteal fossa will primarily injure which structure:
a. popliteal tibial nerve
b. popliteus
c. common peroneal nerve
d. popliteal artery

A

a. popliteal tibial nerve

90
Q

“Charley horse” is the contusion and tearing of muscle fibers resulting into the muscle from damaged vessels. Its most common site is the:
a. Pectineus
b. Adductors
c. Pes anserinus
d. Quadriceps

A

d. Quadriceps

MC strained = hams

91
Q

A 14 year old athletic boy has a painful bump in the anterior tibial tubercles.
a. Osgood-Schlatter disease
b. Osteogenesis imperfecta
c. Sinding-Larsen-Johansson disease
d. Jumper’s knee
e. Osteochondritis dissecans

A

a. Osgood-Schlatter disease

92
Q

With the subject sitting and the knee relaxed in 90 degrees of flexion, these distal enlargements of the femur can be felt anteriorly on both sides of the patella:
a. none of these
b. condyles
c. epicondyles
d. medial collateral ligaments

A

b. condyles

93
Q

In actions such as jumping with knees bent, the femur has a marked tendency to slide forwards off the plateau-like tibial surface. This ligament resists this tendency:
a. PCL
b. LCL
c. MCL
d. ACL

A

a. PCL

94
Q

The mechanism of injury for the PCL is:
a. A forceful landing on the anterior tibia with the knee hyperflexed.
b. An anterior force to the tibia while the foot is fixed.
c. Internal rotation of the leg with external rotation of the body.
d. A valgus force to the knee while the foot is fixed.

A

a. A forceful landing on the anterior tibia with the knee hyperflexed.

95
Q

The joint capsule of the knee is supported superiorly by the oblique popliteal ligament. This is an expansion of what muscle?
a. semitendinosus
b. semimembranosus
c. biceps femoris
d. gastrocnemius

A

b. semimembranosus

96
Q

A therapist observes a patient complete full active knee flexion ROM. Which of the following is not a component of knee flexion?
a. medial rotation of the tibia on femur
b. superior movement of the patella
c. inferior movement of the fibula
d. posterior glide of tibia on femur

A

b. superior movement of the patella

b: inferior

97
Q

The following statements describe the cruciate ligaments of the knee, except:
a. The PCL is attached to the lateral meniscus.
b. The ACL moves upward and backward to attach to the lateral femoral condyles.
c. The PCL prevents anterior displacement of the tibia.
d. The ACL prevents hyperextension of the knee.

A

c. The PCL prevents anterior displacement of the tibia.

should be ACL

98
Q

The Q-angle is considered excessive if it is over:
a. 20 degrees
b. 15 degrees
c. 10 degrees
d. 0 degrees

A

a. 20 degrees

Normal: 13 to 18 degrees

99
Q

Meniscal tears in the knee joint usually result from:
a. hyperextension
b. hyperflexion
c. rotation in full extension
d. rotation in partial flexion

A

c. rotation in full extension

(naka lock ang knee)

100
Q

Why is the lateral meniscus injured less often than the medial meniscus?
a. It is more mobile.
b. It is thinner.
c. It is longer in diameter.
d. It is stabilized by the hamstrings.

A

a. It is more mobile.

101
Q

During knee flexion and extension, what will produce an audible clicking in the joint line?
a. Mcmurray test
b. Ober test
c. Apley’s compression test
d. Thomas test

A

a. Mcmurray test

102
Q

The therapist is performing an orthopedic test on a 25-year old man with the chief complaint of low back pain. The patient has a positive Thomas test. With this information, what might the therapist need to include in the treatment plan?
a. stretching of the hip abductors
b. stretching of the hip adductors
c. stretching of the hip extensors
d. stretching of the hip flexors

A

d. stretching of the hip flexors

103
Q

What clinical examination technique will establish whter an infant’s hip is dislocatable?
a. Barlow test
b. Otrolani’s maneuver
c. Hoffman test
d. Galeazzi maneuver

A

a. Barlow test

104
Q

When testing for a MCL tear, apply:
a. valgus stress
b. varus stress
c. posterior stress
d. anterior stress

A

a. valgus stress

105
Q

A patient is placed in supine position with the knee in 90 degrees of flexion. The foot is stabilized by the therapist’s body on the examination table. The therapist then wraps his fingers around the proximal tibia so that the thumbs are resting along the anteromedial and the anterolateral margins. The therapist then applies a force to pull the tibia forward. What special test is being performed?
a. Pivot shift
b. Lachman’s test
c. Anterior drawer
d. Posterior drawer

A

c. Anterior drawer

106
Q

A physical therapist examines a 16 year old male diagnosed with left knee ACL insufficiency. During the examination, a Lachman test is performed. Ideally, the therapist should perform the test with the knee in:
a. 20-30 degrees flexion
b. 30-40 degrees flexion
c. 40-50 degrees flexion
d. 80-90 degrees flexion

A

a. 20-30 degrees flexion

107
Q

The patient lies supine and flexes one of his hips, bringing the knee to chest to flatten the lumbar spine and stabilize the pelvis. If the tested leg lifts off of the table, it indicates the presence of an iliopsoas contracture.
a. Baker’s test
b. Segal’s test
c. Thomas test
d. Patrick’s test
e. None of these

A

c. Thomas test

108
Q

Jansen test:
a. Piston
b. Simmond’s
c. FABER test
d. None of these

A

c. FABER test

109
Q

Test for biceps femoris strain:
a. Phelp’s test
b. taking off the shoes test
c. Godfrey test
d. Mccarthy
e. Mcmurray

A

b. taking off the shoes test

110
Q

Your patient is in the prone position with the knee flexed. you compressed the heel and rotated the leg. The patient complained of pain. What test did you use?
a. McMurray
b. Apley’s
c. TInel
d. Ober

A

b. Apley’s

111
Q

A therapist positions a client in sidelying and performs a talar tilt test. A positive talar tilt test indicates:
a. Deltoid ligament injury
b. excessive tibial torsion
c. calcaneofibular ligament injury
d. ligamentous instability
e. muscular instability

A

c. calcaneofibular ligament injury

112
Q

This test flexes the knee into full flexion and passively allows it to extend completely with a sharp end point. It is designed to evaluate a lack of full knee extension, most often secondary to a torn meniscus.
a. Bounce Home test
b. Apley’s test
c. Mc Murray test
d. Apprehension test
e. none of these

A

a. Bounce Home test

113
Q

A therapist positions a client short sitting with LE dangling off a plinth and knee passively extended. As the knee extends, the client’s body leans backwards and place their hands on the plinth. The clinical finding is most indicative of:
a. tight iliopsoas
b. tight quads
c. tight hamstrings
d. tight TFL
e. none of these

A

c. tight hamstrings

114
Q

If a patient is supine with knees flexed to 90 degrees and feet flat on the table, how will you determine if the right hip is dislocated?
a. right knee is anterior to the left
b. left knee is higher than the right
c. right knee is higher than the left
d. left knee is anterior to the right
e. right knee is posterior to the left

A

b. left knee is higher than the right

115
Q

Best indicator of ACL injury:
a. positive anterior drawer test
b. postive Lachman test
c. positive Slocum test
d. none of the above

A

b. postive Lachman test

116
Q

Which is NOT a test for rotatory instability of the knee?
a. ballottement
b. jerk test of Hughston
c. active pivot shift
d. dial

A

a. ballottement

or swelling

117
Q

To test the left gluteus medius muscle in trendelenburg, the patient is asked to:
a. stand on the left leg
b. stand on the right leg
c. lower the left hip
d. lower the right hip

A

a. stand on the left leg

118
Q

Telescoping sign:
a. Dupuytren’s test
b. Allis test
c. Piston
d. AOTA
e. A and C only

A

e. A and C only

119
Q

Rectus femoris contracture test, method 2
a. Tripod sign
b. Kendall
c. Ely’s test
d. none of these

A

c. Ely’s test

120
Q

With the patient’s knee extended or flexed to discomfort, the examiner cups the patella and then applies a slight tap or pressure over the patella. When this is done, a floating of the patella should be felt.
a. patellar tap test
b. ballotable patella
c. “dancing patella” sign
d. all of these

A

d. all of these

121
Q

Too many loss sign is positive hwen:
a. heels on varus
b. anteverted hip
c. forefoot is abducted
d. tibia is medially rotated
e. none of these

A

c. forefoot is abducted

122
Q

A positive Kleiger’s test indicates
a. flatfoot
b. deltoid ligament tear
c. Achilles tendon rupture
d. tibiotalar dislocation

A

b. deltoid ligament tear

123
Q

In hamstring contracture, method 1, the patient lies supine with both hips and knees flexed to 90 degrees. The patient’s performs knee extension and the popliteal angle is measured.
a. both statements are correct
b. both statements are incorrect
c. first statement is incorrect, second is correct
d. first statement is correct, second is incorrect

A

a. both statements are correct

124
Q

A (+) right pelvic drop during Trendelenburg test indicates
a. L g.med weakness
b. R g.max weakness
c. L unstable hip
d. R g.med weakness
e. A and C

A

e. A and C

125
Q

The patient lies prone with knees extended. Patient’s hips are passively abducted. The knees are then flexed to 90 degrees and the examiner tries to abduct the hips further. If no abduction occurs, it will indicate:
a. A positive test for biceps femoris tightness.
b. (+) Piriformis test
c. A positive test for g.med tightness.
d. A positive tes for gracilis tightness
e. none of these

A

e. none of these

126
Q

The following may be positive in the sign of buttocks test, except:
a. bursitis
b. abscess
c. tumor
d. hip pathology
e. none of these

A

e. none of these

127
Q

In this test, infant patient is in supine position with hips and knees in 90 degrees of flexion. Test femur is then pushed down against the examining table and lifted. Positive test indicates a dislocated hip. This test is:
a. piston test
b. Dupuytren’s contracture
c. telescoping sign
d. all of these
e. both a and c

A

e. both a and c

128
Q

Varus stress at the knee joint puts stretch stress on the following, EXCEPT for:
a. structures on Biceps femoris
b. structures on LCL
c. structures on Arcuate Popliteus complex
d. structures on posterolateral complex
e. none of these

A

e. none of these

129
Q

The following landmarks are necessary to obtain the Nelaton’s line, EXCEPT:
a. Ischial tuberosity
b. ASIS
c. Greater trochanter
d. None of these
e. all of these

A

d. None of these

130
Q

In hamstring contracture test method 2, the patient is in long sitting position. Then the patient is asked to reach the toes.
a. both statements are correct
b. both statements are incorrect
c. first statement is incorrect, second is correct
d. first statement is correct, second is incorrect

A

a. both statements are correct

131
Q

Upon examining a patient with vague hip pain that radiates to the lateral knee, the physical therapist finds a negative FABER test, negative grind test, and a positive Noble’s compression test. The dysfunction is most likely due to:
a. DJD of the hip
b. SI joint dysfunction
c. irritation of the L5 spinal nerve root
d. an iliotibial band friction syndrome

A

d. an iliotibial band friction syndrome

132
Q

A physical therapist performs the Talar tilt test on a 22-year-old female rehabilitating from an inversion ankle sprain. Which ligament does the Talar Tilt test examine primarily?
a. Calcaneofibular
b. Deltoid ligament
c. Anterior talocalcaneal
d. Posterior talotibial

A

a. Calcaneofibular

133
Q

To assess for possible tightness or spasm, the therapist placed the patient in supine position and put the foot of the test leg on the knee of the opposite leg. The examiner then slowly lowered the test leg towards the exam table. The therapist noted that the test leg fell on the table or was parallel to the good leg. The patient was positive for which test:
a. Jansen test
b. Trendelenburg sign
c. Patrick test
d. A and C
e. none of these

A

e. none of these

(not parallel unta if positive)

134
Q

A therapist positions a client prone on a plinth and passively flexes her right knee. As the knee flexes, the client’s hip on the same side also begin to flex. The clinical finding most indicative of a:
a. tight iliopsoas
b. tight right rectus femoris
c. tight left recuts remoris
d. tight hamstrings

A

b. tight right rectus femoris

135
Q

In 90-90 straight leg raising test, the supine patient flexes both hips to 90 degrees while the knees are bent then grasps behind the knees with both hands to stabilize the hips at 90 degrees flexion. The patient’s knee is actively moved to flexion and knee flexion limitation is measured.
a. both statements are correct
b. both statements are incorrect
c. first statement is incorrect, second is correct
d. first statement is correct, second is incorrect

A

b. both statements are incorrect

136
Q

You are evaluating a 48-year-old tennis player with a lower extremity problem. You would use the Thompson test to assess for:
a. anterolateral rotational instability of the knee
b. Achilles tendon rupture
c. Illiopsoas tightness
d. rectus femoris tightness

A

b. Achilles tendon rupture

137
Q

A therapist assesses the ligamentous integrity of a client’s kene by completing a series of special tests. The most accurate way to determine if the client’s ligamentous integrity is compromised is to:
a. instruct the referring physician to order radiographs
b. compare the ligamentous laxity in the involved knee to the uninvolved knee
c. compare the ligamentous laxity to his family without knee pathology
d. compare the ligamentous laxity to other clients in the clinic without knee pathology
e. compare the millimeters of ligamentous laxity to established norms

A

b. compare the ligamentous laxity in the involved knee to the uninvolved knee

138
Q

If congenital dislocation of the hip is not diagnosed early of there is developmental dysplasia of the hip, parents often note that when they change the child’s diapers, one leg does not abduct as far as the other one. This is the basis for this test. with the hips and knees flexed to 90 degrees, the examiner passively abducts both legs noting for asymmetry of limitation of motion.
a. Hart’s sign
b. Ely’s test
c. Ortolani’s sign
d. Duyputren’s test

A

a. Hart’s sign

139
Q

You are assessing a patient with complaints of hip pain beginning at the greater trochanter with radiating symptoms extending down below the knee. There are no physical signs of injury and the patient is slightly tender to palpation on the greater trochanter. You suspect the patient’s problems may be a result of illiotibial tightness. To evaluate the illiotibial band, which of the following tests would be the most appropriate to utilize?
a. Ober test
b. Thomas test
c. SLR test
d. Trendelenburg test

A

a. Ober test

140
Q

A PT is examining a patient who complains of posterior ankle pain. The patient is positioned prone with feet extended over the edge of the mat. The PT squeezes the involved gastrocnemius over the middle third of the muscle belly. What test is the therapist performing? What indicates a positive test?
a. Thompson’s test, plantarflexion of ankle
b. Homan’s test, plantarflexion of the ankle
c. Homan’s test, no ankle movement
d. Thompson’s test, no ankle movement

A

d. Thompson’s test, no ankle movement

141
Q

This test is designed primarily to test for injuries to the anterior talofibular ligament, the most frequently injured ligament of the ankle. The examiner stabilizes the tibia and fibula, holds the patient’s foot in 20 degrees PF and draws the talus forward in the ankle mortise.
a, Talar tilt test
b. Posterior drawer test
c. Anterior drawer test
d. None of these

A

c. Anterior drawer test

142
Q

Patrick’s test is also known as?
a. Jansen test
b. Figure-four test
c. FABER test
d. All of these
e. A and C

A

d. All of these

143
Q

AKA “Gravity Test” :
a. Hughston’s test
b. Posterior sag sign
c. Posterior drawer test
d. Godfrey test

A

d. Godfrey test

144
Q

This test is good only for assessing unilat. congenital hip dislocation or unilat. developmental dysplasia of the hip and may be used in children from 3 to 18 months of age. The child lies supine with knees and hips flexed with feet flat on the surface. One knee higher than the other indicated a positive test.
a. Ely’s test
b. Allis test
c. Hart’s sign
d. A and C
e. none of these

A

b. Allis test

145
Q

Hamstring contracture test Method 3:
a. FABER test
b. Kleigher test
c. Tripod sign
d. B and C
d. none of these

A

c. Tripod sign

146
Q

Rectus Femoris contracture test, Method 1:
a. Posterior Sag sign
b. Kendall
c. Tripod sign
d. none of these

A

b. Kendall

147
Q

The patient sits with the knee flexed to 90 degrees and the foot is relaxed and not weight bearing. The examiner gently grasps the foot and rotates it laterally.
a. Talar Tilt Test
b. Ely’s Test
c. External rotation stress test
d. none of these

A

c. External rotation stress test

148
Q

Wipe test
a. Patellar tap test
b. brush, stroke, or bulge test
c. posterior sag sign
d. none of these

A

b. brush, stroke, or bulge test

149
Q

In this knee instability, the mechanism of injury is a forceable blow against the front of the tibia with the leg externally rotated and planted in a varus position:
a. anterior lateral rotatory instability
b. straight lateral instability
c. posterior lateral rotatory instability
d. combined rotatory instability
e. anterior medial rotator instability

A

c. posterior lateral rotatory instability

150
Q

A 60 year old male complains of pain in the left hip region. The symptoms appear to be consistent with hip osteoarthritis. The test to perform to assist in making this diagnosis would be:
a. Craig’s
b. Scouring
c. Thomas
d. Posterior impingement

A

b. Scouring

151
Q

The following statements describe the pelvic girdle, EXCEPT:
I. The Ilium, ischium, and pubis make up each hip bone.
II. The pelvic girdle consists of the two innominate bones, the sacrum, and coccyx.
III. The pubic portion of the innominate bones fusing to form the symphysis pubis is of the cartilaginous type.
IV. Gliding and cartilaginous joints allow no movement whatsoever in both sexes.

a. none of these
b. all of these
c. I, II, and III
d. II and IV
e. only IV

A

e. only IV

152
Q

The correct procedure for self-stretching of the ITB is:
a. Patient is standing with tight extremity in slightly ER and crossed in the front the normal leg, keeping both feet on the floor, the patient bends towards from the tight side allowing slight knee flexion on his normal knee.
b. Patient is standing with tight extremity in slightly IR and crossed behind the normal leg, keeping both feet on the floor, the patient bends away from the tight side allowing slight knee flexion on his normal knee.
c. Patient is standing with tight extremity in slightly ER and crossed behind the normal leg, keeping both feet on the floor, the patient bends away from the tight side allowing slight knee flexion on his normal knee.
d. Patient is standing with tight extremity in slightly ER and crossed in the front the normal leg, keeping both feet on the floor, the patient bends away from the tight side allowing slight knee flexion on his normal knee.

A

c. Patient is standing with tight extremity in slightly ER and crossed behind the normal leg, keeping both feet on the floor, the patient bends away from the tight side allowing slight knee flexion on his normal knee.

153
Q

The following ligaments contribute to the stability of the hip joint, EXCEPT:
i. ischiofemoral ligament
ii. pubofemoral ligament
iii. illiofemoral ligament
iv. ligamentum teres

a. none of these
b. I, II and III
c. I and II
d. III and IV
e. IV only

A

e. IV only

(I, II, and III = strongest ligament)
(IV = conduit of blood supply to the femoral head: obturator artery)

154
Q

From the frontal plane, the neck of the femur has an anterior angle of 13 to 15 deg. A decrease in this angle, a factor in out-toeing is called:
a. retroversion
b. coxa vara
c. coxa valga
d. anteversion

A

a. retroversion

155
Q

Muscle which may compress the sciatic nerve as the nerve passes underneath it:
a. rectus femoris
b. quadratus femoris
c. piriformis
d. gluteus maximus

A

c. piriformis

156
Q

The illiopsoas is the strongest and most consistent hip flexor. Functions of this muscle include which of the following?
a. Tilts the pelvis anteriorly and flexes the pelvis on the femur
b. Tilts the pelvis posteriorly and flexes the pelvis on the femur
c. Tilts the pelvis anteriorly and extends the pelvis on the femur
d. Tilts the pelvis posteriorly and extends the pelvis on the femur

A

a. Tilts the pelvis anteriorly and flexes the pelvis on the femur

157
Q

This ligament is useful in preventing the femur from being extended beyond the point at which the lower limb is in line with the trunk thus ensuring that little or no muscular effort is required to prevent one from rolling over at one’s hip joint:
a. acetabular labrum
b. inguinal ligament
c. iliofemoral ligament
d. ligamentum teres

A

c. iliofemoral ligament

strongest ligament

158
Q

Which of the following does the femoral nerve supply?
a. The muscle in front of the thigh
b. The hip and knee joint
c. The skin of the front of the thigh and of the medial side of the leg as far as the base of the great toe
d. all of these
e. none of these

A

d. all of these

159
Q

When the hip is extended, this muscle externally rotates the hip. However, when the hip is flexed, this same muscle will internally rotate the hip:
a. gluteus minimus
b. gluteus medius
c. TFL
d. piriformis

A

d. piriformis

(uppermost muscle: red carpet group)

160
Q

The arrangement of these muscles as the legs of the inverted tripod suggests their possible function as a stabilizing mechanism for the pelvis capable of cooperating with the splint mechanism of the illiotibial tract on the lateral side:
a. adductor magnus, vastus lateralis, biceps femoris
b. sartorius, gracilis, semimembranosus
c. piriformis, quadratus femoris, obturator internus
d. sartorius, gracilis, semitendinosus

A

d. sartorius, gracilis, semitendinosus

161
Q

Common origin of gracilis, adductor brevis, and adductor magnus:
a. inferior ramus of the pubis
b. ramus of the ischium
c. ischial tuberosity
d. body of the pubis
e. superior ramus of the pubis

A

a. inferior ramus of the pubis

162
Q

This muscle contracts maximally when flexing the hip beyond 90 degrees:
a. pectineus
b. rectus femoris
c. illipsoas
d. sartorius

A

c. illipsoas

163
Q

A patient has right coxa valga. It will be compensated by which of the following?
a. left subtalar supination
b. left knee flexion
c. right ankle plantarflexion
d. right subtalar supination
e. none of these

A

a. left subtalar supination

164
Q

The following are true of the femoral artery:
I. The femoral nerve lies lateral to the femoral artery
II. The femoral vein lies medial to the femoral artery
III. If the common iliac or external iliac artery is partially occluded, the femoral artery pulse may be diminished
IV. Palpable just superior to the inguinal ligament, at a point halfway between the ASIS and the pubic tubercle

a. all of these
b. I and III
c. II and IV
d. I, II, and III
e. only IV

A

d. I, II, and III

165
Q

Insertion of the red carpet muscles:
a. ischial tuberosity
b. greater trochanter
c. lesser trochanter
d. ASIS
e. none of these

A

b. greater trochanter

166
Q

Gluteus maximus is most effective during gait at
a. swing phase
b. toe off
c. heel strike
d. midstance

A

c. heel strike

167
Q

Adductor magnus is innervated by the:
a. sciatic and obturator
b. sciatic and femoral
c. obturator
d. femoral
e. none of these

A

a. sciatic and obturator

168
Q

What hamstring muscle also acts as a hip extensor?
I. long head of biceps femoris
II. semitendinosus
III. semimembranosus
IV. short head of biceps femoris

a. all of these
b. I, II, and III
c. I and III
d. II and IV
e. none of these

A

b. I, II, and III

169
Q

The hip flexors connect the pelvis and the low back to the femur. The following statements are correct, EXCEPT:
I. they work as a force couple with low back muscles to rotate the pelvis anteriorly and secondarily increase lumbar lordosis.
II. When moving the femur on the pelvis, the hip flexors contract synergistically with the abdominal muscles, as when performing a forceful sit-up.
III. Maximum isometric torque of the hip flexors is greatest when muscles are on slight stretch as in a kicking motion when the hip begins flexing from an initial position of extension
IV. As hip motion continues from extension into flexion, torque decreases with progressive hip flexion
V. If the illiopsoas muscles are paralyzed bilaterally, the person may fall forward

a. none of these
b. I, II, III, V
c. I, II, III
d. II and IV
e. only V

A

e. only V

170
Q

A therapist assesses the functional strength of a patient’s hip extensors while observing the patient move from standing to sitting, what type of contraction occurs in the hip extensors during this activity?
a. concentric
b. eccentric
c. isometric
d. isokinetic

A

b. eccentric

171
Q

During gait analysis, you note that a patient is lurching backward during the stance phase as a result of gluteus maximus weakness. This compensatory motion prevents:
a. circumduction with external rotation of the involved extremity
b. lateral trunk lean over the involved stance extremity
c. knee instability with possible buckling
d. excessive hip flexion and anterior pelvic tilt

A

d. excessive hip flexion and anterior pelvic tilt

172
Q

The following are true about hte femoral triangle, EXCEPT:
I. Defined medially by the adductor longus
II. The floor is formed by portions of the adductor longus, pectineus and the illiopsoas muscles
III. With subject is supine, the soft tissues of the triangle are examined with the heel of the leg being examined resting upon the opposite knee
IV. Defined posteriorly by the sartorius muscle ridge

a. all of tehse
b. I, II, and III
c. II and IV
d. Only IV
e. None of these

A

d. Only IV

IV: should be laterally

173
Q

The following are true about the rectus femoris:
I. the heads are not distinctly palpable since the muscle disappears proximally in the depression between the sartorius and the TFL
II. The head that takes origin from the AIIS is the more commonly avulsed, usually from the injuries
III. The only 2 jointed muscle in the quadriceps group
IV. It has dual origin a direct and indirect head
V. Crosses the hip and the knee joints, acting as aa flexor of the hip ad an extensor for the knee

a. all of these
b. I, II and III
c. I and III
d. II, IV and V
e. none of these

A

a. all of these

174
Q

The closed packed position of the hip includes the following:
I. Extension
II. Internal rotation
III. Abduction
IV. External rotation

a. all of these
b. I and III
c. II and IV
d. I, II, and III
e. only IV

A

d. I, II, and III

Closed packed position: EXABIR

175
Q

The spinal cord root values for the lumber plexus are:
a. T12, L1, L2, L3
b. T12, L1, L2, L3, L4
c. L1, L2, L3, L4, L5
d. L2, L3, L4, L5
e. L3, L4, L5

A

b. T12, L1, L2, L3, L4

176
Q

The floor of the femoral triangle from lateral to medial:
a. illacus, adductor longus, pectineus
b. pectineus, illacus, adductor longus
c. adductor longus, pectineus illacus
d. illacus, pectineus, adductor longus
e. adductor longus, pectineus, illacus

A

d. illacus, pectineus, adductor longus

177
Q

A 50 year old patient came in with diagnosis of avulsion fracture of the ASIS of the pelvis. What muscle might have cause this fracture?
a. sartorius
b. TFL
c. rectus femoris
d. Illopsoas

A

a. sartorius

178
Q

During evaluation of a patient, the therapist observes significant posterior trunk lean at initial contact. Which of the following is the most likely muscle that the therapist needs to focus on during the exercise session in order to minimize this gait deviation?
a. gluteus medius
b. gluteus maximus
c. quadriceps
d. hamstrings

A

b. gluteus maximus

a: lat. lurch
c: forward lurch

179
Q

True about the gluteus maximus muscle, except:
I. Extends and laterally rotates hip joint and through the illotibial tract it extends the knee joint
II. innervated by the inferior gluteal nerve ( L5, S1, S2 )
III. Originates from the outer surface of the illium, sacrum, coccyx, and sacrotuberous ligament
IV. inserted to the illiotibial tract and gluteal tuberosity of the femur

a. none of these
b. I, II, and III
c. I and III
d. II and IV
e. only IV

A

a. none of these

180
Q

During MMT of the hip flexors in the sitting position, a patient exhibits lateral rotation with abduction of the thigh as a resistance is applied. The therapist should suspect muscle substitution by the:
a. sartorius
b. adductor longus
c. TFL
d. semimembranosus

A

a. sartorius

181
Q

Which of the following is not true regarding the branches of the sacral plexus?
a. Roots of the superior gluteal nerve are L4, L5, S1, posterior divisions
b. Roots of the inferior gluteal nerve are L5, S1, S2, posterior divisions
c. roots of the pudendal nerve are from S2, S3, S4
d. nerve to the obturator internus if from roots L5, S1, S2, anterior divisions
e. none of these

A

e. none of these

182
Q

In children, the chief arterial blood supply of the head of the femur is from the:
a. obturator artery
b. inferior gluteal artery
c. superficial circumflex iliac artery
d. deep external pudendal artery
e. branches from the medial and lateral circumflex femoral arteries

A

a. obturator artery

e: in adults

183
Q

The following statements characterize the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve, EXCEPT:
I. There is no atrophy and no motor or reflex change
II. Some sensory loss to pain and touch is typical
III. More apt to occur with metabolic disorders
IV. Sensory and motor function is mediated by this nerve

a. all of these
b. I, II and III
c. I and III
d. II and IV
e. Only IV

A

e. Only IV

(entrapment: L2-L3 Meralgia Paresthetica)

184
Q

You have a patient with an excessive anteversion, what motion of the hip would be limited?
a. flexion
b. medial rotation
c. lateral rotation
d. extension

A

c. lateral rotation

185
Q

If the neck shaft angle of the femur is less than 125 degrees, this deviation results in decreased leg length and muscle strength due to torque changes in muscle lever arms and length-tension relationships.
a. retroversion
b. anteversion
c. coxa vara
d. coxa valga

A

c. coxa vara

186
Q

A high jump athlete complains of pain on the ischial tuberosity. You suspect a tear of the:
a. adductor longus
b. vastus lateralis
c. semitendinosus
d. gluteus maximus

A

c. semitendinosus

187
Q

A patient is suffering from complete paralysis of gluteus medius. To compensate during the stance phase of the gait cycle, the patient will exhibit:
a. lateral flexion of the spine
b. increased plantarflexion
c. hyperextension of the spine
d. maintenance of the knee flexion

A

a. lateral flexion of the spine

188
Q

In hamstrings injury, there is an avulsion of:
a. ischial tuberosity
b. patella
c. pubis
d. ilium
e. all of these

A

a. ischial tuberosity

189
Q

Which of the following nerves innervates the muscles that control micturition?
a. obturator
b. genitofemoral
c. pudendal
d. superior gluteal

A

c. pudendal

190
Q

Characteristics of a coxa vara abnormality:
a. all of these
b. results in a shorter affected lef if the involvement is unilateral
c. increase in the neck shaft angle
d. neck shaft angle is usually 160 degrees

A

d. neck shaft angle is usually 160 degrees

(supposedly for valga only; should be 125 degrees)

191
Q

In performing this test, the patient with contracture will be unable to keep his leg, spine, and pelvis flat on the table when the opposite hip is flexed. What muscle is being tested?
a. rectus femoris
b. iliopsoas
c. gluteus maximus
d. gluteus medius
e. TFL

A

b. iliopsoas

192
Q

When the knee is extended, hip flexion is limited to 60-80 degrees because of passive insufficiency of the:
a. gluteus maximus
b. hamstrings
c. rectus femoris
d. illiopsoas

A

b. hamstrings

193
Q

The following muscles can abduct the hip, EXCEPT:
a. sartorius
b. TFL
c. gluteus medius
d. gluteus max (lower fibers)
e. none of these

A

d. gluteus max (lower fibers)

a and b : FABIR
c : primary abdutor
d: lower fibers

194
Q

While ascending stairs, an elderly patient leans forward with increased hip flexion. Which of the following muscles are being used to the best advantage with this forward posture?
a. rectus femoris
b. TFL
c. gluteus maximus
d. lumbar paraspinal

A

c. gluteus maximus

195
Q

Paralysis of the left gluteus medius can be compensated by
a. allowing the pelvis to sag laterally toward the unsupported side until the left hip is maximally adducted
b. placing a cane on the left hand
c. laterally bending the upper trunk to the right
d. by reducing the knee and the ankle motion
e. none of these

A

a. allowing the pelvis to sag laterally toward the unsupported side until the left hip is maximally adducted

b: RIGHT hand
c: to the LEFT

196
Q

Relaxin in pregnant women causes pain in what joint?
a. hip joint
b. knee joint
c. SI joint
d. wrist joint

A

c. SI joint

can cause LBP

197
Q

Components of anterior pelvic tilt in weight bearing position:
a. L1, L2, L3, L4 anterior divisions
b. L2, L3, L4 anterior divisions
c. L1, L2, L3, L4 posterior divisions
d. L2, L3, L4 posterior divisions
e. none of these

A

d. L2, L3, L4 posterior divisions

198
Q

The sciatic nerve consists of two divisions (medial and lateral) which eventually separates into distinct nerves. The medial and lateral division, respectively, form the:
a. femoral and obturator nerve
b. obturator and femoral nerve
c. common peroneal and tibial nerves
d. tibial and common peroneal nerves

A

d. tibial and common peroneal nerves

LECTURE EXAMINATIONS (17 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions