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X Anatomy 1A > Locomotion > Flashcards

Locomotion Flashcards

1
Q

define locomotion

A

movement or the ability to move from one place to another

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2
Q

What is the motion of walking actually a controlled version of?

A

falling

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3
Q

What organ system aids locomotion?

A

musculoskeletal

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4
Q

Is the motion of walking innate?

A

no, has to be coordinated and learned

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5
Q

What sort of animals develop locomotion quickest?

A

prey animals

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6
Q

what does tetrapedal mean?

A

locomotion using four limbs

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7
Q

are quadrupeds and bipeds tetrapedal?

A

yes

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8
Q

what are the modes of tetrapedal movement?

A 
cursorial
fossorial
saltatorial
aboreal
aerial
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9
Q

describe cursorial tetrapedal movement

A

running gait (e.g. horses)

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10
Q

describe fossorial tetrapedal movement

A

digging/burrowing action (e.g. moles)

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11
Q

describe saltatorial tetrapedal movement

A

hopping (e.g. kangaroos) (bipedal motion usually)

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12
Q

describe aboretal tetrapedal movement

A

movement among trees/ climbing motion (e.g. chimpanzees)

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13
Q

describe aerial tetrapedal movement

A

flying

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14
Q

why are birds still classed as quadrupeds?

A

wings are formed from adapted forelimbs

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15
Q

What are gaits generated by in the brain?

A

central pattern generator

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16
Q

What sort of animal were the early tetrapods?

A

amphibians

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17
Q

What effect did the loss of pectoral girdle attachment have on early tetrapods?

A

increased cranium mobility

movement of head could become independent of body

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18
Q

why did girdles and limbs need to become stronger and more completely ossified?

A

to support body weigh on land. In water body weight is almost totally supported, this is not the case on land and the skeleton needs to hold up the animal

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19
Q

How did the basal fin alter in early tetrapods?

A

forelimb functional enlargement of basal fin.

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20
Q

What are the 3 theories as to why fish moved from land to water?

A

move in between water in times of drought
to escape predation in the water
to find food on land

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21
Q

which of the 3 theories as to why fish moved from land to water is the most probable?

A

to escape predation, fish still lay their young in shallow water where it is difficult for predators to access

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22
Q

Describe the posture of early tetrapods

A

sprawled (e.g. alligator)

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23
Q

Describe the movement of early tetrapods

A

lateral flexion of body to move (tail flicking from side to side) and over hand recovery of limb (like front crawl)

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24
Q

Describe the plane of movement in later tetrapods

A

movement in saggital plane

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25
Q

In what direction does the vertebral column flex in later tetrapods?

A

vertically

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26
Q

where are the limbs located in relation to the body in later tetrapods?

A

underneath the body

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27
Q

How have prey animals adapted to enable them to survive in open areas?

A

cursorial modifications include increased stride length with longer limbs that cover greater distance with each stride

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28
Q

How have predatory animals adapted to enable them to survive in open areas?

A

increased flexion and extension of vetebral column increases stride length. Limbs are not as long as prey animals’ but are more powerful

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29
Q

How does the cursorial movement of prey compare to that of predator?

A

prey movement is easier to maintain over time but predators have faster and more explosive movements

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30
Q

Describe plantigrade stance

A

walking on soles of the feet

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31
Q

What bones are in contact with the ground in plantigrade stance?

A

tarsal (heel) bone, metatarsals and phalanges

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32
Q

What bones are in contact with the ground in digitigrade stance?

A

only phalanges

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33
Q

How is the ankle (tarsus) positioned in digitigrade stance?

A

elevated/ not in contact with the ground

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34
Q

What are the 3 modifications of limbs?

A

plantigrade, digitigrade, unguligrade

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35
Q

What bones are in contact with the ground in unguligrade stance?

A

only the distal phalanx (tip of one of 2 digits)

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36
Q

what is the benefit of unguligrade stance?

A

limbs are as long as possible to offer greater ground cover and speed

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37
Q

What limb modification stance do many predators have?

A

digitigrade

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38
Q

What limb modification stance do many prey animals have?

A

unguligrade

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39
Q

How is a horses lower limb adapted for efficient movement?

A

reduced muscle mass in lower leg to reduce the energy required to lift a leg off the ground. tendons and ligaments attach muscle to lower limb/joints

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40
Q

What is involved in bipedal locomotion?

A

movement on 2 rear limbs

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41
Q

What are the 2 types of bipeds?

A

habitual and intermittent

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42
Q

What effect have human skeletal modifications had on our ability to walk?

A

can carry all weight on rear limbs
plantigrade stature allows us to carry more weight
forelimbs have become highly developed
curved vertebral column helps reduce effort to balance

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43
Q

what are the 6 functions of the skeleton?

A 
protection
shape
support
movement
storage 
haematopoiesis
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44
Q

What movement does the separation of radius and ulna allow?

A

pronation and suprination

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45
Q

How do different shapes of species arise from a very similar skeleton?

A

proportions and relationships of bones with each other are different between species

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46
Q

What is stored within bones and is under hormone control?

A

calcium and phosphate

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47
Q

How can calcium or phosphate deficit affect bones?

A

makes them weaker

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48
Q

How is growth and strengthening of bone achieved?

A

weigh baring creates micro cracks that are filled and so become stronger

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49
Q

\what is the axial skeleton formed of?

A

skull, mandible, vertebral column and bony thorax

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50
Q

what is the role of the axial skeleton?

A

protects vital organs and gives shape

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51
Q

what is the appendicular skeleton formed of?

A

limbs (appendages), pectoral girdle, pelvic girdle

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52
Q

How do hindlimbs/legs attach to the body at the pelvic girdle?

A

sacro-illiac joint

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53
Q

How do forelimbs/arms attach to the body at the pectoral girdle?

A

clavicle in humans but via the synsarcosis in quadrupeds to aid impact absorption

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54
Q

What is the function of the appendicular skeleton?

A

to allow mobility

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55
Q

How is the human spine different in babies than in adults?

A

c shaped when babies are born, this changes as they lift their heads and begin to weightbare. By adulthood they should be S shaped

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56
Q

What are the 3 types of specialist bone?

A

sesamoid bones, pneumatic bones, splanchnic bones

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57
Q

where are sesamoid bones located?

A

within tendons or ligament

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58
Q

what is the function of sesamoid bones?

A

run near joints to allow tendon to move smoothly over the joint. Reduces friction on tendon

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59
Q

give an example of sesamoid bone

A

patella

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60
Q

where are pneumatic bones located?

A

maxiallary/frontal bones of the skull

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61
Q

What is the function of pneumatic bones?

A

contain air filled sinuses which reduce the weight of bones (e.g. skull is very strong but not too heavy

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62
Q

where do splanchnic bones develop?

A

in soft tissue organs

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63
Q

what is a key feature of splanchnic bones?

A

unattached to the rest of the skeleton

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64
Q

give an example of splanchnic bone

A

os penis

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65
Q

What are the two surface features of bones?

A

projections/processes

depressions/cavities

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66
Q

What are projections/processes often used for in bones?

A

attachment for muscles, tendons and ligaments

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67
Q

What are depressions/cavities often used for?

A

passages for nerves and blood vessels

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68
Q

On what basis are bones classified?

A

shape

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69
Q

What are the 4 classifications of bone?

A

long bones
short bones
flat bones
irregular bones

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70
Q

where are long bones mostly found?

A

limb bones (e.g. femur)

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71
Q

where are short bones found?

A

carpal (wrist) and tarsal (ankle) bones

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72
Q

Where are flat bones found?

A

skull, scapula and ribs

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73
Q

where are irregular bones found?

A

vertebrae

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74
Q

What type of bone is mostly contained in long bones?

A

compact bone

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75
Q

Describe the shape of long bones

A

typically longer than wide, have a shaft with heads at both ends

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76
Q

What is the key reason for the cylindrical shape of long bones?

A

strength under compression while standing

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77
Q

What shape are most short bones?

A

cube-shape

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78
Q

what type of bone do most short bones contain?

A

spongy with an outer layer of compact bone

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79
Q

describe the shape of flat bones

A

thin, flattened and usually curved

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80
Q

What is the structure of flat bones?

A

thin layers of compact bone around a layer of spongy bone, no hollow in centre

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81
Q

describe the shape of irregular bones

A

irregular!

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82
Q

in what anatomical plane are irregular bones usually found?

A

medial/midline

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83
Q

What is the diaphysis?

A

shaft of long bone

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84
Q

what type of bone is the diaphysis composed of?

A

compact bone

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85
Q

what is the epiphysis?

A

ends of the long bones

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86
Q

what is epiphysis mostly comprised of?

A

spongy bone

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87
Q

What is the medullary cavity?

A

hollow centre of long bones

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88
Q

where is the periosteum located?

A

outside covering of the diaphysis

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89
Q

What is the periosteum?

A

fibrous connective tissue membrane

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90
Q

What does periosteum provide?

A

connection between bone and tendon

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91
Q

What is endosteum?

A

connective tissue within the medullary cavity

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92
Q

What type of tissue is yellow marrow formed of?

A

adipose tissue

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93
Q

where is haematopoetic tissue located?

A

in red marrow

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94
Q

What do arteries supply bone with?

A

nutrients

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95
Q

What is able to leave bone cells due to the blood supply?

A

blood cells formed in the bone marrow

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96
Q

describe the anatomy of flat, short and irregular bones

A

cancellous (spongy) bone surrounded by cortical (compact) bone

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97
Q

is there diaphysis or epiphysis in flat, short and irregular bones?

A

no

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98
Q

is there a medullary cavity in flat, short and irregular bones?

A

no

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99
Q

What are the two types of bone?

A

compact (cortical/hard) and cancellous (spongy)

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100
Q

describe long bone structure in young animals

A

large medullary cavity

diaphysis is larger due to the greater need for haemotopoesis in young animals

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101
Q

describe long bone internal structure in adult animals

A

medullary cavity is smaller and has been filled partially by epiphysis
more yellow marrow, and less red marrow as reduced need for haematopoesis

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102
Q

What systems make up compact bone?

A

haversion systems

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103
Q

What are blood vessels located within, in cortical bone?

A

haversion canals

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104
Q

what do osteons form around?

A

blood vessels

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105
Q

How are blood vessels aligned in long bone?

A

parallel to long axis of bone

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106
Q

What do osteons provide for the bone?

A

strength

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107
Q

what are concentric lamellae?

A

circles of bone matrix around canal

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108
Q

what is contained within the central canal?

A

endosteum, blood vessels, nerves

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109
Q

what do canaliculi do?

A

radiate between lacunae and aid communication of osteocytes

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110
Q

What are lacunae?

A

location of osteocytes between rings

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111
Q

What is the internal structure of trabecular bone?

A

interconnecting rods and plates of bones

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112
Q

What is within the spaces between trabeculae?

A

andipose tissue (yellow marrow)

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113
Q

Where do blood vessels run in trabecular bone?

A

in the andipose tissue

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114
Q

How are trabecular orientated?

A

along lines of stress

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115
Q

What do osteocytes form in trabecular bone?

A

concentric rings and lacunae

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116
Q

How does the trabecular bone remodel following injury/stress?

A

will reorientate itself following the break to increase bone strength

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117
Q

what is ossification?

A

the process by which bone is formed

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118
Q

Is bone constantly changed and remodelled?

A

yes

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119
Q

What are the 2 types of ossification?

A

intermembranous and endochondral

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120
Q

Where does bone develop during intermembranous ossification?

A

develops along fibrous tissue precursor, the bone material is deposited along this structure

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121
Q

where does endochondral ossification occur?

A

in the long bones

122
Q

What is the precursor in endochondral ossification?

A

cartilage precursor

123
Q

How does ossification occur during endochondral ossification?

A

skeleton model is created from cartilage and the bone is laid down on this

124
Q

Are blood vessels present before or after the formation of bone?

A

before

125
Q

what are the 3 types of bone cells?

A

osteoblasts, osteocytes, osteoclasts

126
Q

What do osteoblasts do?

A

lay down bone

127
Q

where are osteoblasts derived from in the embryo?

A

mesenchymal stem cells

128
Q

How do osteoclasts lay down bone?

A

form collagen matrix within pre-cursor tissues, bone is formed from calcification of matrix

129
Q

What is calcification?

A

laying down of bone

130
Q

What does calcium add to the bone?

A

strength

131
Q

what are osteocytes formed from?

A

mature osteoblasts in the lacunae

132
Q

what do osteoblasts control within the bone?

A

local bone formation/reabsorption

133
Q

what are osteoclasts formed from?

A

macrophage stem cells

134
Q

what do osteoclasts do?

A

use enzymes to reabsorb/remove bone through deminiralisation

135
Q

what does deminuralisation of bone cause?

A

loss of strength

136
Q

what two cells must balance their activity?

A

osteoclasts and osteoblasts

137
Q

Describe the process of intermembranous ossification

A

development of ossification centre
calcification
formation of trabeculae
development of periosteum

138
Q

what are osteoclasts surrounded by in intermembranous ossification?

A

trabeculae

139
Q

describe the process of endochondral ossification

A

complete skeleton formed of cartilage matrix
osteoblasts migrate and begin calcification from primary ossification centre in diaphysis
osteoclasts migrate and begin to lay down bone towards end of diaphysis
bone is laid down seperatly in epiphysis
separated by cartilage growth plate.
growth plate fuses and is calcified at maturity when bone growth finishes

140
Q

where is the primary ossifcation centre located during endochondral ossification?

A

diaphysis

141
Q

what is the name of the ossification centre that osteoblast migrate to after the primary ossification centre?

A

secondary

142
Q

when does bone growth stop in animals?

A

mature adults

143
Q

what is the epiphyseal plate?

A

the growth plate of bone

144
Q

where is the growth plate located?

A

between epiphysis and diaphyisis

145
Q

what is the growth plate made of?

A

cartilage

146
Q

what type of cartilage is the cartilage skeleton formed of?

A

hyaline

147
Q

what is rickets a deficit of?

A

nutritional vitamin D and phosphorus

148
Q

What happens to bones in rickets sufferers?

A

fail to calcify and become bowed

149
Q

why do joints appear swollen in rickets sufferers?

A

enlargement of epiphyses

150
Q

When does the growth plate fuse?

A

at maturity

151
Q

where does fusion of growth plate vary?

A

in different bones

152
Q

what is vitamin D required for?

A

absorption of calcium from diet

153
Q

how can vitamin D be manufactured in the body?

A

by UV light (sunlight)

154
Q

why do epiphyses enlarge in rickets sufferers?

A

to compensate for lack of support provided by diaphysis due to lack of calcium

155
Q

what is a joint a connection between?

A

bones

156
Q

what does a joint form?

A

an articulation

157
Q

what is a joint also known as?

A

arthrosis

158
Q

where are synovial joints most often found?

A

the limbs

159
Q

what bone surface does articular cartilage cover?

A

external surface of epiphysis

160
Q

what type of cartilage is articular cartilage made of?

A

hyaline

161
Q

what is the purpose of hyaline cartilage at joint surface?

A

decreases friction between 2 bones

162
Q

what is the function of synovial fluid?

A

lubricates and nourishes cartilage

163
Q

what is the purpose of the fibrous joint cartilage?

A

limits motion of joint

164
Q

what is the fibrous joint capsule continuous with?

A

periosteum

165
Q

what is the purpose of ligaments?

A

limit movement and stabilise joint

166
Q

what are ligaments made of?

A

thickened areas of connective tissue

167
Q

what is the function of the synovial membrane?

A

secretes/filters synovial fluid

168
Q

where is the synovial membrane located?

A

lines joint cavity

169
Q

why is cartilage so difficult to repair?

A

no blood supply or nerves so little nutrients and cartilage is often severely damaged before pain is felt

170
Q

what 2 ways can joints be classified?

A

function and structure

171
Q

what is the functional classification of joints based on?

A

degree of motion

172
Q

what are the 3 functional classifications of joints?

A

synarthrosis
amphiarthrosis
diarthrosis

173
Q

what are synarthrosis joints?

A

those with no/little movement

174
Q

what are amphiarthrosis joints?

A

those with some movements

175
Q

what are diarthrosis joints?

A

those with free movement

176
Q

what is the structural classification of joints based on?

A

connective tissue types that binds the bones

177
Q

what are the 3 types of structural joint classification?

A

fibrous
cartilaginous
synovial

178
Q

give an example of syntharthrosis/fibrous joints

A

sutures of the skull

179
Q

give an example of amphiarthrosis/cartilaginous joints

A

intravertebral disks

180
Q

give an example of diarthrosis/synovial joints

A

hip joint

181
Q

what are fibrous joints united by?

A

dense regular fibrous connective tissue

182
Q

are there cartilage cells in fibrous joints?

A

little/no

183
Q

is there a joint cavity in fibrous joints?

A

no

184
Q

is there movement in fibrous joints?

A

no

185
Q

give examples of types of fibrous joints

A

sutures, syndesmoses, gomphoses

186
Q

what are gomphoses?

A

specialised joints that form join between tooth and bone. Peg into socket held in place with bundles of connective tissue

187
Q

what types of cartilaginous joints are there?

A

synchondroses or symphyses

188
Q

what are the two subdivisions of cartilaginous joints?

A

primary and secondary

189
Q

where are primary and secondary cartilaginous joints most often found?

A

primary: growth plates
secondary: in adults

190
Q

what are primary cartilaginous joints joined by?

A

hyaline cartilage (type 2)

191
Q

what are secondary cartilaginous joints joined by?

A

fibrocartilage (has a higher collagen content) - type 1 and 2

192
Q

how are synovial joints subdivided?

A

by their type of movement

193
Q

what are the 6 types of synovial joints?

A 
plane
pivot
hinge
condyloid
saddle
ball and socket
194
Q

where are plane joints found?

A

carpus and tarsus

195
Q

how do bones move in plane joints?

A

slide across the flat surface of each other

196
Q

what are the range of movements found in plane joints?

A

biaxial and triaxial

197
Q

where are hinge joints found?

A

elbow

198
Q

how do bones move in hinge joints?

A

only flexion and extension

199
Q

what are the range of movements found in hinge joints?

A

rotate around each other in a unilateral direction

200
Q

where are pivot joints found?

A

head of radius and radial notch of ulna

201
Q

how do bones move in pivot joints?

A

rotational uniaxial movement

202
Q

where are condyloid joints found?

A

carpus

203
Q

how does movement in pivot joints compare to plane joints?

A

rounded surface rather than flat

204
Q

where are saddle joints found?

A

in the thumb

205
Q

how do bones move in saddle joints?

A

biaxial in two directions in relation to each other

206
Q

where are ball and socket joints found?

A

hip and shoulder

207
Q

what is the range of movement like in ball and socket joints?

A

offers widest range of movement of any joint

208
Q

What are the 10 types of movement at synovial joints?

A 
flexion/extension
abduction/adduction
circumduction
rotation
elevation/depression
protraction/retraction
inversion/eversion
supination/pronation
opposition
dorsiflexion/plantar flexion
209
Q

what movement occurs during flexion/extension?

A

flexion: angle is reduced between 2 bones
extension: angle is increased between 2 bones

210
Q

what movement occurs during abduction/adduction?

A

abduction: moving away from body/midline
adduction: movement towards body/midline

211
Q

what movement occurs during circumduction?

A

movement in a circular pattern

212
Q

what movement occurs during rotation?

A

body parts twist on their own axis

213
Q

what movement occurs during elevation depression?

A

movement above and below horizontal (e.g. shrugging shoulders)

214
Q

what movement occurs during protraction/retraction?

A

protraction; movement cranialy and anteriorally

retraction: movement caudally and posteriorly

215
Q

what movement occurs during inversion and eversion?

A

inversion: movement towards median plane
eversion: movement away from median plane

216
Q

what movement occurs during opposition?

A

movement of 2 bones against each other

217
Q

what movement occurs during pronation and supination?

A

pronation: palm is moved to face downwards
supination: palm is moved to face upwards

218
Q

what movement occurs during dorsiflexion and plantar flexion?

A

dorsiflexion: ankle flexes to bring toes towards shin/wrist brings hand towards arm
plantar flexion: ankle extends to bring toes away from shin/ palmar aspect of wrist towards anterior arm (in AP)

219
Q

What movement appears in hocks of quadrupeds?

A

flexion and extension

220
Q

what are the 3 types of muscle?

A

smooth, striated(skeletal) and cardiac

221
Q

where is striated muscle attached?

A

to the skeleton

222
Q

what does striated muscle bring about?

A

movement

223
Q

what is the difference between extrinsic and intrinsic muscles?

A

extrinsic muscles run from one region of the body to another and move that area in relation to the body
intrinsic muscles act on joints contained within an area of the body. They move the joint which they cross

224
Q

what happens during contraction and relaxation?

A

contraction; nerve impulse causes shortening of muscle fibres
relaxation: no signal to the muscle cells

225
Q

what is muscle tone?

A

the state of tension within the muscle

226
Q

what does high muscle tone aid?

A

stability in posture

227
Q

what is the difference between hypertrophy and atrophy of muscles?

A

hypertrophy: muscles increase in size/ are larger
atrophy: muscles reduce in size/ become smaller

228
Q

what are the 6 main functions of skeletal muscle?

A 
movement of body parts and organ content
maintain posture and provide stability
communication (e.g. speech and writing)
control of openings and passageways
body heat production
aid venous return
229
Q

what is the origin tendon of skeletal muscle?

A

attaches to stationary end of skeletal muscle

230
Q

what is the belly of muscle?

A

the thicker, middle region of muscle. Contains the muscle fibres. More than one can be seen in some muscles

231
Q

what is the insertion tendon of skeletal muscle?

A

attachment to the mobile end of muscle

232
Q

what can be used to predict muscle actions?

A

origin and insertion
joints/regions the muscle crosses
muscle fibre orientation

233
Q

what are the 2 muscle groups of axial muscles?

A

epaxial muscles

hypaxial muscles

234
Q

what do epaxial muscles do?

A

extensors of the vertebral column

235
Q

what do hypaxial muscles do?

A

flexors of the neck and tail, includes the abdominal muscles

236
Q

where are epaxial muscles located?

A

dorsal/posterior to line of transverse processes

237
Q

where are hypaxial muscles located?

A

ventral/anterior to line of transverse processes

238
Q

name the major adductors and flexors in the forelimb

A

pectorals: forelimb adductors
biceps: elbow flexor
carpal and digital flexors

239
Q

name the major adductors and flexors in the hindlimb

A

hamstrings: stifle flexor

240
Q

name the major abductors and extensors in the forelimb

A

triceps: elbow extensor

carpal and digital extensors

241
Q

name the major abductors and extensors in the hindlimb

A

gluteals: hip extensor
quadriceps: stifle extensor
gastrocnemius: tarsal extensor
digital extensors

242
Q

what are the 3 skeletal muscle shapes?

A

fusiform
convergent
parallel

243
Q

describe the shape of fusiform muscles

A

thick in the middle and tapered at the ends

244
Q

describe the shape of convergent muscles

A

broad at origin and tapering to narrower insertion

245
Q

describe the shape of parallel muscles

A

parellel fasicles (rectus abdominus)

246
Q

give an example of fusiform muscles

A

biceps brachii

247
Q

give an example of parallel muscles

A

6 pack (rectus abdominis)

248
Q

what are circular muscles?

A

act as sphincters in rings around body openings

249
Q

what are pennate muscles?

A

fascicles insert obliquely on a tendon

250
Q

what are the 3 types of pennate muscles?

A

unipennate (one direction of fibres), bipennate (two directions of fibres), multipennate (mulitple fibre alighnements attaching to one tendon)

251
Q

give an example of pennate muscle

A

deltoid

252
Q

what do muscle groups share?

A

blood supply and nerves

253
Q

where is the deep fascia located?

A

between adjacent muscles which allows them to move over each other

254
Q

where is superficial fascia located?

A

between skin and muscle

255
Q

what type of tissue is contained in the superficial fascia?

A

adipose

256
Q

what are the 3 connective tissue types found in muscle?

A

epimysium
perimysium
endomysium

257
Q

describe epimysium

A

covers whole muscle belly

blends into deep fascia that separates muscles

258
Q

describe perimysium

A

slightly thicker layer of connective tissue

surrounds fascicle

259
Q

describe endomysium

A

thin layer of areolar tissue surrounding each cell

allows room for capillaries and nerve fibres

260
Q

which layer of muscle connective tissue is continuous with the muscle tendon?

A

epimysium

261
Q

what are the 2 muscle fibre types?

A

type 1 - slow twitch

type 2 - fast twitch

262
Q

how do fast and slow twitch fibres differ in histological appearance?

A

slow twitch are paler and thinner

263
Q

which of the two muscle fibre types fatigue quickly?

A

fast twitch

264
Q

which of the two muscle fibre types react more quickly?

A

fast twitch

265
Q

what is the basic contractile unit of skeletal muscle?

A

sarcomere

266
Q

what is the hierarchy within muscles?

A

sarcomere (containing myofilaments)
myofibrils (bands of sarcomeres)
muscle fibres (muscle cells)
bundles (fasicles)

267
Q

which 2 bands within the sarcomere show the level of contraction within the sarcomere?

A

I band and H band

268
Q

what are motor neurons?

A

specialised nerve cells which initiate contraction of skeletal muscle

269
Q

what does a single motor axon synapse with at a neuromuscular junction?

A

muscle

270
Q

what is the strength of muscle contraction determined by?

A

the number of muscle fibres that are recruited rather than the level of contraction

271
Q

what are muscle spindles?

A

sensory organs which send information to the brain about the level of streach in muscle and whether the contraction should be increased

272
Q

what area of the brain does information from the muscle spindles get relayed to?

A

cerebellum

273
Q

what do tendons connect to each other?

A

bone to muscle

274
Q

what do ligaments connect to each other?

A

bone to bone

275
Q

what do collateral ligaments do?

A

limit movements of joints medially and laterally

276
Q

where are collateral ligaments usually found?

A

medially and laterally on most hinge joints

277
Q

what are cruciate ligaments?

A

ligaments within the knee which restrict movement

278
Q

What are retinaculae?

A

loops of ligamentous tissue which help to restrain tendons

279
Q

where are retinaculae found?

A

near joints to stop the tendons from moving out of place

280
Q

what are capsular ligaments?

A

small ligaments which support and stabilise joints

281
Q

where are capsular ligaments found?

A

within joint capsule

282
Q

what ligament type is found extra-capsularly?

A

collateral

283
Q

what ligament type is found intra-capsularly?

A

cruciate

284
Q

what sort of movement do ligaments prevent?

A

abnormal or excessive movement

285
Q

what is epimysium continuous with in direct attachment to bone?

A

periosteum

286
Q

give an example of where direct attachment of tendon to bone occurs

A

intercostal muscles

287
Q

what is epimysium continuous with in indirect attachment to bone?

A

continuous with tendon

or merges into periosteum as perforating fibres

288
Q

what is aponeurosis?

A

merge of epimysium into periosteum as perforating fibres

289
Q

why will stress on a tendon cause it to tear before it causes it to pull out from the bone or muscle?

A

there is a very strong connection with epimysium and periosteum

290
Q

what are tendons an extension of?

A

the muscle belly

291
Q

what do tendons transmit force between?

A

muscle to bone

292
Q

what does the connective tissue of tendons and ligaments contain?

A 
collagen
cells
few fibroblasts
matrix
water
proteoglycans
some elastin
293
Q

what do crimped fibres allow in tendons and ligments?

A

stretching of tendons and ligaments

294
Q

why do tendons and ligaments tend to snap from the centre outwards when over stretched?

A

less crimp in central fibres

295
Q

how do tendons attach?

A

collagen fibres blend with perimysium at muscle belly and periosteum at other end

296
Q

how do ligaments attach?

A

collagen fibres bind with periosteum and thickenings of the joint capsule

297
Q

do tendons or ligaments contain more collagen?

A

tendons

298
Q

which fibres of tendons or ligaments are more parallel and more compact?

A

tendons

299
Q

do tendons or ligaments have a better blood supply?

A

tendons

300
Q

what are golgi tendon organs?

A

sensory organs in the tendon which attach to the bone

301
Q

what is the function of golgi tendon organs

A

sense shortening/tension within muscles and relay this information to the brain

X Anatomy 1A (10 decks)

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