Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Gastrointestinal > Liver Disease > Flashcards

Liver Disease Flashcards

1
Q

what are the 9 subtypes of liver disease?

A 
hepatitis
cirrhosis 
alcoholic liver disease
drug toxicity 
storage disease
chronic liver disease 
autoimmune 
structural disease 
liver lesions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

prevalence of viral hepatitis?

A

dec in HepC, inc in E & B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

hep A is caused by the ___ ___ virus

A

Ebstein-Barre Virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

epidemiology of HepA?

A

faecal-oral spread, common in young

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

is HepA chronic?

A

no- mild illness with full recovery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

ix for diagnosing HepA?

A

bloods (HepA IgM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

HepE is caused by _______ virus

A

cytomegalovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

true/false…

HepE is clinically same as HepA

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

HepB is caused by _____ ____ virus

A

yellow fever virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Hep E & A spread faecal-orally, what about HepB?

A

hepB spreads by blood, sexually, mother to child

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

is the incubation period for hep B long or short?

A

long

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

true/false…

the hep B virus causes direct damage to liver

A

False…

it is the antiviral immune response that causes the damage to the liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

if disease presents during childhood then it is more likely to be…

A

chronic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

HBsAg antigen…

A

present for > 6 months in chronic infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

HBeAg…

A

present in highly infectious individuals (as is viral DNA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

HepB IgM…

A

present soon after becoming infected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

HepB IgG…

A

present after a while of infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

anti-HBe antibody…

A

present in immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

how to control spread of HepB?

A

minimise exposure, screening of pregnant women, vaccines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

outcomes of hepB?

A

chronic hepatitis, cirrhosis, hepatocellular carcinoma,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is important about HepD?

A

only found with hepB and exacerbates it (parasite of a parasite)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

HepC is caused by the ____ _____ virus

A

herpes simplex virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

True/False…

HepC’s spread is similar to HepA & HepE

A

False…
HepA & E spread via faecal-oral
HepC (like HepB) spreads via blood & blood products

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

HepC is often asymptomatic but tends to do what?

A

waxes and wanes but tends to become chronic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

ix for HepC?

A

test for antibody to HepC. if +ve do PCR for HepC RNA= if this is +ve then definitive dx of active HepC can be made

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

true/false…

there is no vaccine for HepC?

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

more than __ months means hepatitis is chronic

A

6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

pathophysiology of acute & chronic hepatitis?

A

acute hepatitis can.. resolve, become chronic

chronic can.. become cirrhosis, cancer, liver failure or resolve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is Mx for acute infection?

A
  • monitor for complications
  • notify public health
  • immunisation of contacts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

main complications of hepatitis?

A

cirrhosis, liver failure (acute or chronic), liver cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

which 2 hepatitis infections may become chronic?

A

hepB & C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

HepB & C chronic infection cure?

A 
HepB= spontaneous cure 
HepC= once chronic infection is established so no cure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

general timeline of complications following chronic hepatitis?

A

cirrhosis after 20 years, carcinoma after 30 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

tx for chronic hep?

A
  1. antivirals
    - hepB: interferon alfa (peginterferon injection)
    - hepC: oral course of 2/3 antivirals
  2. vaccines
  3. infection control
  4. hepatocellular carcinoma screening
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

when should antivirals be given in chronic hepatitis?

A 
HepC= always 
HepB= if high HBV DNA present in serology
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

common causes of acute liver failure?

A

viruses, alcohol/drugs, bile duct obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what is cirrhosis?

A

bands of fibrosis separating regenerative nodules of hepatocytes & alteration of hepatic micro-vasculature so loss of hepatic function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

aetiology of cirrhosis?

A

alcohol, HBV & C, haemochromatosis, AI disease, gallstones, NASH? NAFLD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

common complications of cirrhosis?

A

portal HT, ascites, encephalopathy, vatical bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

pathophysiology of ascites?

A
  • portal circulation disrupted by cirrhosis
  • inc in portal pressure
  • lack of portal blood flow causes liver to inc production of vasodilators
  • inc in CO but low SVR so low MAP
  • baroreceptors activated to inc MAP
  • sympathetic system activated & renin-angiotensin pathway to inc SVR
  • inc CO & high H2O retention
    space to store extra water ran out to ascites
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Dx for ascites

A

shifting dullness on examination and USS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Tx for ascites

A

low Na diet, no NSAIDs, diuretics*, paracentesis/TIPSS/ transplant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what diuretic is given in ascites?

A

spironolactone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what is TIPSS?

A

stenting of hepatic vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

complication of ascites??

A

spontaneous bacterial peritonitis- dx with ascites tap and tx is Antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what are symptoms of encephalopathy?

A

mental confusion hand flap, slow tremor when grasping 2 fingers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

pathogenesis of encephalopathy?

A

microglial inflammation 2y to ammonia metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

tx for encephalopathy?

A

lactulose (clear gut), maintain nutritional status, if spontaneous consider transplantation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

variceal bleeding is most common at…?

A

oesophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what score is used in variceal bleed assessment?

A

CHILD’s score

A= normal, C= jaundiced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

tx for variceal bleed?

A

b blockers and variceal ligation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

acute tx for upper GI bleed due to variceal bleed?

A

resuscitate, terlipressin (reduces portal pressure), endoscopy & TIPS
- if bleeding can’t be controlled perform a balloon tamponade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what type of drug is terlipressin?

A

vasoconstrictor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

common complication of varicese in cirrhotic patients?

A

thrombosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

2 classes of cirrhosis?

A

compensated: image abnormalities but no s/s
decompensated: acute liver failure- usually caused by infection or end stage liver disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

signs for decompensated cirrhosis?

A

jaundice, ascites, encephalopathy, rising, leukonychia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

what is leukonychia?

A

white discolouration of nails

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

tx for cirrhosis?

A

remove/ treat underlying cause
nutrition: high energy intake and vitB supplements, fed state maintenance
transplant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

what score is used to assess ability to receive transplant?

A

UKELD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

what condition may cause cardiac cirrhosis?

A

constrictive pericarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

ix for any alcoholic liver disease?

A

biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

pathology of alcoholic liver disease?

A

fatty liver (reversible) > hepatitis (reversible, wks of abuse) > fibrosis (irreversible, mnths) > cirrhosis (end stage, yrs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

histological pathology of alcoholic hepatitis

A

hepatocyte necrosis, mallory bodies, pericellular fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what grading system is used for alcoholic hepatitis?

A

Turcotte-Pugh Grading

  • bilirubin >80
  • AST < 500
  • AST:ALT > 1.5

hepatomegaly & fever *

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

outcomes of alcoholic liver disease ?

A

cirrhosis, Portal HT, malnutrition, hepcel carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

what does NASH stand for?

A

Non-alcoholic Steatohepatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

pathology of NASH?

A

identical to alcoholic liver disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

risk factors/ aetiology for NASH?

A

diabetes, obesity, hyperlipidaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

what can drug toxicity cause?

A

hepatitis, granulomas, fibrosis, necrosis, failure, cholestasis, cirrhosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

what drug is commonly responsible for drug toxicity?

A

methotrexate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

what is methotrexate given for?

A

psoriasis & RA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

what does methotrexate cause?

A

fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

true/false…

methotrexate toxicity presents with a rash and ascites

A

false…

no clinical signs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

all storage diseases of the liver are…

A

genetic and are autosomal recessive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

what are the 3 storage diseases of the liver?

A

haemochromatosis, Wilson’s disease, alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

epidemiology of haemochromatosis?

A

worse in homozygotes & men

77
Q

how does haemochromatosis present commonly in men?

A

no erections

78
Q

what is haemochromatosis?

A

excess iron in liver

79
Q

aetiology of haemochromatosis?

A

1y: genetic
2y: iron overload from diet, transfusion or iron therapy

80
Q

what gene mutations causes 1y haemochromatosis?

A

C282Y mutation on HFE gene

81
Q

ix for haemochromatosis?

A

LFTs (inc in ferritin), liver MRI, liver biopsy

82
Q

when should an ECG/Echo be carried out as a full work up of haemochromatosis?

A

if cardiomyopathy suspected

83
Q

tx for haemochromatosis?

A

venesection

84
Q

main complication of haemochromatosis?

A

cardiomyopathy

85
Q

what are other haemochromatosis complications?

A

cirrhosis > hepatocellular carcinoma

diabetes

86
Q

what is Wilson’s disease?

A

excess of copper which deposits in liver and brain due to loss of function of ceruloplasmin

87
Q

presentation of Wilson’s?

A 
neurological deficits (confusion, parkinsons, depression, personality changes etc), 
hepatic (cirrhosis)
88
Q

main signs of Wilson’s?

A

Kaiser-Fleisher rings at corneal limbus

89
Q

ix for Wilsons?

A

U&Es (assesses kidney function), LFTs, eugenic tests, MRI

90
Q

Tx for Wilsons?

A

copper chelation drugs

91
Q

what are some copper chelation drugs?

A

Trientine, Depencillamine

92
Q

what is alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency

A

disorder of production of an enzyme inhibitor

93
Q

aetiology of A-1-A def?

A

A1AT gene mutation resulting in excess tryptic activity

94
Q

pathology of A-1-A?

A

blocks neutrophil elastase (blocking collagen breakdown) but lack of A-1-A causes inc breakdown

95
Q

presentation of A-1-A def?

A

lungs (emphysema)

liver (cirrhosis)

96
Q

tx for A-1-A def?

A

supportive

97
Q

what is classed as chronic liver disease?

A

disease for > 6 months

98
Q

what is the usual outcome for chronic liver disease?

A

cirrhosis

99
Q

aetiology for chronic liver disease?

A

alcohol, NAFLD, HepC, 1y Billiary Cholangitis, autoimmune hepatitis, HepB

100
Q

what rare conditions may also cause chronic liver disease?

A

haemochromatosis, 1y sclerosis cholangitis, Wilson’s, A1AT, Budd-Chiari

101
Q

pathophysiology for non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD)?

A

steatosis > steatohepatitis (NASH) > steatohepatitis w fibrosis > cirrhosis

102
Q

what is the aetiology of NAFLD?

A

metabolic syndromes e.g. hypertension, obesity, NASH, T2 Diabetes

103
Q

ix for NAFLD?

A

liver biopsy

104
Q

tx for NAFLD?

A

wt loss & exercise

105
Q

what are the 3 autoimmune diseases of the liver

A

1y Biliary cholangitis
1y sclerosing cholangitis
autoimmune hepatitis

106
Q

what is 1y biliary cholangitis

A

chronic inflammation of intrahepatic bile ducts

107
Q

epidemiology of 1y biliary cholangitis

A

middle aged women

108
Q

aetiology for 1y biliary cholangitis?

A

anti mitochondrial antibodies (M2 specifically)

109
Q

presentation of PBC?

A

asymptomatic, itch, xanthelasma & xanthomas (high cholesterol), dark urine (high bilirubin)

110
Q

Ix for PBC?

A

serology- AMA, LFTs, liver biopsy

111
Q

Dx for PBC?

A

+ve AMA serology
LFTs= alt fossa (ALP) & gamma GT (GGT) elevated
Biopsy= granuloma & bile duct loss

112
Q

tx fo PBC?

A

Urseo deoxycholic acid
2nd line= obeticholic acid
last resort= transplant

113
Q

outcomes of PBC?

A

cholestasis or cirrhosis

114
Q

what is 1y sclerosing cholangitis?

A

chronic inflammation of extra +/- intrahepatic bile ducts

115
Q

epidemiology of PSC?

A

males w/wo UC, common in Scandinavia

116
Q

pathophysiology of PSC?

A

inflammation of bile ducts > periductal ‘onion-skinning’ fibrosis & stricture formation > jaundice

117
Q

s/s of PSC?

A

asymptomatic or itch/rigors

118
Q

Ix for PSC?

A

imaging, LFTs, serology

119
Q

dx for PSC?

A

serology AMA= -ve

LFTs= inc ALP, inc bilirubin, hypergammaglobulinemia

120
Q

Tx for PSC?

A

maintain bile flow e.g. ERCP
monitor for colorectal cancer
transplant

121
Q

prognosis for PSC?

A

poor- 10 years

122
Q

what is autoimmune hepatitis (AIH)?

A

attack on the liver causing chronic inflammation

123
Q

are women or men affected more by AIH?

A

women

124
Q

classes of AIH?

A

T1: adult female, more common, SMA +ve, associated with other AI diseases e.g. thyroiditis
T2: children, harder to treat, LKM-1 Antibody (SMA -ve)

125
Q

what are SMAs

A

smooth muscle antibodies

126
Q

presentation of AIH?

A

jaundice, hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, elevated prothrombin time, non-specific symptoms (malaise, fatigue, nausea, anorexia)

127
Q

dx for AIH?

A 
LFTs= elevated AST &amp; ALT
serology= elevated IgG, AMA
liver biopsy (to rule out other causes)
128
Q

histology of AIH?

A

interface hepatitis w marked piecemeal necrosis

129
Q

aetiology of AIH?

A

genetic predisposition & environmental triggers

130
Q

tx for AIH?

A

corticosteroids
remission: azathioprine
last resort: transplant

131
Q

what condition falls under structural disease for liver?

A

Budd Chiari

132
Q

what is Budd Chiari?

A

thrombosis of hepatic vein

133
Q

clinical presentation of Budd-Chiari?

A

acutely jaundiced, tender hepatomegaly, ascites

134
Q

dx for BC?

A

USS of hepatic vein

135
Q

tx for BC?

A

recanalization, TIPS

136
Q

1y liver cancer is more common in…

A

chronic liver disease pts

137
Q

what are the 5 benign liver lesions?

A
  • Haemangioma
  • Focal Nodular Hyperplasia (FNH)
  • Hepatic Adenoma
  • Cysts
  • Liver Abscess
138
Q

haemangiomas occur in…

A

females

139
Q

pathological appearance of haemangioma?

A

hyper vascular, single, small, well demarcated capsule

140
Q

s/s of Haemangioma?

A

asymptomatic

141
Q

Dx for haemangioma?

A

USS, CT, MRI

142
Q

Tx for haemangioma?

A

no tx needed

143
Q

epidemiology of focal nodular hyperplasia (FNH)?

A

young & middle aged women

144
Q

pathology of FNH?

A

nodule formation resulting from hyperplastic response to congenital vascular abnormality

145
Q

CT appearance of FNH?

A

central scar in liver containing large artery

146
Q

s/s of FNH?

A

asymptomatic

147
Q

Dx for FNH?

A

CT*, USS, MRI, FNA

148
Q

True/False…

tx for FNH is radiofrequency ablation?

A

False..

no tx for FNH

149
Q

hepatic adenomas are largely associated with ____ because…

A

women due to contraceptive hormones

150
Q

what is a hepatic adenoma?

A

solitary fat containing lesions in right lobe

151
Q

s/s of hepatic adenoma?

A

asymptomatic or sometimes RUQ pain

152
Q

what is acute presentation of hepatic adenoma due to?

A

rupture, haemorrhage malignant tranformation (rare)

153
Q

Dx for Hepatic Adenoma?

A

USS, CT, MRI, FNA

154
Q

Tx for hepatic adenoma?

A

stop oral contraceptives, wt loss, monitor for malignant transformation, surgical excision if no regression

155
Q

what are the 3 types of cysts that exist?

A
  • simple cyst
  • hydatid cyst
  • polycystic liver disease
156
Q

what is the pathogenesis of a simple cyst?

A

liquid collection lined by epithelium,

157
Q

are simple cysts solitary or grouped?

A

solitary

158
Q

s/s of simple cysts?

A

asymptomatic but symptoms may present if ruptures, compressed or due to infection

159
Q

tx for simple cysts?

A

imaging in 3-6months, consider surgical excision

160
Q

what are hydatid cysts?

A

disseminated disease or erosion of cysts

161
Q

what organisms causes hydatid cysts?

A

echinococcus granulosus

162
Q

dx for hydatid cysts?

A

hx appearance, serology (Anti E.granulosus Antibodies)

163
Q

tx for hydatid cysts?

A

surgery (cystectomy or radical- lobectomy)
drainage= PAIR
Rx= Albendazole

164
Q

what is the cause for polycystic liver disease?

A

embryonic ductal plate malformation of intrahepatic biliary tree

165
Q

what is polycystic liver disease?

A

numerous cysts throughout liver parenchyma

166
Q

what are the 3 types of polycystic liver disease?

A
  • Von Meyenburg Complexes
  • Polycystic Liver Disease
  • Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease
167
Q

von meyenburg complexes are…

A

incidental benign cystic nodules throughout liver

168
Q

in polycystic liver disease, liver function is…?

A

preserved

169
Q

in autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease, kidney function…?

A

fails

170
Q

tx for autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease?

A

conservative
rare- aspiration, liver transplant
rx: somatostatin

171
Q

what is the clinical presentation of a liver abscess?

A

pyrexia, leucocytosis, abdominal pain

172
Q

hx for liver abscess?

A

abdominal or biliary infection? dental procedure?

173
Q

tx for liver abscess?

A

broad spec antibiotic e.g. co-amoxiclav for 4 weeks
aspiration/drainage
echo- check for infective pericarditis
surgical

174
Q

what is 1y liver cancer called?

A

hepatocellular carcinoma or hepatoma

175
Q

is hepatocellular carcinoma commoner in males or females?

A

males

176
Q

risk factors for hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

HBV, HCV, cirrhosis, alcohol excess, any chronic liver disease

177
Q

presentation of hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

mass in RUQ, RUQ pain, obstruction so cholestasis- jaundice, high bilirubin, ascites, non-specific- wt loss, worsening of chronic liver disease

178
Q

ix for Hepc carcinoma?

A

AFP (alpha fetoprotein)*, USS, CT, MRI, biopsy

179
Q

Dx for hepc carcinoma?

A

AFP values >100ng suggestive of HCC

180
Q

tx for HCC?

A

liver transplant*, resection but recurrence is high
local ablation w radio or ethanol
TACE: chemo in hepatic artery

181
Q

prognosis of HCC?

A

poor- usually late finding and mets common to rest of liver

182
Q

fibrolamellar carcinoma presents commonly in..

A

young

183
Q

true/false…

people with chronic liver disease or cirrhosis have high risk of developing fibrolamellar carcinoma

A

false..

fibrolamellar carcinoma not related to end stage liver disease, HCC is

184
Q

ix for fibrolamellar carcinoma?

A

AFP is normal

CT

185
Q

Dx for fibrolamellar carcinoma?

A

CT- stellate scar with radial septa showing persistent enhancement

186
Q

Tx for fibrolamellar carcinoma?

A

surgical resection, transplant, TACE

187
Q

metastases from liver cancer are commonly to…?

A

colon, pancreas, stomach, breast, lung, skin

188
Q

how would liver mets present?

A

mild cholestatic picture with preserved liver function

189
Q

due to the central stellate scar on CT (thick fibrosis bands) what is a possible Ddx for fibrolamellar carcinoma?

A

focal nodular hyperplasia

Gastrointestinal (24 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions