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EPPP > Lifespan Development > Flashcards

Lifespan Development Flashcards

1
Q

Characteristics determined by information coded on a person’s genes is called ________, while ________ refers to a set of observable and measurable characteristics (e.g., eye color, intelligence) that develop from an interaction between a person’s genetics and their environment.

A

Genotype; phenotype

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2
Q

The idea that genes set boundaries within which
environment determines
what phenotypes will
occur is referred to as what?

A

Range of reaction

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3
Q

The time-frame during which a living organism is biologically prepared to acquire certain behaviors, but is only able to do so with the presence of appropriate environmental stimuli, is called what?

A

Critical/Sensitive Period

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4
Q

This term refers to patterns of development that are genetically determined and are influenced very little by the environment.

A

Maturation

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5
Q

What term is used to describe characteristics that are rather resistant to environmental forces, taking a narrower developmental path?

A

Canalization

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6
Q

The fact that children have been starting puberty earlier due to better health practices is one example of a/an ________, which is defined as long-term differences across cohorts that indicate the impact of environment on development.

A

Secular trend

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7
Q

What statistic is used to
estimate the degree to
which a certain characteristic can be attributed to genetic factors?

A

The heritability index

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8
Q

A person with this disorder
lacks an enzyme necessary for the digestion of the phenalalanine amino acid, which remains toxic to the brain in its undigested form and leads to severe mental retardation.

A

Phenylketonuria (PKU)

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9
Q


What incurable neurodegenerative genetic disorder that affects muscle coordination and some cognitive functions is an example of an autosomal dominant gene disorder?

A

Huntington’s Chorea

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10
Q

This disorder is caused by an extra number 21 chromosome and is characterized by moderate to profound mental retardation, abnormal physical features (flattened face, protruding tongue, stocky build), heart abnormalities, and thyroid dysfunction.

A

Down Syndrome (trisomy 21)

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11
Q

________ is caused by an extra X chromosome in males and leads to incomplete development of secondary sex characteristics; ________ occurs in females when all or part of the second X chromosome is missing and causes sterility, short stature, stubby fingers, and undeveloped secondary sex characteristics; ________ occurs in both males and females and is caused by a weak site on the X chromosome, leading to mental retardation, facial abnormalities, and abnormal speech.

A

Klinefelter’s

Syndrome; Turner’s Syndrome; Fragile X Syndrome

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12
Q

Environmental agents,
such as drugs or
infections, that cause abnormalities by interfering with normal prenatal development are called what?

A

Teratogens

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13
Q


During what period of fetal development is a teratogen most likely to cause a major structural defect to a developing organ?

A

Embryonic period (end of second week after conception to end of eighth week)

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14
Q

Symptoms of ________, a condition caused by a pregnant mother’s heavy alcohol consumption, include retarded growth, microcephaly (underdeveloped, small brain), facial deformities, hyperactivity, irritability, and mental retardation; when only some of the symptoms are present (e.g., lower IQ and hyperactivity), the condition is referred to as ________.

A

Fetal alcohol syndrome; fetal alcohol effects

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15
Q

True or False: A pregnant woman undergoing antiretroviral therapy is significantly less likely to transmit HIV to her child during the pregnancy process when compared to woman not receiving the therapy?

A

True- the chance of HIV

transmission from mother to baby when undergoing antiretroviral therapy is reduced from 25% to 2%

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16
Q

The ________ reflex is when an infant grasps a
finger pressed against his palm; the ________ reflex is when an infant extends her big toe and spreads his pinky toe when the bottom of his foot is stroked; the ________ reflex is when an infant arches her back, extends her legs, and projects her arms outward when her head is slightly dropped or she hears a loud sound; the ________ reflex is when an infant makes stepping motions when he his held upright and his feet touch the ground.

A

Palmar grasp; babinski; moro (or startle); stepping

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17
Q

These are the 6 family risk factors, according to Rutter, that place infants and young children at risk of child psychopathology; research indicates that children with 1 or no risk have a 2% chance of psychopathology, while 4 or more risks led to a 21% chance.

A

Low SES, large family size
(overcrowding), severe
marital discord, parental
criminality, maternal psychopathology, and
placement of the child outside of the home

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18
Q

According to Bronfenbrenner, the ________ is
the child’s immediate setting and includes family,
school, and daycare; the ________ comprises
connections between immediate environments (e.g., a child’s home and school); the ________ is the child’s external environment that has only an indirect influence on development, such as a parent’s workplace; the ________ refers to the larger cultural and subcultural context in which the other systems are embedded (e.g., national economy, politics).

A

Microsystem;

mesosystem; exosystem; macrosystem

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19
Q

True or False: At
birth, infants show
no clear preference for taste?

A

False- they are capable
of experiencing all 4
tastes, though show a clear preference for sweets

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20
Q

What is the least
developed part
of an infants brain at birth?

A

The cortex

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21
Q

According to Piaget, ________ occurs as a child interacts with the environment and subsequently develops organized ways of thinking about the world (cognitive schemas); it consists of ________, which is when a child perceives and interprets new information in terms of existing schemas, and ________, which is when existing schemas must be modified to provide consistency with external reality.

A

Adaptation; assimilation; accommodation

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22
Q

Piaget believed humans were biologically driven to produce an optimal state of stability between their cognitive structures and their environment, which he termed ________, a state that is necessary for cognitive development to occur.

A

Equilibration (accommodation occurs
during disequilibrium,
assimilation during equilibrium)

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23
Q

What are the 4
stages of cognitive
development according to Piaget’s theory?

A

Sensorimotor (birth to 2
years), preoperational (2
to 7 years), concrete
operational (7 to 12 years), and formal operational (12+ years)

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24
Q

When a child who is in the
sensorimotor stage of development begins to understand that even if an object cannot be seen, it still exists, is said to be developing what?

A

Object permanence

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25
Q

A child in the preoperational stage does not yet understand that others do not experience the world the same exact way they do and, thus, their experience is shared universally, which is termed ________; an example would be a 2 y/o who scrapes her knee and assumes mommy is also in pain.

A

Egocentrism

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26
Q

Children in the preoperational stage often believe they can control objects or events just by thinking about them, termed ________, or that inanimate objects possess thoughts and feelings, termed ________, both of which are a result of egocentrism.

A

Magical thinking; animism

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27
Q

According to Piaget, ________ refers to the tendency to focus on a single detail of a situation while neglecting other important features, which is present during the preoperational stage and limits a child’s ability to understand the world.

A

Centration

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28
Q

One of the most prominent developments during the concrete operational stage is ________, or the ability for a child to understand that the underlying properties of an object may not change just because its physical appearance has.

A

Conservation (results from the development of decentration and reversibility)

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29
Q

A person in the formal operational stage of development has the ability to arrive at and test alternative explanations for observed events, referred to as ________, and can evaluate the logical validity of verbal assertions without making reference to real-world circumstances, which is termed ________.

A

Hypothetical-deductive reasoning; propositional thought

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30
Q

An adolescent who is convinced that others are just as concerned with and critical of his behavior as he is exemplifies what characteristic of the formal operational stage of development?

A

Imaginary audience

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31
Q

An adolescent who experiences a break-up and is convinced that no one could ever come close to understanding the emotional pain she is experiencing is engaging in what characteristic of the formal operational stage of development?

A 
Personal fable
(the belief that one is unique and indestructible)
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32
Q

This neo-Piagetian theory of development compares the human mind to computer processes, proposing that just as a computer improves with changes to hardware and software, so to can a child’s mental capacities improve by learning rules and strategies for processing information better.

A

Information Processing Theory

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33
Q

This theory proposed that cognitive development occurs as a direct response to social interactions and that learning occurs on the interpersonal and intrapersonal levels?

A

Vygotsky’s Theory of Cognitive
Development (Social
Development Theory)

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34
Q

According to Vygotsky, the difference between what a person can do without help and what they can do with help is referred to as ________; ________ is the term used to describe the help provided to a child by others.

A

Zone of proximal development; scaffolding

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35
Q

This phenomenon refers
to the inability of adults
to recall memories from the earliest years of their childhood?

A

Infantile (childhood) amnesia

36
Q

True or False: While an
infant’s cry has been shown to have physiological effects on parents, the effect for first time parents is the strongest?

A

True- research has suggested first time parents are most sensitive, physiologically, to the sounds of their infant crying

37
Q

Regarding language development, holophrastic speech, which develops between 12 and 18 months of age, refers to what?

A

Combining single
words with gestures
and intonation to express a complete thought or sentence

38
Q

Research indicating that certain aspects of language are universal, that there is a sensitive period within which language is best acquired, and that there is brain lateralization for language supports what theories of language development?

A

Nativist theories, which emphasize the role of
innate, genetically-determined
factors in learning language

39
Q

At about what age do children start to use rehearsal and other memory strategies in a consistent way?

A

7 years-old

40
Q

What is the significant
finding that came out of Harlow’s research on
attachment with monkeys (i.e., wire-monkey with
food vs. soft, cloth monkey with no food)?

A

Contact comfort (the pleasant sensation provided by a soft, warm parent) is more important than food as a determinant of attachment

41
Q

The idea that infants are born with built-in attachment-related
behaviors that mothers respond
to with certain behaviors in order to meet the infants needs
is characteristic of what theory of attachment?

A

Bowlby’s

Ethological Theory

42
Q

Bowlby proposed that childrens’
behavior in later relationships is guided by what he termed ________, which are mental representations of the self and attachment figures developed during the first years of life.

A

Internal working models

43
Q

A child who is around 6 months old uses information gleaned from reading her parents emotional reactions to guide her own behaviors, which is referred to as what?

A

Social referencing

supported by “visual cliff” studies

44
Q

Strongest between 14 and 18 months old, ________ occurs when an infant responds with distress in the absence of his primary caregiver.

A

Separation anxiety

45
Q

Between what ages does an infant experience the most intense stranger anxiety?

A

17 to 18 months-old

46
Q

According to Bowlby, babies between 15 and 30 months old with this experience demonstrate the following pattern of predictable behaviors: protest (crying loud, rejects attention from other adults), despair (inactive, withdrawal), and detachment (apathy which may continue in mother’s presence).

A

Prolonged separation from their mother

47
Q

As a result of Ainsworth’s research, the following 4 attachment patterns were identified: ________ (baby explores environment, comfortable with strangers when mother is around, emotionally sensitive/responsive), ________ (baby uninterested in environment, distressed when mother not present and avoids her upon return), ________ (baby anxious when mother present, very distressed when she leaves and ambivalent upon her return, wary of strangers), and ________ (baby apprehensive and confused, alternates between avoidance/resistance ad proximity-seeking).

A

Secure; Avoidant/Anxious; Resistant/Anxious; Disorganized/Disoriented

48
Q

The baby of a mother who is either impatient/non-responsive or is overly responsive, involved, and stimulating may respond to the “strange situation” in ways consistent with what attachment pattern?

A

Anxious/Avoidant

49
Q

The baby of a mother who is inconsistent in her responses,
responding with indifference at
times while responding enthusiastically at other times,
is likely to develop a/an ________ attachment style.

A

Anxious/Resistant

50
Q

The 4 adult attachment patterns include: ________ (value attachment relationships, integrate positive and negative childhood experiences), ________ (devalue importance of attachment relationships, defensive and guarded when asked about childhood, idealize parents without concrete support), ________ (confused and incoherent attachment memories, remain enmeshed with family issues, believe family problems cannot be overcome), and ________ (have dysfunctional relationships, experienced trauma or loss as child that was never mourned, tend to be neglectful of their own children).

A

Secure-autonomous; dismissing; preoccupied; unresolved

51
Q

True or False: Research has shown that children who are rejected by their peers tend to experience less psychological and behavioral problems than those that are neglected by their peers?

A

False- children who are rejected by their peers have been shown to demonstrate higher levels of aggressiveness and other disruptive behaviors, as well as increased feelings of loneliness

52
Q

According to Piaget’s theory of moral development, children between 4 and 7 years-old demonstrate ________ morality in which rules are viewed as absolute and unchangeable, and judgments are based mainly on the consequences of the act; by 7 or 8 years-old, children demonstrate ________ morality in which rules are viewed as flexible agreements between individuals and judgments are based more on the actor’s intentions.

A

Heteronomous; autonomous

53
Q

Between what ages does peer conformity peak?

A

12 to 14 years-old

54
Q

True or False: Fearful children
develop conscience better when their parent uses gentle discipline (deemphasizes power, capitalizes on child’s internal discomfort) rather than negative discipline (threats, angry commands)?

A

True- and fearless children tend to develop
conscience through use
of secure attachment
and maternal responsiveness

55
Q

Of masculinity, femininity, and androgyny, which is associated with the highest levels of self-esteem in both girls and boys?

A

Androgyny, while masculinity is associated with higher levels of self-esteem than femininity in both girls and boys

56
Q

What theory proposes that children internalize conceptual frameworks
(schema) about gender-expectations within a sociocultural context, which subsequently predispose the person to construct a schema-consistent self-identity?

A

Gender Schema Theory (Bem, 1981)

57
Q

According to Kohlberg’s Cognitive-Developmental Theory, the 3 stages of
gender-identity development are: ________
(child recognizes their either male or female, usually by 2 or 3 years-old), ________ (realization that gender identity is consistent over time), and ________ (understand that gender does not change because of changes in appearance or behaviors, usually around 6 or 7 years-old).

A

Gender identity; gender stability; gender constancy

58
Q

According to Thomas and Chess, most children can be categorized into 1 of 3 temperament groups, which include: ________ (cheerful, react to new stimuli with low-moderate intensity, adapt easily, eat and sleep regularly), ________ (sad or tense, react to new stimuli with low intensity, adapt to new situations over time, variable eat and sleep schedule), and ________ (irritated with new experiences, difficulty to soothe, very active, irregular eat and sleep schedule).

A

Easy; slow-to-warm-up; difficult

59
Q

According to the ________ model, maladjustment is the result of a poor fit between a child’s temperament and environment (e.g., parents response pattern), whereas a more appropriate fit leads to a more well-adjusted child.

A

Goodness-of-Fit (Thomas and Chess)

60
Q

What are the 5

stages of psychosexual development proposed by Freud?

A

Oral (birth to 1 year), anal (1 to 3 years), phallic (3 to 6 years), latency (6 years to puberty), and genital (post-puberty)

61
Q

According to Freud, during which stage of development does the Oedipal (boys) or Electra (girls) conflict occur?

A

Phallic stage (3 to 6 years)

62
Q

What are the 8 psychosocial conflicts, according to Erikson, that occur throughout a person’s lifespan?

A

Trust vs. mistrust (birth to 1 year), autonomy vs. shame/doubt (1 to 3 years),
initiative vs. guilt (3 to 6 years), industry
vs. inferiority (6 years to puberty), identity
vs. identity confusion (adolescence),
intimacy vs. isolation (young adulthood), generativity vs. stagnation (middle
adulthood), and ego integrity vs. despair (old age)

63
Q

Regarding parenting styles, ________ parents are warm and nurturing, gain control through explanation and seeking their child’s input, and set high standards; ________ parents are controlling and demanding, and respond to disobedience punitively; ________ parents are nurturing but fail to assert their authority, providing little structure; and ________ parents are undemanding and indifferent, uncommitted as parents, and keep a distance from their children.

A

Authoritative;

authoritarian; permissive; uninvolved

64
Q

A person who, as a child, was insecure and unhappy, and as an adult lacked a sense of initiative and was dependent on others, is likely to have had parents with what type of parenting style?

A

Authoritarian

65
Q

The characteristics of what parenting style are most predictive of adolescent delinquency?

A

Uninvolved

66
Q

According to Marcia, which “identity
status” corresponds to the following adolescent responses to an inquiry about
political beliefs: 1) “I haven’t really thought about it.” 2) “I’m libertarian, like my parents.” 3) “I’m a little confused and wonder if my beliefs are represented by any existing political party.” 4) “After struggling with it, I feel confident with my liberal perspectives.”

A

Identity diffusion (no identity crisis or commitment); identity foreclosure (strong commitment to identity based on external influence, not crisis); identity moratorium (identity crisis leads to exploration of options); identity achievement (crisis resolved and committed to identity)

67
Q

According to Gilligan, females risk experiencing _______ as a result of the internalization of sexist messages; this can be mitigated by authority figures (parents, teachers) providing them with experiences that promote and support remaining connected to themselves and others.

A

Loss of voice

68
Q

According to Patterson and his colleagues, children learn to act aggressively as a result of what 2 parenting factors?

A

Imitation and being rewarded for their aggressive acts (via attention or approval)

69
Q

True or False: Having a parent present while watching aggressive television programs mitigates the negative effects on children?

A

True- as does parental
disapproval of aggression,
encouragement of nonaggressive behavior,
and limiting viewing of violent shows

70
Q

True or False: Catharsis is an effective approach to treating aggressive children (e.g., instructing an angry child to hit a pillow)?

A

False- research
has shown that
catharsis can
stimulate aggression

71
Q

According to research,

how does divorce typically affect the parenting styles of both mothers and fathers?

A

Mothers show less affection toward children, especially sons, whom they may treat more harshly; fathers become more indulgent and permissive

72
Q

Studies indicate that children who are preschool-aged when their parents divorce tend to experience more ________ consequences (e.g., self-blame, immature behavior, separation anxiety), while children who are older at the time of their parents divorce experience more ________ consequences (e.g., lasting painful memories, fear their own ability to be happily married).

A

Short-term; long-term

73
Q

While boys of divorced parents
tend to be affected immediately, demonstrating
increased negative behaviors,
young girls may appear unaffected until their
adolescent years, exemplifying this phenomenon.

A

Sleeper effect

74
Q

Who is likely to be more well-adjusted, a child from an intact family that is constantly in conflict, or a child from a divorced family low in conflict?

A

Research indicates that children from high-conflict intact families tend to be more poorly adjusted than those from low-conflict divorced families

75
Q

The relationship between children and step-________ involves more frequent interactions, though they are often harsh, while relationships between children and step-________ are typically unpleasant and disengaged.

A

Mothers; fathers

76
Q 
True or False: Children
with mothers who work
tend to have lower self-esteem and worse
family and peer relations
than children whose mothers do not work?
A

False- research suggests the opposite is true

77
Q

In what ways does the adjustment of children with homosexual parents differ from that of children raised by heterosexual parents?

A

Research suggests no significant differences, including future sexual orientation, impact of divorce, and peer relations

78
Q

In her Kansas City Study, Neugarten found that around 50 years-old, people experience a transition from an ________ to an ________ orientation; she also found that “midlife” is characterized by a shift in perspective from “________” to “________.”

A

Outer-world (environment can be

controlled) ; Inner-world (environment is a
threat) ; time since birth; time until death

79
Q

As people increase in age, they are likely to experience relatively little impact when performing ________ tasks that measure acquired knowledge; however, performance on ________ tasks requiring rapid responding to and processing of new information declines significantly.

A

Verbal; nonverbal

80
Q

In the months just prior to

death, most people experience the phenomenon termed ________, whereby all areas of intelligence decline significantly.

A

Terminal drop

81
Q

The “synchrony effect”
(May and Hasher) refers to
the matching of task demands with ________, which positively influences performance on cognitive tasks?

A

Preferred time of day

82
Q

What types of memory are most negatively impacted by age?

A

Recent long-term and

working memory

83
Q

Long-term memory is divided into ________ and ________ memory, of which the latter tends to be substantially more negatively impacted by age than the former.

A

Remote; recent

84
Q

True or False: Age-related
memory decline appears to be more a function of
poor encoding strategies rather than capacity for storage of new memories?

A

True- hence, training in encoding skills can be beneficial

85
Q

Research indicates that aging has the greatest impact on one’s ability to recall personal experiences, which is referred to as what?

A

Episodic memory

86
Q

What are the 5 stages proposed by Kubler-Ross that people go through when faced with their own death?

A

Denial, anger,
bargaining, depression,
acceptance (DABDA)

87
Q

During what ages

does a person experience the greatest anxiety about death?

A

50 to 60 years-old

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