Industrial-Organizational Psychology

Question 1

The primary purpose of a ________ is to develop a description of the nature of a particular job including the knowledge and skills necessary to successfully perform the job; methods include interviews, direct observation, work diaries, and questionnaires (e.g., Position Analysis Questionnaire).

Answer 1

Job analysis

Question 2

In regards to job analysis, ________-oriented techniques focus on task requirements of a job, while ________-oriented techniques identify the personal characteristics, skills, abilities, and knowledge required for successful job performance.

Answer 2

Job; worker

Question 3

This is the process of evaluating a particular person’s job performance, typically performed to assist in making decisions regarding promotions, placement, transfers, or dismissals.

Answer 3

Performance evaluation

Question 4

Of the 2 types of “________ measures” used to evaluate employee job performance, ________ measures are quantitative and direct (e.g., number of items sold, salary), while ________ measures focus on less concrete aspects of job performance (e.g., motivation, ability to supervise) and rely more on the judgment of the rater.

Answer 4

Criterion; objective; subjective

Question 5

What 2 subjective rating techniques involve 1) comparing each employee with every other employee on each job behavior, and 2) categorizing employees into predetermined groups (based on performance) then comparing the groups?

Answer 5

1) Paired comparisons, 2) forced distribution (Personnel Comparison Systems)

Question 6

________ are descriptions of specific job behaviors that make a significant contribution to the job, either positive or negative, and are defined by supervisors who identify employee behaviors that demonstrate superior or inferior performance.

Answer 6

Critical incidents (aka
behavioral anchors)

Question 7

This type of subjective rating technique involves a rater (e.g., supervisor)
selecting the critical incident for each job
dimension that best describes an employee’s behavior, then using a Likert-type scale to rate the employee; construction usually involves the input of different groups of workers and supervisors.

Answer 7

Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scales (BARS)

Question 8

This subjective rating technique differs from Behaviorally Anchored
Rating Scales (BARS) in that the
rater only indicates how often the
employee performs each critical
incident, rather than rating
performance on numerous dimensions.

Answer 8

Behavioral-Observation Scales (BOS)

Question 9

A supervisor who, on a subjective rating of an employee’s performance, gives a high rating on “punctuality” and subsequently rates other unrelated dimensions of job behavior highly is demonstrating what type of rater bias?

Answer 9

Halo Effect (can be either positive or negative), whereby all aspects of a person’s behavior is based on a single attribute

Question 10

The _______ refers to the inclination for a rater to assign only average ratings for all ratees; the ________ is the tendency to rate all ratees positively; and the ________ is the tendency to provide only negative ratings.

Answer 10

Central tendency; leniency bias; strictness bias

Question 11

Assigning erroneously low ratings to an employee after rating numerous employees who demonstrate exceptionally good job performance is an example of what rater bias?

Answer 11

Contrast Effect

Question 12

Of personnel selection procedures, these are regarded as the most valid predictors of job performance across jobs and settings, with validity increasing as job complexity increases.

Answer 12

General Mental Ability Tests, such as cognitive ability tests and general intelligence measures

Question 13

If an employer wants to measure the knowledge and
abilities required to effectively
perform job tasks of an employee seeking promotion,
what selection procedure is most likely to be used?

Answer 13

Job Knowledge Tests, which provide a good predictor of performance for people with prior experience or training

Question 14

A person seeking employment as a court stenographer is asked demonstrate their typing skills in a situation similar to that in which they will be working, providing a ________ for the potential employer.

Answer 14

Work sample

Question 15

One way to prevent unreasonable expectations about a job in order to reduce turnover is to conduct this, which often includes work samples.

Answer 15

Realistic job preview

Question 16

Research on interviews indicates ________ interviews are more valid than ________ interviews, which are more valid than psychologically-based interviews.

Answer 16

Situational; job-related

Question 17

What types of interviews are associated with the highest corrected validity, according to research?

Answer 17

Structured board
interviews using
consensus ratings

Question 18

Often highly predictive of job success, as well as turnover, ________ includes information about an applicant’s education, work history, personal interests, and skills.

Answer 18

Biodata (biographical information)

Question 19

These are used for the selection, promotion, and training of administrative and managerial level employees, and may involved observing how a participant responds to the kinds of tasks actually encountered on the job.

Answer 19

Assessment centers

Question 20

One possible downside to assessment centers is ________, which occurs when a rater’s knowledge of a person’s performance on a predictor affects how the rater evaluates the person’s performance once on the job, leading to an artificial increase in the correlation between the predictor and criterion (or validity coefficient).

Answer 20

Criterion contamination

Question 21

While having low validity
for predicting job success,
these types of tests are
quite useful at predicting
job satisfaction, job
persistence, and job choice.

Answer 21

Interests tests (e.g., Strong-Campbell Interest Inventory [SCII] and Kuder Occupational Interest Survey)

Question 22

What type of test might be administered to select employees with a lower probability of non-productive job behaviors (e.g., stealing, drinking, etc.)?

Answer 22

Integrity tests

Question 23

According to the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission, ________ occurs when a hiring procedure produces significantly different rates of selection for different groups of people based on race, gender, age, etc.

Answer 23

Adverse impact

Question 24

Adverse impact is determined using the ________, which states that adverse impact is occurring when the selection rate for a minority group is less than 4/5ths that of the majority group.

Answer 24

80% (4/5ths) rule

Question 25

True or False: Adverse impact is permitted in cases where an
employer demonstrates a valid
reason for hiring a significantly
larger proportion of a specific group (e.g., job requires
physical strength, so more men tend to me hired)

Answer 25

True- this is referred
to as a Bona Fide
Occupational
Qualification (BFOQ)

Question 26

Two main causes of adverse impact are ________ and ________; the former
occurs when a selection procedure validly predicts job performance for one
group and lacks validity for another group, while the latter occurs when one
group’s scores on a selection test are
lower than another’s, even though job performance is the same.

Answer 26

Differential validity; unfairness

Question 27

Separate cutoffs, within
group norming, and
banding are methods
that might be implemented in what situation?

Answer 27

When selection test scores of one group tend to be lower than those of another group, thereby compensating for bias

Question 28

True or False: Based on the Americans with Disabilities Act, not providing reasonable accommodations, regardless of whether it would impose a hardship on the organization, is considered discrimination?

Answer 28

False- reasonable accommodations must be made unless the organization can demonstrate it would lead to hardship

Question 29

The gain in validity resulting from adding new predictors to an existing selection system is referred to as what?

Answer 29

Incremental validity (= positive hit rate - base rate)

Question 30

A selection procedure’s incremental validity is greatest when the base rate is ________ (about .50), the selection ratio is ________, and the validity coefficient is ________.

Answer 30

Moderate; low; high

Question 31

An organization interested in assessing the cost-effectiveness of a particular selection procedure would likely employ ________, whereby the selection procedure being used is compared to others in regards to dollar gain in job performance.

Answer 31

Utility analysis (or cost-utility analysis)

Question 32

When combining predictors into
a single selection test, it is important that each predictor have a ________ correlation with the criterion and ________ correlation with the other predictors (to avoid redundancy).

Answer 32

High; low

Question 33

What term refers to predictors on a combined predictor selection test being highly correlated and thereby redundant?

Answer 33

Multicollinearity

Question 34

What method of combining predictors is being used if an organization requires applicants to complete 3 types of measures then uses the combined scores to predict job performance (e.g., amount of sales in a 3 month period)?

Answer 34

Multiple regression, which is a “compensatory” technique, meaning a low score on one predictor can be compensated for by higher scores on the other predictors

Question 35

This method of combining predictors requires applicants to score above a minimum limit on all predictors in order to be hired; it is noncompensatory in that a low score on one predictor eliminates one’s chance of being hired regardless of scores on other predictors.

Answer 35

Multiple cutoff, which is useful when success requires competence in multiple domains

Question 36

What is the difference between multiple cutoff and multiple hurdle methods of combining predictors?

Answer 36

Applicants complete all predictors at the same time with multiple cutoff, while multiple hurdle occurs when each predictor is given only after an applicant successfully completed the previous one

Question 37

An organization considering
employee training would likely perform a _______, which
helps to determine if and what kind of training is necessary
and involves organization, task,
person, and demographic analyses.

Answer 37

Needs analysis

Question 38

What type of training involves
having trainees perform a job under the supervision of an experienced supervisor, employee, or training instructor and is typically more economical than other training methods?

Answer 38

On-the-job- training

Question 39

A person training to be an airline pilot is required to successfully and safely complete a set number of hours in a flight simulator before receiving their commercial pilots license. This is an example of what type of training?

Answer 39

Vestibule training, which is very useful for jobs where consequences of errors are significant or repeated practice is necessary to learn the task

Question 40

This is a systematic method for collecting, analyzing, and using data to develop answers to basic questions about projects, policies, and programs.

Answer 40

Program evaluation

Question 41

One common approach to program evaluation is Kirkpatrick’s model, which posits 4 levels of
training outcomes: 1. ________ focuses on what
participants thought/felt about the program, 2. ________ provides a quantifiable measure of
what has been learned during the program, 3. ________ addresses the impact the program had on a participant’s performance/behavior in the workplace, and 4. ________ measures the effects of the program on broader organizational goals and objectives.

Answer 41

Reaction criteria; learning criteria; behavior criteria; results criteria

Question 42

Phillips proposed this “level 5” evaluation be done at all 4 of Kirkpatrick’s levels of criteria, which essentially calculates the money gained or lost as a result of program implementation.

Answer 42

Return on investment (ROI)

Question 43

Career counseling might involve the administration of ________, which help determine and measure one’s potential for learning a specific set of skills through future training.

Answer 43

Aptitude tests

Question 44

Regarding aptitude tests, ________ are used to
assess particular abilities required for a specific
job, such as psychomotor abilities (e.g., Purdue Peg Board, O’Connor Finger Dexterity Test), and have a high degree of specificity (i.e., different aptitudes do not correlate); ________ measure different aptitudes through the administration of numerous tests (e.g., Differential Aptitude Test, General Aptitude Test Battery).

Answer 44

Special Aptitude
Tests; Multiple
Aptitude Batteries

Question 45

What type of tests are intended to measure one’s previously learned skills and knowledge about a particular domain and might be used in career counseling to determine if a person has the required skills to effectively perform a certain job?

Answer 45

Achievement tests

Question 46

What theory proposes that career choice is ultimately a function of one’s personality and social environment?

Answer 46

Holland’s Personality and

Environment Typology

Question 47

The 6 personality types delineated by Holland’s Personality and Environment Typology include: ________ (practical, physical, hands-on), ________ (analytical, intellectual, scientific), ________ (creative, original, nonconforming), ________ (cooperative, supportive, nurturing), ________ (competitive, persuasive, manipulative), and ________ (detail-oriented, organized, clerical).

Answer 47

Realistic; Investigative; Artistic; Social; Enterprising; Conventional (acronym = RIASEC)

Question 48

According to Holland, ________ refers to the fit between one’s personality type and occupational environment, while ________ occurs when a person scores high on 1 of the 6 interests and low on all others.

Answer 48

Congruence; differentiation

Question 49

True or False: Regarding
Holland’s Personality and Environment Typology,
personality-environment match
most accurately predicts
job-related outcomes when
there is a low degree of differentiation?

Answer 49

False- higher degrees of differentiation lead to more accurate predictions

Question 50

What are some tests a career counselor might

use to measure the personality types as described by Holland’s Personality Typology?

Answer 50

Strong-Campbell Interest Inventory; Vocational Preference Inventory; Self-Directed Search

Question 51

This theory of vocational choice posits that parenting orientation affects children’s needs and personality traits, which subsequently influences occupational outcome?

Answer 51

Roe’s Fields and Levels Theory

Question 52

What are the 3 parenting orientations distinguished by Roe’s Fields and Levels Theory?

Answer 52

Overprotective, avoidant,
and acceptant; this theory
also delineates 8 occupational fields (e.g., business, science) and 6 occupational levels (e.g., managerial, skilled)

Question 53

This theory states that career development occurs in a series
of predictable stages and that
the tasks of each stage must be mastered before a person progresses to the next stage.

Answer 53

Super’s Career Development Theory

Question 54

What are the 5 stages of career development distinguished by Super’s Career Development Theory?

Answer 54

Growth (birth - 15 years), exploration 15-24 y/o), establishment (25-44 y/o), maintenance (45-64 y/o), decline (65+ y/o)

Question 55

According to Super’s Career Development Theory, ________ refers to the extent to which a person has accomplished the tasks at a certain developmental stage, while ________ refers to the different social roles adopted and varying points during one’s life.

Answer 55

Career maturity; life space

Question 56

Super utilizes the ________ to illustrate the 9 developmental life roles (child, student, worker, partner, parent, citizen, homemaker, leisurite, pensioner) a person adopts during the 5 developmental stages of career development, while the _______ illustrates the personal and environmental factors that combine to determine one’s career path.

Answer 56

Life Career Rainbow; Archway of Career Determinants

Question 57

This model of vocational choice is based on Erikson’s psychosocial theory of ego identity and poses career-related correlates to each of Erikson’s 8 psychosocial crisis resolutions; it was developed as a reaction against Super’s self-concept model.

Answer 57

Tiedman and O’Hare’s Decision Making Model

Question 58

The Miller-Tiedeman and Tiedman’s Decision Making Model differentiates between _______ reality and ________ reality, the former referring to thought or behavior that one feels is right for themselves, the latter referring to what “they” expect of the person.

Answer 58

Personal; common

Question 59

This theory addresses the extent to which
gender and prestige influence and limit
one’s choice of careers and suggests
that, starting in childhood, people 1) begin to progressively eliminate least preferred career options as they become more aware of occupational differences in gender and prestige, and 2) expand career preferences in recognition of and accommodation to external constraints.

Answer 59

Gottfredson’s Theory of Circumscription and Compromise

Question 60

This theory suggests that career transitions occur as a result of learning experiences from planned and unplanned encounters with the people, institutions, and events in each individual’s specific environment, distinguishing between the following 4 influences on career decision making: 1) genetic characteristics and special abilities, 2) environmental conditions and events, 3) learning experiences (instrumental and associative), and 4) task approach skills.

Answer 60

Krumboltz’s Social Learning Theory of Career Decision Making (SLTCDM)

Question 61

This theory of management analyzes and synthesizes workflows with the purpose of improving productivity; underlying this theory are the assumptions that 1) performance is influenced by worker motivation, 2) most workers are motivated exclusively by economic incentives, and 3) most workers require constant supervision.

Answer 61

Scientific Management (F. Taylor), or Taylorism

Question 62

The ________ approach contrasts against scientific management in that it assumes worker performance is influenced primarily by social factors (e.g., attitudes toward supervisors and co-workers, informal work group norms) rather than economic factors.

Answer 62

Human relations

Question 63

This term refers to the phenomenon whereby an aspect of a person’s performance improves due simply to the fact that they are being observed and receiving greater attention.

Answer 63

Hawthorne Effect

Question 64

Organizations taking this approach tend to assume that workers have
diverse needs; organizations differ in terms of structure, culture, and
other characteristics; and no single managerial strategy works
universally well for all people and all organizations.

Answer 64

The Systems Approach

Question 65

This theory attempts to combine the best aspects of American organizational styles with the best aspects of Japanese organizational styles, advocating for consensual decision-making, slow promotion, long-term employment, and holistic knowledge of the organization.

Answer 65

Theory Z

Ouchi and Jaeger

Question 66

Skill variety (workers trained to perform numerous skills); task variety (workers work on
entire product or component of a product and see how it fits into big picture); autonomy, participation, and power (workers make decisions; task significance (workers communicate with external customers); and feedback (coming directly from work process rather than management) are characteristics of what management approach?

Answer 66

Total Quality Management

Question 67

According to Lewin, Lipitt, and White, ________ leaders make decisions alone and instruct subordinates what to do, ________ leaders involve subordinates in the decision-making process, and ________ leaders provided minimal guidance and allow subordinates to make decisions on their own.

Answer 67

Autocratic; democratic; laissez-faire

Question 68

Research on leadership styles has shown that ________ leadership in routine work environments tends to increase productivity.

Answer 68

Autocratic

Question 69

Under what style of leadership, as distinguished by Lewin, Lipitt, and White, do subordinates tend to be most satisfied, more creative, have better relationships with the leader, and more likely to continue working in the absence of the leader?

Answer 69

Democratic

Question 70

A supervisor who tends toward a more person-oriented approach to leadership
and emphasizes human relations in their
supervisory style would be said to have the ________ structure, whereas a
supervisor who is more task-oriented and
focuses on goal-setting, rules, and role
clarification demonstrates the ________ structure.

Answer 70

Consideration; initiating

Question 71

True or False: Research
has shown that there
are certain personality characteristics that distinguish good leaders from poor ones?

Answer 71

False- no single trait or set of traits distinguishes good leaders from poor ones, rather effectiveness of a leader is influenced by numerous factors (e.g., supervisee characteristics, type of task)

Question 72

According to McGregor, ________ managers
believe work is inherently unenjoyable, workers require direction due to lacking ambition, and workers are motivated by lower-level needs (e.g., financial incentive); alternatively, ________ managers believe workers are self-directed and responsible, work can be enjoyable under proper conditions, and workers require freedom and autonomy.

Answer 72

Theory X (e.g., Scientific
Management); Theory Y
(e.g., Human Relations
approach) - McGregor
theorized a Theory Y
approach was more effective

Question 73

This theory of leadership postulates that a leader’s effectiveness is determined by the interaction between 2 factors: 1) style of leadership, which is measured using the Least Preferred Coworker (LPC) scale, and 2) situational favorableness/control, or the degree to which a situation enables the leader to control or influence subordinates.

Answer 73

Fiedler’s Contingency Theory (LPC Theory)

Question 74

What theory of leadership postulates that the satisfaction, motivation, and performance of subordinates is contingent on the leader’s behavior, further stating that leaders engage in behaviors that compliment subordinates abilities and compensate for deficiencies.

Answer 74

Path-Goal Theory of

Leadership (House)

Question 75

The Path-Goal Theory of Leadership suggests 4 leader styles: ________ leaders establish clear rules and tells subordinates how to perform tasks; ________ leaders set challenging goals and expect subordinates to perform at their highest level; ________ leaders consult with subordinates and seek their suggestions when making decisions; and ________ leaders demonstrate concern for the needs and preferences of subordinates.

Answer 75

Instrumental (or directive); achievement-oriented; participative; supportive

Question 76

According to Hersey and Blanchard’s Situational Leadership Model, optimal leader style is largely dependent on subordinates ________ and ________ to accept responsibility, or job maturity.

Answer 76

Ability; willingness

Question 77

According to the Situational Leadership Model, determine the optimal leader style for these 4 “job maturity” levels: 1) ability and willingness to accept responsibility are both low, 2) low ability but high willingness to accept responsibility, 3) high ability but low willingness to accept responsibility, 4) ability and willingness to accept responsibility are both high.

Answer 77

1) Telling (high task orientation, low relationship orientation, 2) Selling (high task and relationship orientations), 3) Participating (low task orientation, high relationship orientation), 4) Delegating (low task and relationship orientation

Question 78

Inspirational motivation, focus on change, appeals to higher ideals and values, and
intellectual stimulation are characteristics
of ________ leadership, while the use of
rewards and punishments, threats of
disciplinary action, and a focus on
stability is more characteristic of a ________ leadership style.

Answer 78

Transformational; transactional

Question 79

This situational leadership theory distinguishes between 5 styles of leadership based on the extent to which the leader includes group members in the decision-making process, arguing that each of the leadership styles has both costs and benefits and that the best style depends on situational characteristics; uses a “decision tree” to indicate optimal leader style based on leader’s answers to questions about situational attributes.

Answer 79

Vroom and Yetton’s Normative (Decision-Making) Model

Question 80

What theory emphasizes that not all subordinates (members) of an organization achieve the same quality of relationship with leaders, explains how relationships with various subordinates can develop, and suggests the subordinate-leader relationship determines “in group” or “out group” status of the subordinate?

Answer 80

Leader Member Exchange Theory

Question 81

What are the 7 phases of organizational development?

Answer 81

Entry (identify need for change), contracting (consultant specifics terms and conditions of participation), diagnosis (problem assessed and data collected), FEEDBACK (help organization understand diagnostic information so it can begin to address problem), planning (corrective-action plan developed), intervention (plan implemented), and evaluation (progress assessed)

Question 82

What quality of work life intervention involves having workers from the same department voluntarily meet regularly to discuss how their work can be improved?

Answer 82

Quality circles

Question 83

With the purpose of helping team members understand and alter processes that are undermining their interactions, ________ focuses on decision-making, communication, conflict resolution, and individual roles in groups.

Answer 83

Process consultation

Question 84

Chin and Benne posit 3 strategies for overcoming resistance to organizational change:
________ (assumes people are rational and act in accord with their self-interests), ________ (assumes social norms underlie organizational behavior patterns, thus change in attitudes/values leads to acceptance of organizational change), and ________ (rewards, punishments, and legitimate authority used to coerce employees to comply with organizational change).

Answer 84

Empirical-Rational; Normative-Reeducative; Power-Coercive

Question 85

True or False: When employees are asked to participate in decisions regarding organizational change, they become less likely to support the change?

Answer 85

False- when allowed
to fully participate, employees tend to
support the change enthusiastically

Question 86

A ________ communication network involves all communication going through one person/position (e.g., chain of command), while a ________ communication network is characterized by information flowing more freely between individuals (e.g., the circle); the former is more efficient for simple mundane tasks, the latter is more efficient when tasks require cooperation and are more complex.

Answer 86

Centralized; decentralized

Question 87

Regarding individual decision-making within an organization, a person utilizing the ________ model gathers all relevant information and must process the information accurately without bias in order to find the optimal solution; a person utilizing the ________ model evaluates solutions as they become available and selects the first one that is minimally acceptable, as perfect rationality is understood to be impossible.

Answer 87

Rational-economic; administrative

Question 88

According to Driver, Brousseau, and Hunsaker, ________ make decisions based on the least amount of information necessary and choose 1 or more adequate solutions, while ________ use all of the time and resources necessary to consider all relevant information before settling on a solution.

Answer 88

Satisficers; maximizers

Question 89

The 5 decision making styles proposed by Driver, Brousseau, and Hunsaker are: ________ (satisficing and uni-focus), ________ (satisficing and multi-focus), ________ (maximizing and uni-focus), ________ (maximizing and multi-focus), and ________ (maximizing and both uni-focus and multi-focus).

Answer 89

Decisive style; flexible style; hierarchic style; integrative style; systemic style

Question 90

This primary concept of Prospect Theory refers to the tendency for people to be more influenced by potential losses than potential gains when making decisions; essentially, people prefer avoiding losses more than acquiring gains.

Answer 90

Loss aversion (people are more adverse to loss than to risk)

Question 91

The degree to which workers perceive
they are being treated fairly is referred to
as ________ and involves these 3 dimensions: ________ (perceived fairness of outcomes such as hiring and raise requests), ________ (perceived fairness of processes/methods used to allocate outcomes), and ________ (perceived fairness of interpersonal treatment).

Answer 91

Organizational justice; distributive

justice; procedural justice; interactional justice

Question 92

What dimension of organizational justice is the best predictor of work performance and counterproductive work behavior?

Answer 92

Procedural justice

Question 93

According to Schein, there are 3 levels characterizing this concept: 1) behavior and observable artifacts (e.g., physical layout of workplace, dress codes), 2) values (e.g., organizations ideologies, norms, goals), and 3) underlying assumptions (e.g., unconscious thoughts, emotions, assumptions).

Answer 93

Organizational culture

Question 94

True or False: Physically attractive women, when competing with equally qualified women who are less attractive, are usually deemed less suitable for the job by male executives?

Answer 94

True- though physically attractive males are usually deemed more suitable

Question 95

According to research, how are women managers, particularly those who utilize stereotypically male leadership styles, evaluated?

Answer 95

Only slightly less favorable, while men using stereotypically female leadership styles are not evaluated any differently

Question 96

The notion that men and women should receive equal pay for performing jobs that have equivalent worth is referred to as what?

Answer 96

Comparable worth

Question 97


True or False: Based on research findings, males
and females in leadership
roles do not consistently
differ in terms of their leader style?

Answer 97

True- there is some evidence, however, that women adopt a more participatory style while men are more autocratic/directive

Question 98

What is utilized to help an organization determine the worth of jobs in order to set salaries and wages?

Answer 98

Job evaluation

Question 99

These are used to assess employee attitudes and opinions and can provide valuable information and solutions to help solve organizational problems, which usually leads to increased employee satisfaction.

Answer 99

Employee surveys

Question 100

This theory, when applied to the workplace, suggests that workers are motivated by need deficiencies, thereby exerting effort to meet their lowest unsatisfied need (e.g., higher-level workers motivated by esteem needs while lower-level workers motivated by physiological needs); empirically, there is not much support for this theory.

Answer 100

Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs (as applied to work motivation)

Question 101

Alderfer's ERG theory
proposes what 3 needs,
which do not arise in
hierarchical order as
Maslow suggests,
contribute to work motivation?

Answer 101

Existence, relatedness, and growth

Question 102

According to McClelland, ________ is the primary motivator in work situations, whereby people with high levels desire autonomy, personal responsibility, and recognition for their efforts; those with a high ________ are motivated by control, prestige, and status, while those with a high ________ are motivated by good interpersonal relationships and the avoidance of conflict.

Answer 102

Need for achievement (nACh); need for power (nPOW); need for affection (nAFF)

Question 103

This theory proposes that: the absence of
hygiene factors (e.g., pay, benefits) leads
to worker dissatisfaction, while the presence has no effect on satisfaction; the presence of motivator factors (e.g., decision-making authority, responsibility) leads to satisfaction and motivation, while the absence does not cause dissatisfaction.

Answer 103

Herzberg’s Two-Factor Theory (note: there is some empirical support that motivators are more effective than hygiene factors, though little support for the distinction between factors that produce satisfaction and dissatisfaction)

Question 104

According to Herzberg’s Two-Factor Theory, redesigning a job to provide a worker with increased responsibility, decision-making authority, opportunities for advancement, and challenge is referred to as what?

Answer 104

Job enrichment

Question 105

This term refers to simply increasing the number and variety of tasks a worker performs in order to reduce boredom without the intent of increasing job motivation and satisfaction.

Answer 105

Job enlargement

Question 106

According to the Job Characteristics Model, ________ (job meaning increases with skill requirement), ________ (jobs constituting whole pieces of work rather than pieces of a whole are more meaningful), ________ (important jobs are more meaningful), ________ (independence, freedom, decision-making authority increases meaning), and ________ (regular reviews increase meaning) all influence motivation and job satisfaction.

Answer 106

Skill variety; task
identity; task
significance;
autonomy; feedback

Question 107

According to Goal-Setting Theory, which suggests that conscious acceptance of and commitment to goals are the most important factors in a worker’s willingness to achieve goals, what conditions maximize goal attainment?

Answer 107

Goals are specific and moderately difficult, and

regular feedback about progress toward goal attainment is provided

Question 108

An employee and his manager agree to a particular set of measurable goals that the employee will accomplish during a certain period of time. At the end of this time period, the employee’s progress toward these goals is evaluated and changes in goals or work behaviors are made. This exemplifies what technique based on Goal-Setting Theory?

Answer 108

Management by Objective

Question 109

True or False: Setting goals and receiving regular feedback has been shown to positively effect performance, while adding incentives does not appear to increase performance?

Answer 109

True- suggests extrinsic motivation
does not necessarily
improve performance

Question 110

This cognitive theory of work motivation posits that workers assess both their
contributions to (input) and rewards of (outcomes) their work, unconsciously comparing this input/outcome ratio to that of other workers; workers are motivated to create ratios comparable to that of other workers.

Answer 110

Equity Theory

Question 111

According to Equity Theory, an employee given a pay raise will be motivated to increase the quality and quantity of their work if they believe the raise resulted in what?

Answer 111

Them being overpaid compared to other employees

Question 112

The 3 concepts underlying Expectancy Theory (Vroom) are ________ (belief that increased effort leads to better job performance), ________ (belief that better job performance leads to certain outcomes/rewards), and ________ (rewards are desired/valued by the worker).

Answer 112

Expectancy; instrumentality; valence

Question 113

Similar in principle to Operant
Conditioning, what reinforcement theory of work
motivation places particular importance on extrinsic rewards, especially material rewards (e.g., salary, benefits)?

Answer 113

Incentive Theory

Question 114

True or False: A young, Hispanic, lower-level employee is likely to report greater satisfaction with his job than an older, White, manager?

Answer 114

False- in terms of job satisfaction, older age, higher-level jobs, and being white are correlated with lower reports of job dissatisfaction

Question 115

In one study, researchers found that
the strongest predictor
of job success for a number of jobs was what?

Answer 115

The employees

ability to utilize their skills

Question 116

The correlation between job satisfaction and job performance is ________ and ________.

Answer 116

Positive; weak

Question 117


This term refers to an employee’s psychological attachment to their place of work, or the extent to which they identify with their workplace and are willing to help it achieve it’s goals; higher levels are negatively correlated with absenteeism and turnover.

Answer 117

Organizational Commitment

Question 118

True or False: When working
interdependently on a task, it is best to
develop both individual and group goals?

Answer 118

False- research indicates individual

plus group goals are no better than group goals alone

Question 119

One main focus of engineering (ergonomic) psychology is the ________, which refers to the extent to which humans and machines must work together to accomplish a job.

Answer 119

Person-Machine Systems

Question 120

Regarding work schedules, working a 10-hour per day, 4 day per week schedule is an example of what?

Answer 120

Compressed work week (CWW)

Question 121

Employees who are allowed to determine their own daily
schedules as long as they work
the required number of hours and are at work during specific
core times are on a ________ work arrangement.

Answer 121

Flextime

Question 122

Research indicates that people working a ________, a type of shift-work schedule, are more prone to making errors and having serious accidents; even worse, people on a ________ shift have lower productivity, higher accident rates, and more health problems (physical and mental).

Answer 122

Night-shift; rotating

Question 123

One way to combat work ________, or the subjective tiredness due to physical or mental exertion, is to take periodic ________, which help to reduce work-related accidents and increase employee satisfaction.

Answer 123

Fatigue; rest breaks

Question 124

Work stress is typically caused by ________ (too much work to do in available time), ________ (work is too difficult), and/or ________ (not enough work/work is too easy).

Answer 124

Quantitative overload; qualitative overload; work underload

Question 125

What is the single most stressful aspect of work for psychotherapists, according to research?

Answer 125

Lack of therapeutic success

Question 126

This term refers to the physical and emotional exhaustion that can be caused by chronic work stress and is usually accompanied by a sense of reduced personal accomplishment and a tendency to think in impersonal terms.

Answer 126

Burnout

Question 127

Who is most

likely to experience burnout?

Answer 127

Women, employees who are single or divorced, those who work frequently with others

Question 128

Problems that occur as a result
of role expectations at work and at home being incompatible is referred to as ________, which can lead to burnout, lowered work productivity, depression, and marital/family dissatisfaction.

Answer 128

Work-family conflict

Question 129

True or False: To make sure employees are operating in a safe fashion, it is recommended organizations utilize tactics to frighten the employees, such as posting graphic details of what could happen if something is done out of safety code?

Answer 129

False- research indicates positive themed programs with a specific point are more effective

Question 130

________, ________, and ________ noises
are more distracting than ________,
________, ________ noises.

Answer 130

Intermittent; irrelevant; meaningful (e.g.,

conversations); constant; relevant; non-meaningful (e.g., construction noise)

Question 131

What is the best

way to reduce employee complaints about distracting noise?

Answer 131

Provide them some control over the noise

Question 132

This type of training is useful

for improving rater accuracy.

Answer 132

Frame-of-reference training