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IAM > Lectures 10-12 > Flashcards

Lectures 10-12 Flashcards

Cattle medicine

1
Q

When are calves weaned in the wild?

A

8-12 months

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2
Q

Over how long is the weaning process in the wild?

A

2 weeks

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3
Q

Why can the presence of older weaned calves be good when weaning calves?

A

they older calves guide the younger ones to food which increases feed intake

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4
Q

In the two-step weaning process, how long are calves left with mothers?

A

4 days

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5
Q

In the two step weaning process what is used to stop calves sucking mothers?

A

anti-suckling device

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6
Q

What does the second stage of the two-step weaning process involve?

A

separating the cow and calf

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7
Q

What are 3 benefits of the two step weaning process to the calf?

A

Calves spent more time eating
Calves vocalise less
Calves walk less

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8
Q

What are two ways of separating a cow and calf in a modified weaning technique?

A

solid wall

fence-line

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9
Q

What technique of separation has been shown to reduce stress at weaning for calves?

A

fence-line

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10
Q

What is the minimum legal requirement for the number of times calves must be fed a day?

A

2

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11
Q

What are the 2 reasons why calves are underfed milk?

A

underfeeding encourages early intake of solid food

solid food is cheaper than milk replacer

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12
Q

What behaviour can bucket-feeding calves promote?

A

re-directed sucking behaviour

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13
Q

How long can re-directed sucking behaviour last for?

A

until adulthood

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14
Q

Why is fibre required in a calves diet?

A

to increase the rumen size

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15
Q

What two things are veal calves deficient in?

A

Iron

fibre

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16
Q

Are veal crates legal in the UK?

A

no

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17
Q

From what age must calves be in a pen with other calves?

A

8 weeks

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18
Q

What 3 welfare problems does individual housing of calves cause?

A

increased stress
reduced feed intake
learning deficiency

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19
Q

What legislation states the age after which calves must be housed together?

A

Welfare and Farm Animal Regulation

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20
Q

From what age must calves have drinking water?

A

2 weeks

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21
Q

What can larger udders predispose to?

A

solar ulcers

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22
Q

What is the term to describe the milk machine slipping of a teat due to poor conformation?

A

liner slip

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23
Q

What can liner slip predispose to?

A

mastitis

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24
Q

What can breeding for ‘double muscling’ cause in the cow?

A

dystocia

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25
Q

What is a proxy for metabolism?

A

heat output

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26
Q

What percentage of UK dairy cows are lame?

A

40%

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27
Q

What is the main reason for culling cows in the UK?

A

infertility

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28
Q

What percentage of UK dairy cows have mastitis?

A

40%

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29
Q

Are the heritability of reproductive and health traits in dairy cattle high or low?

A

low

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30
Q

What breeding scheme incorporates reproductive and health traits into its scheme?

A

Scandinavian breeding scheme

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31
Q

What two conditions in dairy cows have a higher prevalence in winter?

A

mastitis

laminitis

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32
Q

What type of mastitis used to be the most prevalent?

A

contagious mastitis

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33
Q

Why has there been an increase in environmental mastitis?

A

because of intensive housing

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34
Q

What are 3 factors associated with increased environmental mastitis?

A

increased cubicle use
poor cubicle design
poor cubicle management

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35
Q

What bacteria is associated with digital dermatitis?

A

Treponema

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36
Q

What is digital dermatitis associated with?

A

cows standing in slurry for long periods of time

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37
Q

What is the term for cows standing half in and half out of cubicles?

A

perching

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38
Q

What does cows standing half in and half out of a cubicle predispose to?

A

solar ulcers

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39
Q

What bacteria is the cause of the most common type of lameness in cattle?

A

Fusobacterium necrophorum

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40
Q

What about straw yards predisposes to lameness?

A

poor quality straw damaging interdigital skin

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41
Q

What disease can stony paths predispose cattle to?

A

white line disease

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42
Q

What are 3 alternatives to stony paths?

A

wood chip
recycled astroturf
stabilised soil

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43
Q

Are tethers in tie in stalls allowed in the UK?

A

no

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44
Q

What is a stereotypy shown in cows in tie in stalls?

A

tongue rolling

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45
Q

Does grazing behaviour increase or decrease milk production?

A

increase

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46
Q

What are four mutilations associated with cattle?

A

branding
castration
dehorning
tail docking

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47
Q

From what age must calves been given a source of fibre?

A

2 weeks

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48
Q

Is hot iron branding allowed in the UK?

A

no

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49
Q

What are the two branding methods?

A

hot-iron branding

freeze-branding

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50
Q

What are 3 alternatives to branding?

A

microchipping
electronic ID tags
retinal scanning

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51
Q

What tags can be used for cattle?

A

Radiofrequency Identification tag

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52
Q

Before what age should bull calves be slaughtered to avoid aggression?

A

18 months

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53
Q

What is a requirement around hot iron disbudding in the UK?

A

local anaesthetic must be used

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54
Q

What advantages of using analgesics and anaesthetics in disbudding have been shown by studies?

A

improved live weight gain

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55
Q

What is the name of the allele which causes no horns?

A

polled gene

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56
Q

What is a negative effect of breeding cattle for no horns?

A

decreased productivity

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57
Q

Is tail docking of cattle allowed in the UK?

A

no

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58
Q

What is the largest variable cost in milk production?

A

nutrition

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59
Q

What are the three types of dairy system?

A

cows at grass
composite system
high output system

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60
Q

Which system used in the UK has the lowest output?

A

cows at grass

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61
Q

What four metabolites can be measured in the blood as a diagnostic tool for assessing nutritional status?

A

urea
beta-hydroxybutyrate
glucose
NEFA

62
Q

What is the biggest nutritional problem in underperforming cattle?

A

poor food intake

63
Q

What are the 5 intake factors in order of importance?

A 
feed intake
energy intake
protein intake
water intake
mineral and vitamin intake
64
Q

What is the target BCS of a cow at calving?

A

3

65
Q

What is the target BCS of a cow at peak yield?

A

2-2.5

66
Q

What is the target BCS of a cow at drying off?

A

2.75-3

67
Q

Why is maintaining BCS throughout the cow cycle not possible?

A

because at peak lactation the energy demands outweighs the food intake- negative energy balance

68
Q

What is a clinical sign of ketosis?

A

milk having a ‘pear drop’ smell

69
Q

What should be the DMI of a cow not in calf?

A

3%

70
Q

What should the DMI of a lactating cow be?

A

2.5% +10% of milk yield in kg

71
Q

Why is a negative energy balance caused in dairy cows at peak lactation?

A

because there is a delay between the milk yield increasing and the DMI increasing

72
Q

When in lactation are most clinical problems seen?

A

early in lactation

73
Q

What are 7 clinical problems associated with negative energy balance?

A 
retained fetal membranes 
milk fever
metritis
LDA
ketosis 
lameness
mastitis
74
Q

During what stage of pregnancy does energy requirements increase?

A

during the last 3rd

75
Q

What is the main effect of weight loss during early lactation?

A

fertility problems

76
Q

How is maintenance energy calculated?

A

maintenance + 20l

77
Q

What is the term given to the energy which is available for gut microbes?

A

Fermentable Metabolisable Energy

78
Q

What are two examples of quick fermentable energy?

A

starch

sugar

79
Q

What are two examples of slowly fermentable energy?

A

cellulose

hemicellulose

80
Q

If there is too much quick fermentable energy in the diet what can be overproduced in the rumen?

A

lactic acid

81
Q

What is the QFE needed for?

A

to supply microbes with energy for protein synthesis

82
Q

What kind of starch is able to by-pass ruminal degradation?

A

maize starch

83
Q

Are fats degraded in the rumen or small intestine?

A

small intestine

84
Q

What are the two aspects to protein?

A

Digestible Undegradable Protein

Effective Rumen Degradable Protein

85
Q

What kind of protein is available to the cow?

A

DUP

86
Q

What bacteria is associated with reducing the nutritional value of silage if secondary fermentation is occuring?

A

Clostridia

87
Q

What substance is formed in secondary fermentation of silage?

A

butyric acid

88
Q

What is able to reduce the palatability of silage?

A

mould

89
Q

What is the term for leakage of silage clamp contents from the silage clamp?

A

silage effluence

90
Q

What can reduce the risk of silage effluent?

A

not ensiling in the rain

91
Q

Which regions of the UK are the wettest?

A

west

92
Q

In which regions of the UK is silage made?

A

west

93
Q

How should slurry be spread on the land to reduce environmental impact of this?

A

injected into soil rather than vaporised

94
Q

How should slurry be treated before it is spread on land to reduce the biological oxygen demand?

A

it should be aerated

95
Q

What is the pH of good quality silage?

A

4

96
Q

What metabolite in the TCA cycle do ketones originate from?

A

Acetyl CoA

97
Q

What does low milk proteins reflect about a cows health?

A

reflects long term poor energy status

98
Q

Where do the majority of milk proteins come from?

A

microbial proteins

99
Q

What is the problem with increasing concentrates in the diet to increase energy intake?

A

could cause ruminal acidosis

100
Q

What 3 cattle feeds have increased FME?

A

second cut silage (more palatable)
bale silage
brewers grain

101
Q

What 3 foods could be given to cattle to increase energy intake?

A

concentrates
maize starch
TMR

102
Q

What FFA is produced more with more fibre?

A

acetate

103
Q

What FFA is produced more with more concentrates?

A

propionate

104
Q

What gas is produced more with a high fibre diet?

A

methane

105
Q

What are three conditions which can cause lameness in cattle?

A

white line disease
laminitis
solar ulcers

106
Q

What does a hybrid feeding system involve?

A

feeding TMR in cubicles and concentrates in the parlour

107
Q

What are two things cows do which indicates digestive problems?

A

swishing tails

dropping cud

108
Q

What percentage of cows should be using cubicles 1-2 hours post milking?

A

80-90%

109
Q

What percentage of resting cows should be ruminating?

A

60%

110
Q

What is the term for the number of times a cow should chew the cud before swallowing?

A

cud rate

111
Q

What should the cud rate be?

A

50-80

112
Q

Does a concave or convex para lumbar fossa indicate a full rumen and good rumen function?

A

concave

113
Q

What should the rumen pH be if the cow is fed on concentrates?

A

5.5-6.5

114
Q

What should the rumen pH be if the cow is mainly fed on roughage?

A

6-7

115
Q

What rumen transit time is indicated by stiff faeces?

A

slow transit time (3-4 days)

116
Q

What is the problem with slow rumen transit times?

A

reduced DMI because of the physical fill of the rumen

117
Q

What rumen transit time is indicated by loose faeces?

A

rapid transit time

118
Q

What kind of diets are associated with loose faeces?

A

low fibre diets

119
Q

Which two places does the site of fermentation in a cow fed on low fibre shift to?

A

caecum

colon

120
Q

Why could faeces become harder with low fibre?

A

shift in fermentation to caecum and colon causes decrease in colon pH killing the flora here, stopping fermentation and causing harder faeces

121
Q

What are the two features are being looked at when faeces are sampled?

A

fibre length

presence of undigested food

122
Q

What two things does undigested grain and long fibre in faeces suggest?

A

disturbed rumen fermentation

poor preparation technique e.g. not cracking maize grains open

123
Q

What percentage of ad lib ration should be left over at the end of each day?

A

5-10%

124
Q

What is the term to describe cows avoiding long fibre and picking out smaller higher energy particles?

A

sorting the ration

125
Q

What should be done to prevent cows sorting the ration?

A

well mixed TMR

126
Q

Why is chewing the cud important?

A

adds saliva to the food to lower rumen pH and keep it optimum

127
Q

Which VFF is used by the mammary glands to produce milk fat?

A

acetate

128
Q

Which FFA is used by the liver to produce glucose?

A

proprionate

129
Q

What two things does increasing glucose production in the liver do to the milk?

A

increases yield

increases protein level

130
Q

What three things does neutral detergent fibre assessment measure?

A

lignin
cellulose
hemicellulose

131
Q

What does the neutral detergent fibre test correlate with?

A

DMI

132
Q

What two things does the acid detergent fibre assessment measure?

A

cellulose

lignin

133
Q

What does the acid detergent fibre assessment correlate with?

A

digestibility

134
Q

What two things about the quality of fibre does the neutral detergent factor not show?

A

whether the fibre will stimulate rumination

whether the physical form (ie fibre length is right)

135
Q

What is scratch factor?

A

a measure of the physically effective Neutral Detergent Fibre

136
Q

Is fibre with a shorter or longer chop length easier to process by a forage harvester and in the silage clamp?

A

shorter

137
Q

What device can be used to assess effective long fibre practically?

A

Penn State Forage Particle Separator

138
Q

How many screens are in the Penn State Forage Particle Separator?

A

3

139
Q

What percentage of fibre should be in the top sieve of the Penn State Forage Particle Separator?

A

8-10%

140
Q

What percentage of fibre should be in the middle sieve of the Penn State Forage Particle Separator?

A

30-50%

141
Q

What percentage of fibre should be in the bottom sieve of the Penn State Forage Particle Separator?

A

40-60%

142
Q

What does a cud rate <50 show about the chop length of fibre?

A

it is too small

143
Q

What does a cud rate of >80 show about fibre?

A

there is too much fibre

144
Q

What are the two effects on the rumen of decreased rumen pH?

A

decreased carbohydrate digestion

lower pH favours lactic acid producing bacteria

145
Q

What can the rumen not absorb if the papillae have not properly developed?

A

VFA

146
Q

What is the main cause of sub-acute ruminal acidosis?

A

the rumen is not developed and papillae have not formed when the cows in early lactation were move to the calving diet

147
Q

What are five ways of reducing the risk of sub-acute ruminal acidosis?

A

Acclimatise the dry cow rumen flora and papillae to lactation cow ration
Reduce quantity of concentrates fed at one time
Spread concentrate load throughout the day
Increasing buffering of rumen
Change rumen flora or add yeast to the diet

148
Q

How long before calving should a transition diet be fed?

A

3-4 weeks

149
Q

Below what pH does subacute ruminal acidosis start?

A

5.5

150
Q

What is the problem with adding hay to the diet to increase saliva and improve rumen pH?

A

it increases physical fill and reduces DMI

151
Q

How does yeast stimulate proliferation and activity of fibre digesting and lactic acid utilising bacteria?

A

by reducing oxygen

152
Q

What can be used to monitor real time the pH of the rumen?

A

sensors in the rumen

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