Lecture 20-22 Flashcards

1
Q

What legal document is ownership of a horse listed on?

A

passport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Is a horse legally required to be microchipped?

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Who is allowed to enter a property without invitation?

A

police

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which two people can issue an improvement notice?

A

police

local authority

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What makes up most of a wild horses diet?

A

forage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the usual grass content of a horses diet?

A

80%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

For how many hours a day are horses outside on average in the UK in summer?

A

13-16hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

For how many hours a day are horses outside on average in the UK in winter?

A

9-12hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Is isolation more stressful in older or younger animals?

A

younger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What two precautions can be taken to reduce worm burdens in horses?

A

skipping out fields

low stocking density

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Does a horse need to lie down in a stable?

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the four most commonly seen stereotypic behaviours seen in horses?

A

crib biting
weaving
door banging
box walking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What stereotypic behaviour is seen particularly in stallions?

A

self mutilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What feed has been associated with crib biting?

A

high concentrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is a sign on a horse of crib biting?

A

worn down incisors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What pathology has crib biting been associated with?

A

gastric ulcers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What neurotransmitter has crib biting been shown to release?

A

dopamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What device has been used to try stop crib biting?

A

crib collars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the best way to reduce crib biting?

A

enrichment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which horses should not be given mirrors to reduce crib biting?

A

stallions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What condition is an obese horse more likely to get?

A

laminitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What should the DMI of an overweight horse be in dry hay and balancer?

A

1.5% BW

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What problem can arise from using ear twitches?

A

makes the animal head shy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which people have the highest risk of work related injuries in the UK?

A

equine horses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are option for chemical restraint of horses?

A

ACP

alpha-2 gel in the mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What kind of training can aid with needle phobic horses?

A

clicker training

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is an indicator of eye pain in a horse?

A

blepharospasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is an indicator of dental pain in horses?

A

increased masseter muscle tension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Why do horses need to be able to lower their heads?

A

to reduce muco-ciliary build up in their trachea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are three problems horses which travel long distances are at increased risk of?

A

respiratory disease
myopathy
colic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Do horses able to balance better if they travel forwards or backwards?

A

backwards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the three ways horses can be trained to accept a frightening stimulus?

A

habituation
desensitisation
counter-conditioning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What does habituation involve?

A

exposing horses to a full stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What does counter-conditioning involve?

A

training to associate a frightening stimulus with a positive experience

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What does desentitisation involve?

A

gradual introduction of a stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is an example of desensitisation?

A

gradually increasing clipper noise volume around horses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the name for hyperflexion of a horses neck during dressage?

A

rollkur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Does the FEI allow rollkur?

A

no (not really sure)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What spacing should there be between a noseband and nose?

A

two finger space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

When is it acceptable to use physiotherapy or acupuncturists for horses?

A

Once the vet has made a diagnosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the conditions for ‘humane destruction’ of a horse to meet insurance criteria?

A

‘incurable or excessive pain’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the two ways horses can be put down?

A

injection

free bullet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

In what situation can potassium chloride be used to put a horse down?

A

when the horse is under GA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Do domestic or wild horses have a longer life-span?

A

domestic horses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Do wild horses eat tree bark?

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

How will wild horses access trace minerals?

A

eating soil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Is mastication more efficient in horses or ruminants?

A

horses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What proportion of hay is <1mm in length by the time it reaches the stomach?

A

2/3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

How many chews/kg of long hay is needed?

A

3000-35000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

How many chews/kg of concentrates is needed?

A

800-1200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the stomach capacity of a horse?

A

5-15l

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Do concentrates or roughage pass through the stomach quicker?

A

concentrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

In what 2 places does enzymatic digestion of food carbohydrates, fats and protein take place?

A

duodenum

jejunum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What are the 2 sites of fermentation?

A

caecum

colon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are VFA used for in a horse?

A

energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What two things can VFA be converted to in a horse?

A

glucose

fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

How many meals per day will horses naturally eat?

A

10

58
Q

What are 3 behaviours seem associated with boredom and motivation to feed outside meal time?

A

wood chewing
coprophagy
eating bedding

59
Q

What behaviour is often seen as a precursor to crib biting?

A

wood chewing

60
Q

What food has been associated with ‘fizzy horses’?

A

oats

61
Q

What are two benefits to feeding horses which require high energy on oil and fibre rather than concentrates?

A

increases satiety

reduces acid load

62
Q

What three problems are using hay nets linked with?

A

injury
dental disease
respiratory disease

63
Q

What laboratory test is most useful in a horse to assess feeding program?

A

protein-albumin

64
Q

What is 6 situations when protein albumin could be low in a horse?

A
inflammation 
liver disease
protein losing enteropathy
protein losing nephropathy 
parasitism 
blood loss
65
Q

What percentage of body weight should horses receive in forage each day?

A

1.5-2%

66
Q

What percentage of body weight should horses receive in food each day?

A

2-3%

67
Q

What three parts of a horse should be focused on during palpation for BCS?

A

neck
ribs
hindquarters

68
Q

What two things should body condition scoring be carried out in conjunction with?

A

crest scoring

body weight

69
Q

What is the range of values in the Carter et al crest scoring system?

A

0-5

70
Q

What is the equation for calculating body weight?

A

BW= (girth cm)2 * length cm/11800

71
Q

When does energy of diet need to be increased during pregnancy?

A

last 90 days

72
Q

By how much does maintenance energy have to be increased for months 9, 10 and 11 of pregnancy?

A
  1. 11
  2. 13
  3. 2
73
Q

What is maintenance energy?

A

33.3kcal/kg

74
Q

What is the maintenance energy of a lactating horse?

A

792kcal/kg

75
Q

By what factor should maintenance energy be increased for a high work horse?

A

1.9

76
Q

By what factor should maintenance energy be increased for a pleasure horse?

A

1.2

77
Q

By what factor should maintenance energy be increased for a performance horse?

A

1.4

78
Q

In what two foods is protein usually found?

A

forage

concentrates

79
Q

What percentage of the total ration should protein be in a growing horse?

A

14-16%

80
Q

What percentage of the total ration should protein be in a mature? horse?

A

8-10%

81
Q

What percentage of the total ration should protein be in a geriatric horse?

A

14-16%

82
Q

What are the two most useful amino acids for building lean muscle?

A

lysine

leucine

83
Q

What are two proteins often in supplements but not usually of any benefit?

A

creatinine

spirulina

84
Q

For what 2 groups of horses is a diet high in oil good for?

A

older horses

horses in high levels of work

85
Q

What food has gastric ulcers been linked to?

A

starch

86
Q

What kind of faeces can a diet high in fat cause?

A

loose faeces

87
Q

What vitamin needs to be supplemented if the fat content of a diet is increased?

A

vitamin E

88
Q

What oil is best for horses?

A

linseed

89
Q

What four oils should be avoided?

A

corn oil
oat oil
wheat oil
soya oil

90
Q

What two characteristics of oil are not good for horses?

A

high omega 6

low omega 3

91
Q

What is the minimum amount of water a sedentary horse requires per day?

A

5L/100kg

92
Q

How much water does a lactating mare need per day?

A

12-14L/day

93
Q

What does decreased water consumption predispose to?

A

impaction colic

94
Q

What three groups of horses need the greatest levels of calcium and phosphorous?

A

growth
last third of pregnancy
lactation

95
Q

What is the Ca:P ratio horses need?

A

1.5:1

96
Q

For what problem should Ca be decreased?

A

decreased renal function

97
Q

What is meant by ‘nutritional wisdom’?

A

horses will seek out the salt they need

98
Q

What ion is lost in sweat?

A

potassium

99
Q

Does iron need to be supplemented?

A

no

100
Q

Is over supplementation of iron toxic?

A

yes

101
Q

What are two conditions obese horses are predisposed to?

A

Equine metabolic syndrome

laminitis

102
Q

What percentage of BW should an obese horse be given as DMI per day?

A

1.25%

103
Q

Why should the DMI not be reduced furhter?

A

predisposes to hyperlipidaemia

104
Q

What kind of grazing is advised for horses which need to lose weight?

A

zero grazing

105
Q

What drug can help weight loss?

A

Metformin

106
Q

What is the most common health problem for geriatric horses?

A

weight loss

107
Q

What should a geriatric diet be high in?

A

crude protein

108
Q

Why should geriatric horses not be fed legumes?

A

they are high in calcium

109
Q

What two vitamins should be supplemented in geriatric horses?

A
vitamin C
vitamin E (if oil added to the diet)
110
Q

Can horses cope with incisors missing?

A

yes

111
Q

What are two foods which can be fed to horses with severe dental disease?

A

hay pellets

soaked sugar beets

112
Q

What vitamin should horses with dental disease be supplemented with?

A

vitamin E

113
Q

What condition are horses with PPID prone to?

A

laminitis

114
Q

What are three signs of PPID?

A

pot belly
PU/PD
excessive sweating

115
Q

What drug is used to treat PPID?

A

pergolide

116
Q

What is lower in grass in the early morning and at night?

A

fructans

117
Q

What increases fructans in the grass which should be avoided?

A

frost

118
Q

What are two characteristics of the food horses with PPID should be fed?

A

low starch

high calorie

119
Q

Are thin PPID at risk of laminitis?

A

yes

120
Q

How should hay and forage be treated in thin PPID horses?

A

soaked for several hours

121
Q

What is the main characteristic of EMS?

A

insulin resistance with insulinaemia

122
Q

What are two characteristics of the food thin EMS horses should be given?

A

low starch

high calorie

123
Q

Which should be two characteristics of the diet of horses with liver disease?

A

high carbohydrates

low protein

124
Q

Why do horses with liver disease need higher carbohydrates in their diet?

A

because the liver has reduced gluconeogenic capacity

125
Q

What are three carbohydrate rich foods horses with liver disease should be fed on?

A

molassed beet pulp
corn
wheat bran

126
Q

Should fats be increased or decreased in liver disease?

A

decreased

127
Q

What supplements should be avoided in liver disease?

A

iron

128
Q

What are two subtypes of rabdomyolysis disorder?

A

Recurrent exertional rhabdomyolysis

Polysaccharide storage myopathy

129
Q

What is Recurrent exertional rhabdomyolysis caused by?

A

muscle damage caused by sporadic over training

130
Q

How is Recurrent exertional rhabdomyolysis diagnosed?

A

muscle biopsy

131
Q

How should the diet of a horse with Recurrent exertional rhabdomyolysis be changed (two ways)?

A

increase fat

decrease starch

132
Q

How should the diet of a horse with Polysaccharide storage myopathy be changed (two ways)?

A

high fibre

low starch

133
Q

Should a horse with Polysaccharide storage myopathy have regular exercies?

A

yes

134
Q

What should oestoarthritis mainly be treated with?

A

intra-articular steroids

135
Q

What are two common oesteoarthritis neutraceuticals?

A

glucosamine

chondriotin

136
Q

What may be helpful in treating oesteoarthritis?

A

omega 3 PUFA

137
Q

Are neutraceuticals for osteoarthritis proven to be useful?

A

no

138
Q

Do neutraceuticals have to meet legal requirements?

A

no

139
Q

What three problems are alterations in microbiota associated with?

A

colitis
colic
laminitis

140
Q

Is turmeric scientifically recommended?

A

no

141
Q

What is the most useful calmer potentially in horses?

A

magnesium

142
Q

What calmer is banned under FEI regulations?

A

valerian