lecture exam 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Three different pressures are important to breathing

A

atmospheric pressure

intrapulmonary pressure (pressure in the alveoli)

intrapleural pressure (pressure in the pleural cavity between the lung and the thoracic wall)

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2
Q

atmospheric pressure is ______ mmHg

A

760

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3
Q

intrapulmonary pressure is the pressure in the ______

A

alveoli

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4
Q

intrapleural pressure pressure in the _______ between the lung and the thoracic wall

A

pleural cavity

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5
Q

intrapleural pressure should always be __ mmHg less than intrapulmonary pressure

A

4

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6
Q

sucking pressure that holds lungs open or glued to the walls of the chest cavity

A

intrapleural pressure

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7
Q

the flow of air along a pressure gradient is dependent upon the_________ of the airways

A

resistance

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8
Q

parasympathetic stimulation _______ resistance of the smooth muscle of the airways:

A

increases

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9
Q

parasympathetic contraction in the lungs =

A

bronchoconstriction

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10
Q

sympathetic stimulation _______ resistance of the smooth muscle of the airways:

A

decreases

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11
Q

the flow of air along a _________ is dependent upon the resistance of the airways

A

pressure gradient

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12
Q

parasympathetic stimulation increases resistance of the _________ of the airways:

A

smooth muscle

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13
Q

sympathetic stimulation relaxation in the lungs =

A

bronchodilation

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14
Q

diseases such as _________, ___________ & ________ can also increase resistance in the airway

A

asthma, chronic bronchitis and obstructive emphysema

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15
Q

COPD stands for

A

chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

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16
Q

how stretchable the lungs are as they fill with air

A

Compliance:

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17
Q

diseases such as asthma, chronic bronchitis and obstructive emphysema can also increase ________

A

resistance

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18
Q

COPD is a combination or _________ & ___________

A

chronic bronchitis + obstructive emphysema

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19
Q

airway surface tension is decreased by the secretion of ____________ by alveolar cells

A

pulmonary surfactant

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20
Q

degree of compliance in the lungs is due to _____ of connective tissue in the lung

A

elasticity

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21
Q

degree of lung compliance is due to _______ tension

A

surface tension

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22
Q

degree of lung compliance is due to __________ tension caused by water within the alveoli

A

alveolar surface tension

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23
Q

The concentrations of O2 and CO2 are measured as_______

A

partial pressures.

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24
Q

O2 enters and CO2 leaves the blood along________________

A

partial pressure gradients

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25
Q

degree of lung compliance is due to:elasticity of ________ in the lung

A

connective tissue

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26
Q

degree of lung compliance is due to alveolar surface tension caused by water within the _______

A

alveoli

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27
Q

The concentrations of____ & __ are measured as partial pressures

A

O2 and CO2

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28
Q

_____ enters and ___ leaves the blood along partial pressure gradients

A

O2 enters and CO2 leaves

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29
Q

although carbon dioxide has a lower partial pressure gradient it is __ times more soluble in______ than oxygen

A

20, plasma

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30
Q

carbon dioxide diffuses in equal amounts with _______

A

oxygen

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31
Q

although carbon dioxide has a lower partial pressure gradient it is 20 times more soluble in ________ than _______

A

plasma than oxygen

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32
Q

most oxygen is bound to hemoglobin as ___________ and small amounts dissolve in the ______

A

oxyhemoglobin, plasma

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33
Q

gas transport is transport of ____ in the blood

A

O2

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34
Q

although carbon dioxide has a lower partial pressure gradient it is 20 times more _______ in plasma than oxygen

A

soluble

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35
Q

hemoglobin releases O2 or has CO2 bind to it when temperature is ____ & CO2 levels are _____

A

warm, high

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36
Q

Changes in the affinity of hemoglobin for O2 means

A

(how well O2 sticks to hemoglobin)

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37
Q

carbon dioxide is transported in the blood in three forms

dissolved in ____

chemically bound to_____

__________ ion in plasma

A

dissolved in plasma

chemically bound to hemoglobin

bicarbonate ion in plasma

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38
Q

CO2 transport dissolved in plasma:_____%

A

7-10

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39
Q

CO2 transport chemically bound to hemoglobin: _____% is carried in RBCs as _____________

A

20-23, carbaminohemoglobin

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40
Q

CO2 transport bicarbonate ion in plasma:___% is transported as _____________ (HCO3–)

A

70, bicarbonate ion

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41
Q

CO2 acts as an important__________ regulator in the blood

A

pH regulator

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42
Q

too much CO2 (hypercapnia) = blood becomes more______

A

acidic

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43
Q

too much CO2 is called

A

hypercapnia

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44
Q

too little CO2 (hypocapnia) = blood becomes more_____

A

basic

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45
Q

pH in respiratory system below 7.35

A

(respiratory acidosis)

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46
Q

pH in respiratory system above 7.45

A

(respiratory alkalosis)

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47
Q

too little CO2 is called

A

hypocapnia

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48
Q

respiration is regulated by the body in PO2 and PCO2 are monitored by ________ in the medulla oblongata, the carotid arteries and the aorta

A

chemoreceptors

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49
Q

PO2 and PCO2 are monitored by chemoreceptors in the medulla oblongata, the________ & _________

A

carotid arteries and the aorta

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50
Q

Arterial PCO2 plays the primary role in regulating ___________

A

minute by minute respiration

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51
Q

an increase in arterial__ concentration can trigger an increase in _________ even if the H+ is not from carbonic acid some other causes are ___ & fat _______

A

H+, respiration

protein n fat metabolism

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52
Q

Increased respiration due to low oxygen levels is called

A

hypoxic drive.

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53
Q

arterial PO2 (this is secondary in importance to PCO2) must fall by more than____% to trigger an _______ in respiration

A

40, increase

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54
Q

an increase in arterial H+ concentration can trigger an _____ in respiration even if the H+ is not from ______

A

increase, carbonic acid

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55
Q

P(partial pressure) CO2 increases H+ concentration _______

A

increases

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56
Q

P(partial pressure) CO2 increase pH __________

A

decreases

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57
Q

P(partial pressure) CO2 increase breathing rate _______

A

increases

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58
Q

P(partial pressure) CO2 decreases H+ concentration _____

A

decreases

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59
Q

P(partial pressure) CO2 decreases pH _____

A

increases

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60
Q

P(partial pressure) CO2 decreases breathing rate _____

A

decreases

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61
Q

central chemoreceptors in the brainstem only detect ___ and not ___

A

CO2 and not O2

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62
Q

peripherial chemoreceptors detect_____&______ (aorta, carotid sinus)

A

CO2 and O2

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63
Q

regardless of the source, any additional acid _______ and _______ breathing

A

increases and changes

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64
Q

how deep your breath is

A

magnitude

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65
Q

_________ in the brainstem only detect CO2 and not O2

A

central chemoreceptors

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66
Q

urine should be ______ only

A

trash

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67
Q

________ detect CO2 and O2 (aorta, carotid sinus)

A

peripherial chemoreceptors

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68
Q

waste removal from sterile body cells

A

excretion

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69
Q

fenestrated capillary bed have ______ like swiss cheese

A

holes

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70
Q

kidney tubules are __ cell thick

A

1

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71
Q

glomerular capillaries are about __ mmHg

A

55

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72
Q

any fluid squeezed out of the blood is in the __________

A

bowmans capsule

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73
Q

_______ & ________ are excretion of urinary system

A

urine and sweat

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74
Q

______ of the blood is filtered by kidney

A

plasma

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75
Q

_______ activity (increased cellular respiration within skeletal muscle cells)

A

increased activity

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76
Q

__________ activity (decreased cellular respiration within skeletal muscle cells)

A

decreased activity

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77
Q

increased activity (increased cellular respiration within skeletal muscle cells) ______ rate to keep O2 and CO2 levels constant

A

increases

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78
Q

decreased activity (decreased cellular respiration within skeletal muscle cells) ______ rate to keep O2 and CO2 levels constant

A

decrease

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79
Q

the urinary system filters ___ liters of blood daily, removing ____, ______ wastes, excess______ etc.

A

200, toxins, metabolic, ions

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80
Q

increased activity (increased cellular respiration within skeletal muscle cells) ______ magnitude to keep O2 and CO2 levels constant

A

increases

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81
Q

decreased activity (decreased cellular respiration within skeletal muscle cells) ______ magnitude to keep O2 and CO2 levels constant

A

decrease

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82
Q

filters 200 liters of blood daily, removing toxins, metabolic wastes, excess ions, etc.

A

the urinary system

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83
Q

increased activity (increased cellular respiration within skeletal muscle cells) increase magnitude and rate to keep _____ & _____ levels constant

A

O2 and CO2 levels constant

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84
Q

decreased activity (decreased cellular respiration within skeletal muscle cells) decreasd rate and magnitude to keep ______& _______ levels constant

A

O2 and CO2

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85
Q

the urinary system regulates ______ (BP) and ______ of the blood

A

volume, chemical makeup

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86
Q

regulates volume (BP) and chemical makeup of the blood

A

the urinary system

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87
Q

maintains the proper balance between water and salts, and acids and bases

A

the urinary system

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88
Q

production of____ to help increase blood pressure and erythropoietin to stimulate RBC production

A

renin

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89
Q

_______ during prolonged fasting is another renal function

A

gluconeogenesis

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90
Q

activation of vitamin __ is another important renal function

A

D

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91
Q

the urinary system maintains the proper balance between______& ______, ______&________

A

water and salts, and acids and bases

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92
Q

important system for excretion

A

the urinary system

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93
Q

production of renin to help increase________& ________ to stimulate RBC production

A

blood pressure and erythropoietin

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94
Q

production of renin to help increase blood pressure and erythropoietin to stimulate_________

A

RBC production

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95
Q

every nephron has ___ fenestrated capillary beds

A

two

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96
Q

every nephron has two fenestrated capillary beds, what are they?

A

glomerulus, peritubular capillaries

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97
Q

each glomerulus capillary bed is fed by an _______ arteriole drained by an ________ arteriole

A

afferent, efferent

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98
Q

each glomerulus is ________ by an efferent arteriole

A

drained

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99
Q

is blood pressure in the glomerulus high?

A

yes

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100
Q

each glomerulus is____ by an afferent arteriole

A

fed

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101
Q

blood pressure in the glomerulus is high because ________ are high-resistance vessels

A

arterioles

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102
Q

each ________ is fed by an afferent arteriole

A

glomerulus

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103
Q

blood pressure in the glomerulus is high because_______ arterioles have_______ diameters than ______ arterioles

A

afferent, larger, efferent

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104
Q

each glomerulus is drained by an ________ arteriole

A

efferent

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105
Q

blood pressure in the glomerulus is high because afferent arterioles have larger _______ than efferent arteriole

A

diameters

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106
Q

each________ is drained by an efferent arteriole

A

glomerulus

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107
Q

blood pressure in the glomerulus is high because arterioles are ____________ vessels

A

high-resistance

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108
Q

_________&______ are forced out of the blood throughout the entire length of the glomerulus

A

fluids and solutes

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109
Q

afferent and efferent arterioles offer______ resistance to blood flow

A

high

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110
Q

_____ declines from ~95mm Hg in renal arteries to ~8 mm Hg in renal veins

A

blood pressure

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111
Q

: filtration of blood plasma by the glomerular capillaries

A

glomerular filtration

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112
Q

fluids and solutes are forced out of the_______ throughout the entire length of the glomerulus

A

blood

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113
Q

afferent and efferent arterioles offer high resistance to _________

A

blood flow

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114
Q

blood pressure declines from ____mm Hg in renal arteries to____ mm Hg in renal veins

A

~95, ~8

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115
Q

filtrate is similar to_______ but lacks large______ (albumin maintains osmotic pressure of the blood)

A

blood plasma, proteins

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116
Q

fluids and solutes are forced out of the blood throughout the entire length of the _________

A

glomerulus

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117
Q

afferent and efferent _______ offer high resistance to blood flow

A

arterioles

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118
Q

blood pressure declines from ~95mm Hg in _______ to ~8 mm Hg in ______

A

renal arteries, renal veins

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119
Q

______ is similar to blood plasma but lacks large proteins (albumin maintains osmotic pressure of the blood)

A

filtrate

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120
Q

approximately ______% of the plasma passes through the filtration membrane and into the glomerular capsule (Bowman’s capsule)

A

20

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121
Q

approximately___% of the plasma, blood cells and platelets remain in the glomerular capillaries and circulate through the efferent arteriole and peritubular capillaries

A

80

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122
Q

changes in glomerular filtration rate (filtrate formed per minute) normally result from changes in__________

A

glomerular blood pressure

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123
Q

approximately 20% of the _______passes through the filtration membrane and into the glomerular capsule (Bowman’s capsule)

A

plasma

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124
Q

approximately80% of the _______, _______ & __________ remain in the glomerular capillaries and circulate through the efferent arteriole and peritubular capillaries

A

plasma, blood cells and platelets

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125
Q

changes in ______________ (filtrate formed per minute) normally result from changes in glomerular blood pressure

A

glomerular filtration rate

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126
Q

increased glomerular BP leads to ________ Glomerular Filtration Rate

A

increased

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127
Q

approximately 20% of the plasma passes through the filtration membrane and into the____________

A

glomerular capsule (Bowman’s capsule)

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128
Q

approximately80% of the plasma, blood cells and platelets remain in the __________ and circulate through the efferent arteriole and peritubular capillaries

A

glomerular capillaries

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129
Q

_______ glomerular BP leads to increased Glomerular Filtration Rate

A

increased

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130
Q

GFR is adjusted by the ______________ to ensure proper urine chemistry and volume (which corresponds to proper blood chemistry and volume)

A

juxtaglomerular apparatus

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131
Q

approximately 20% of the plasma passes through the ____________ and into the glomerular capsule (Bowman’s capsule)

A

filtration membrane

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132
Q

approximately80% of the plasma, blood cells and platelets remain in the glomerular capillaries and circulate through the___________ & _____________

A

efferent arteriole and peritubular capillaries

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133
Q

GFR is adjusted by the juxtaglomerular apparatus to ensure proper ____________& _________(which corresponds to proper blood chemistry and volume)

A

urine chemistry and volume

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134
Q

decreased glomerular BP leads to ________ Glomerular Filtration Rate

A

decreased

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135
Q

______ cells are enlarged, smooth muscle cells

A

granular

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136
Q

Juxtaglomerular Apparatus (JGA) consists of ________ cells , ________ cells & __________ cells

A

granular cells, macula densa cells, mesangial cells

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137
Q

granular cells have______ granules containing______

A

secretory , renin

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138
Q

__________ cells are tall, closely packed distal tubule cells

A

macula densa

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139
Q

mesangial cells: have_________&_________ properties

A

phagocytic and contractile

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140
Q

granular cells act as ________ to detect BP

A

mechanoreceptors

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141
Q

_________ cells influence capillary filtration

A

mesangial cells

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142
Q

_______ cells lie adjacent to granular cells

A

macula densa

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143
Q

if the GFR is too high needed substances (nutrients, necessary ions, etc.) cannot be _________ quickly enough and are lost in the _____

A

reabsorbed, urine

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144
Q

three mechanisms control the GFR

renal ___________ (intrinsic system)

___________ controls

_______________ mechanism (the renin-angiotensin system

A

renal autoregulation (intrinsic system)

neural controls

hormonal mechanism (the renin-angiotensin system

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145
Q

macula densa cells function as __________ or ___________ for urine

A

chemoreceptors or osmoreceptors

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146
Q

if the GFR is too low everything is ________ including wastes that are normally disposed of through the _______

A

reabsorbed, urine

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147
Q

under normal conditions, ________________ maintains a nearly constant glomerular filtration rate

A

renal autoregulation

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148
Q

macula densa cells function as chemoreceptors or osmoreceptors for ______

A

urine

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149
Q

autoregulation entails two types of control

A

flow-dependent tubuloglomerular feedback:

myogenic

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150
Q

under normal conditions, renal autoregulation maintains a nearly constant________________

A

glomerular filtration rate

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151
Q

type of autoregulation for GFR : responds to changes in pressure (baroreceptors) in the renal blood vessels

A

myogenic

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152
Q

juxtaglomerular apparatus senses chemistry changes in the filtrate that is transforming into urine

A

flow-dependent tubuloglomerular feedback:

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153
Q

the ___________ that regulates blood pressure can influence filtration rate

A

baroreceptor reflex

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154
Q

when the _________ nervous system is active renal blood vessels are maximally dilated to increase filtration

A

parasympathetic

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155
Q

the sympathetic nervous system also stimulates the ____________ mechanism

A

renin-angiotensin

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156
Q

the baroreceptor reflex that ___________ can influence filtration rate

A

regulates blood pressure

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157
Q

when the parasympahetic nervous system is active renal blood vessels are maximally dilated to___________

A

increase filtration

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158
Q

when the parasympathetic nervous system is active _________ mechanisms prevail

A

autoregulation

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159
Q

the baroreceptor reflex that regulates blood pressure can influence __________

A

filtration rate

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160
Q

when theparasympathetic nervous system is active renal blood vessels are _________ to increase filtration

A

maximally dilated

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161
Q

increased EDV causes the heart to release _________ (ANP) to increase GFR

A

atrial natriuretic peptide

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162
Q

under stress ____________& ______________ are released by the adrenal medulla via the sympathetic nervous system

A

epinephrine and norepinephrine

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163
Q

increased EDV causes the heart to release atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) to_______ GFR

A

increase

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164
Q

under stress afferent arterioles _______ and filtration is_______

A

constrict, inhibited

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165
Q

under stress epinephrine and norepinephrine are released by the _________ via the sympathetic nervous system

A

adrenal medulla

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166
Q

the___________ nervous system also stimulates the renin-angiotensin mechanism

A

sympathetic,

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167
Q

increased EDV causes the heart to release____________ to ________ GFR

A

atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP), increase

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168
Q

the sympathetic nervous system also stimulates the ____________

A

renin-angiotensin mechanism

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169
Q

increased ______ causes the heart to release atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) to increase____

A

EDV, GFR

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170
Q

vasodilator produced by the vascular endothelium

A

nitric oxide:

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171
Q

: a powerful vasoconstrictor secreted by tubule cells

A

endothelin

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172
Q

vasoconstrictor of renal vasculature

A

adenosine:

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173
Q

vasodilators produced in response to sympathetic stimulation and angiotensin II

A

prostaglandins

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174
Q

prostaglandins are thought to prevent _____ damage when peripheral resistance is ______

A

renal, increased

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175
Q

prostaglandins vasodilators produced in response to _____________ stimulation and ________

A

sympathetic, angiotensin II

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176
Q

prostaglandin types

A

PGE2 and PGI2

nitric oxide
adenosine:
endothelin

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177
Q

are thought to prevent renal damage when peripheral resistance is increased

A

prostaglandins

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178
Q

tubular reabsorption: selective body reabsorption of substances such as______, _______ & ________ etc., by the ___________ back to the blood

A

water, amino acids, glucose, kidney tubule

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179
Q

water is reabsorbed by _______; all other substances reabsorbed by________, ______ or _________ transport

A

osmosis, diffusion, passive or active transport

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180
Q

a transepithelial process whereby most tubule contents are returned to the blood

A

tubular reabsorption:

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181
Q

selective body reabsorption of substances such as water, amino acids, glucose, etc., by the kidney tubule back to the blood

A

tubular reabsorption:

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182
Q

in tubular reabsorption transported substances move through _____ membranes

A

three

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183
Q

tubular reabsorption:__________&________ membranes of tubule cells

A

luminal and basolateral

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184
Q

tubular reabsorption: a ________ process whereby most tubule contents are returned to the ______

A

transepithelial, blood

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185
Q

tubular reabsorption: _______& ________capillaries

A

endothelium of peritubular

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186
Q

only Ca2+, Mg2+, K+, and some Na+ are reabsorbed via ________ pathways through _______

A

paracellular, tight junctions

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187
Q

in tubular reabsorption most reabsorption takes place in the ________

A

proximal tubule

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188
Q

in tubular reabsorption all organic________ are reabsorbed

A

nutrients

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189
Q

in tubular reabsorption water and ion reabsorption is _________ controlled

A

hormonally

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190
Q

exists for nearly every substance that is actively reabsorbed

A

a transport maximum (Tm):

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191
Q

in a transport maximum when the specific__________ for that substance are saturated in tubules, excess of that substance is____________

A

protein carriers, excreted in the urine

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192
Q

Na+ is not reabsorbed in the_________ limb of the loop of Henle

A

descending

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193
Q

of the total energy spent by kidneys,____% is used for Na+ transport

A

80

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194
Q

______ follows reabsorbed sodium by osmosis, which has a main effect on__________&_______________

A

water, blood volume and blood pressure

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195
Q

an active____________ pump in ________ membrane is essential for Na+ reabsorption

A

Na+ - K+ ATPase, basolateral

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196
Q

Na+ is actively pumped out of the ______ limb into the interstitial fluid, making it ____________

A

ascending, hypertonic

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197
Q

water is reabsorbed through ______ from the_______ limb

A

osmosis, descending

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198
Q

tubular secretion: rapid removal of_____ (i.e., ammonia, H+ and K+ ions) from blood plasma to the distal tubule for removal through the _______

A

toxins, urine

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199
Q

is a byproduct of protein processing; the liver detoxifies it to form urea, which is filtered out by the kidney

A

ammonia (NH3)

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200
Q

___________ liters excreated per day of urine

A

0.6–2.5

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201
Q

: rapid removal of toxins (i.e., ammonia, H+ and K+ ions) from blood plasma to the distal tubule for removal through the urine

A

tubular secretion

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202
Q

ammonia (NH3) is a byproduct of _____________; the liver detoxifies it to form ______, which is filtered out by the kidney

A

protein processing, urea

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203
Q

give urine the dark amber color

A

urochrome pigment

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204
Q

average pH of urine

A

5.5-6.5

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205
Q

urine is composed of _____,____,____ &_____; very small amounts of _____

A

water, urea, salts & minerals, body cells

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206
Q

cortical nephrons ___% of nephrons

A

85

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207
Q

nephrons produce dilute urine

A

cortical nephrons

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208
Q

what type of nephrons have loops of Henle that deeply invade the medulla

A

juxtamedullary nephrons:

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209
Q

the number of solute particles dissolved in 1L of water

A

osmolality

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210
Q

cortical nephrons located in the ______

A

cortex

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211
Q

what kind of nephrons produce concentrated urine to prevent blood dehydration

A

juxtamedullary nephrons:

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212
Q

osmolality reflects the solution’s ability to cause _________

A

osmosis

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213
Q

body fluids are measured in _____

A

milliosmols (mOsm)

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214
Q

the kidneys keep the solute load of body fluids constant at about ______mOsm accomplished by the____________

A

300, countercurrent mechanism

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215
Q

interaction between the flow of filtrate through the loop of Henle (countercurrent multiplier) and the flow of blood through the vasa recta blood vessels (countercurrent exchanger)

A

Countercurrent Mechanism

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216
Q

the solute concentration in the loop of Henle ranges from ______ mOsm to______ mOsm

A

300, 1200

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217
Q

interaction between the flow of filtrate through the loop of Henle

A

(countercurrent multiplier

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218
Q

dissipation of the medullary osmotic gradient is prevented because the blood in the ______ equilibrates with the ______________

A

vasa recta, interstitial fluid

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219
Q

the flow of blood through the vasa recta blood vessels

A

(countercurrent exchanger)

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220
Q

_______ of the medullary osmotic gradient is prevented because the blood in the vasa recta _________ with the interstitial fluid

A

dissipation, equilibrates

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221
Q

is the descending loop of Henle permeable or impermeable to solutes

A

impermeable

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222
Q

_______ in the deep medullary regions are permeable to urea

A

collecting ducts

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223
Q

is the descending loop of Henle permeable or impermeable to water

A

permeable to water

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224
Q

collecting ducts in the deep medullary regions are permeable to ______

A

urea

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225
Q

is the ascending loop of Henle is permeable or impermeable to solutes

A

permeable

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226
Q

the ______ is a countercurrent exchanger

A

vasa recta

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227
Q

is the ascending loop of Henle permeable or impermeable to water

A

impermeable

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228
Q

the vasa recta is a countercurrent exchanger that maintains the _______ & delivers______ to the cells in the area

A

osmotic gradient, blood

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229
Q

filtrate is diluted in the ________ loop of Henle

A

ascending

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230
Q

is created by allowing this filtrate to continue into the renal pelvis

A

dilute urine

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231
Q

filtrate is _______ in the ascending loop of Henle

A

diluted

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232
Q

in dilute urine collecting ducts remain_________ to water; no further water reabsorption occurs

A

impermeable

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233
Q

dilute urine is created by allowing this filtrate to continue into the ________ as long as ___________ is not being secreted

A

renal pelvis, antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

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234
Q

in dilute urine_______&_______can be removed by active and passive mechanisms

A

sodium and selected ions

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235
Q

urine osmolality can be as low as____ mOsm (one-sixth that of _______)

A

50, plasma

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236
Q

_________ inhibits diuresis

A

antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

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237
Q

in the presence of ADH, up to__% of the water in filtrate is reabsorbed

A

99

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238
Q

antidiuretic hormone (ADH) inhibits diuresis this equalizes the ______of the filtrate and the________

A

osmolality, interstitial fluid

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239
Q

ADH-dependent water reabsorption is called

A

facultative water reabsorption

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240
Q

___________ is the signal to produce concentrated urine

A

ADH

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241
Q

the kidneys’ ability to respond depends upon the

A

high medullary osmotic gradient

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242
Q

Aldosterone from the _________causes_____ reabsorption and corresponding______reabsorption, which increases________ and results in ____________urine.

A

adrenal glands, Na+, water, blood pressure, concentrated (darker)

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243
Q

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH, a.k.a. vasopressin) from the ___________________ acts on the _______ to cause _______ reabsorption* and prevent______dehydration, resulting in ________ urine.

A

pituitary gland neurohypophysis, collecting duct, water, blood, concentrated

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244
Q

_______ inhibits the release of ADH, causing excessive urination and dehydration.

A

Alcohol

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245
Q

top 6 reasons for renal failure

___________ from waste product retention

metabolic _________ (can’t secrete enough H+)

___________ imbalances

loss of ________ proteins – leads to edema of tissues

inability to vary _________________; body fluids can become hypo- or hypertonic

_______________ inadequate erythropoietin production

A

toxicity from waste product retention

metabolic acidosis (can’t secrete enough H+)

electrolyte imbalances

loss of plasma proteins – leads to edema of tissues

inability to vary urine concentration; body fluids can become hypo- or hypertonic

anemia: inadequate erythropoietin production

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246
Q

does too much sodium increase or decrease blood pressure

A

increase

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247
Q

anemia from renal failure is due to inadequate __________ production

A

inadequate erythropoietin production

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248
Q

in renal failure loss of plasma proteins – leads to

A

edema of tissues

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249
Q

can lung tissue be regenerated

A

no

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250
Q

4 steps of respiration

A

ventilation
external respiration
transport of o2 and CO2
internal respiration

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251
Q

increase in blood volume means a _____ in blood pressure an example would be during _____

A

decrease, inhalation

252
Q

a decrease in blood volume results in a ____ of blood pressure an example would be during ________

A

increase, exhalation

253
Q

air moves from area of ___ pressure to area of ___ pressure

A

high, low

254
Q

does normal exhalation involve contracting muscles

A

no

255
Q

does forced exhalation involve contracting muscles

A

internal intercostals and abdominal

256
Q

atmospheric pressure is __ mmHg

A

760

257
Q

amount of air forcefully exhaled after a forceful inhalation

A

vital capacity

258
Q

amount of air forcefully exhaled after a normal tidal volume exhalation

A

expiratory reserve volume

259
Q

amount of air forcefully inhaled after a tidal volume inhalation

A

inspiratory reserve volume

260
Q

amount of air inhaled or exhaled during normal breathing

A

tidal volume

261
Q

__________ pressure should always be 4mmHg less than _______ pressure

A

intrapleural, intrapulmonary

262
Q

sucking pressure that holds lungs open like they are glued to chest cavity

A

intrapleural pressure

263
Q

P stands for

A

partial pressure

264
Q

when CO2 increases H+ concentration _________,

pH __________ & breathing _________

A

increases, decreases, increases

265
Q

chemoreceptors in the brainstem that only detect CO2

A

central chemoreceptors

266
Q

chemoreceptors that detect CO2 & O2 (aorta, carotid arteries)

A

peripheral chemoreceptors

267
Q

when CO2 decreases H+ concentration _________,

pH __________ & breathing _________

A

decreases, increases, decreases

268
Q

any additional acid ______ breathing

A

increases

269
Q

waste removal from sterile body cells

A

excretion

270
Q

holes in capillary bed that look like swiss cheese

A

fenestrated capillary bed

271
Q

kidney tubules are __ cells thick

A

1

272
Q

what is larger an afferent or efferent arteriole

A

afferent

273
Q

glomerular capillaries are about ___ mmHg

A

5

274
Q

true or false constriction on either side of the glomerular capillaries will make fluid waste product come out of blood

A

true

275
Q

any fluid squeezed out of the blood collects in the _____

A

bowmans capsule

276
Q

excretion of the urinary system

A

urine and sweat

277
Q

only ____ of the blood is filtered in the kidney

A

plasma

278
Q

glomerular blood hydrostatic pressure is ___ mmHg

A

55

279
Q

blood colloid osmotic pressure is ___ mmHg

A

30

280
Q

capsular hydrostatic pressure is __ mmHg

A

15

281
Q

net filtration pressure is __________ minus ___________ minus __________ to equal around __ mmHg

A

glomerular blood hydrostatic pressure,
blood colloid osmotic pressure,
capsular hydrostatic pressure,
10

282
Q

macula densa measure _____ of blood

A

wetness

283
Q

true or false there is a juxtaglomerular apparatus on every nephron

A

true

284
Q

natri refers to

A

sodium

285
Q

if there is not enough blood for every nephron _____, ________ & ________ are used for vasoconstriction/ dialation to alternate blood to nephrons

A

nitric oxide, adenosine, endothelin

286
Q

movement from the filtrate (urine) to the blood

A

reabsorption

287
Q

movement from the blood the filtrate (urine)

A

secretion

288
Q

movement of ____ drives the movement of everything

A

sodium

289
Q

15% of nephrons are _________

A

juxtamedullary

290
Q

average pH of urine

A

6

291
Q

nephron that specialize in producing healthy urine

A

cortical

292
Q

dryness

A

osmolarity

293
Q

nephron that specialize in making concentrated urine

A

juxtamedullary

294
Q

high osmolarity numbers are

A

dry

295
Q

is the inside of the kidney super wet or dry

A

dry

296
Q

sensible

A

can be measured

297
Q

insensible

A

can not be measured

298
Q

facultative

A

excess water loss (optional)

299
Q

obligatory

A

necessary water loss

300
Q

if you need to produce concentrated urine the inside of the kidney needs to be concentrated by ADH opening ______ in the ________

A

aquaporins and collecting ducts

301
Q

phosphoric acid

A

proteins

302
Q

lactic acid

A

carbs

303
Q

keto acid

A

lipids

304
Q

uric acid

A

nucleic acid

305
Q

true or false water intake must equal water output

A

true

306
Q

increases in _______________ (concentration) trigger hypothalamic thirst center and release of antidiuretic hormone

A

plasma osmolality

307
Q

water is lost through ___________ ,______ ,_________ & _______

A

respiration, sweating, defecation and urination

308
Q

water gains absorption from_________ system

A

digestive system

309
Q

increases in plasma osmolality (concentration) trigger _______________ center and release of _________

A

hypothalamic thirst, antidiuretic hormone

310
Q

water gains metabolism (water as a byproduct during_________

A

electron transport chain)

311
Q

water losses urine minimum _____ ml urine/day)

A

500

312
Q

water losses evaporation through________ system

A

respiratory

313
Q

water losses evaporation through _______, __________ & ______

A

skin
sweat
feces

314
Q

in dehydration water loss exceeds water intake and the body is in _________ (______ BP and cells _______)

A

negative fluid balance, decrease BP and cells shrin

315
Q

renal insufficiency or an extraordinary amount of water ingested quickly can lead to cellular overhydration, or water intoxication ( BP and cells swell/burst)

A

hypotonic hydration

316
Q

water loss exceeds water intake and the body is in negative fluid balance (decrease BP and cells shrink)

A

dehydration

317
Q

in hypotonic hydration renal insufficiency or an extraordinary amount of water ingested quickly can lead to ____________ or __________ (_______ BP and cells ________)

A

cellular overhydration, or water intoxication

increased, swell/burst

318
Q

atypical accumulation of interstitial fluid, leading to swelling

A

edema (a.k.a. 3rd spacing

319
Q

3 effects of disruption in solute concentration:

1) ________ shrinking or swelling of cells, and edema
2) changes in__________ and excitability of nerves and all muscles
3) _________ concentration fluctuation: acid /base balance

A

1) tonicity: shrinking or swelling of cells, and edema
2) changes in membrane potential and excitability of nerves and all muscles
3) H+ concentration fluctuation: acid /base balance

320
Q

edema (a.k.a.

A

3rd spacing

321
Q

pH of arterial blood is

A

7.4

322
Q

edema (a.k.a. 3rd spacing): atypical accumulation of ________, leading to_______

A

interstitial fluid, swelling

323
Q

pH of venous blood and interstitial fluid is

A

7.35

324
Q

pH of intracellular fluid is

A

7.0

325
Q

arterial blood pH falls below 7.35

A

acidosis or acidemia =

326
Q

arterial blood pH is above 7.45

A

alkalosis or alkalemia =

327
Q

death occurs if blood pH goes outside the range of______ for more than a few seconds

A

6.8-8.0

328
Q

H+ are continually being added to the body fluids because of_________ formation from CO2

A

carbonic acid

329
Q

: abnormal increase in CO2

A

respiratory acidosis

330
Q

H+ are continually being added to the body fluids because of digestion of______, especially _______

A

food, proteins

331
Q

abnormal decrease in CO2

A

respiratory alkalosis:

332
Q

H+ are continually being added to the body fluids because of acids produced during ________, like_______ acid during______

A

metabolism, lactic, heavy exercise

333
Q

metabolic acidosis or alkalosis : abnormal decrease in HCO3-

A

metabolic acidosis

334
Q

respiratory acidosis or alkalosis respiratory disease (reduced gas exchange)

A

respiratory acidosis

335
Q

metabolic acidosis or alkalosis : abnormal increase in HCO3-

A

metabolic alkalosis

336
Q

respiratory acidosis or alkalosis depression of the respiratory center by drugs or disease

A

respiratory acidosis

337
Q

respiratory acidosis or alkalosis hyperventilation caused by fever, anxiety or aspirin poisoning

A

respiratory alkalosis

338
Q

respiratory acidosis or alkalosis nerve or muscle disorder that reduces respiratory muscle ability

A

respiratory acidosis

339
Q

metabolic acidosis or alkalosis diarrhea – loss of bicarbonate ions (HCO3-)

A

metabolic acidosis

340
Q

metabolic acidosis or alkalosis using baking soda (antacids) to treat heartburn and stomach irritation

A

metabolic alkalosis

341
Q

rapid fat catabolism due to diabetes mellitus, starvation, or Atkin’s diet (keto acidosis)

A

metabolic acidosis

342
Q

vomiting – loss of gastric acids

A

metabolic alkalosis

343
Q

strenuous exercise (lactic acid buildup)

A

metabolic acidosis

344
Q

due to effects of acid/base imbalances: changes in excitability of _____&_____(Na+ and K+ on the wrong sides of cell membranes)

A

nerves and all muscles

345
Q

metabolic acidosis or alkalosis alcohol consumption

A

metabolic acidosis

346
Q

Possible effects of acid/base imbalances _________ activity changes

A

enzyme

347
Q

metabolic acidosis or alkalosis kidney failure

A

metabolic acidosis

348
Q

if excessive__ is secreted by the kidneys, excessive___ is retained

A

H+ , K+

349
Q

3 Defense against acid-base fluctuations

A

chemical buffers,

respiration,

removal of acid/base by the kidney (hours)

350
Q

molecules that can “sponge up” excess H+ until they can be removed from the body

A

chemical buffers (seconds)

351
Q

3 types of chemical buffers

A

bicarbonate buffer system (extracellular fluids)

  • phosphate buffer system (intracellular fluids and urine)
  • protein buffer system (all over the body)
352
Q

chemical buffers that deal with extracellular fluid

A

bicarbonate buffer system

353
Q

chemical buffers that work all over the body

A

-phosphate buffer system

354
Q

chemical buffers that deal with the intracellular fluids and urine

A

phosphate buffer system

355
Q

The digestive system does four basic things:

moves food along the_________________ and mixes it (motility)

secretes_________fluids

________ food

absorbs _________ and moves them into the _________

A

moves food along the alimentary canal and mixes it (motility)

secretes digestive fluids

digests food

absorbs nutrients and moves them into the blood stream

356
Q

waves of smooth muscle contraction propel food forward

A

peristalsis

357
Q

(small intestine only): mixes with ring-like contractions

A

segmentation

358
Q

deglutition

A

swallowing

359
Q

emesis

A

= vomiting

360
Q

mass movement

A

= bowel movement

361
Q

defecation

A

= elimination

362
Q

food can be digested what 2 ways

A

chemically

mechanically

363
Q

type of digestion where food is broken into small pieces

A

mechanically –

364
Q

type of chemical digestion carbohydrates

A

monosaccharides

365
Q

type of chemical digestion proteins

A

amino acids

366
Q

type of chemical digestion lipids

A

fatty acids + glycerol (monoglyceride)

367
Q

type of chemical digestion nucleic acids

A

nucleotides

368
Q

Food is chewed and mixed with ______

A

saliva.

369
Q

Chewing breaks food into small pieces and increases __________ for chemical digestion.

A

surface area

370
Q

saliva contains the enzyme ____________ that breaks down carbohydrates into __________

A

salivary amylase, disaccharides

371
Q

saliva rinses away food particles and _________ pH

A

buffers

372
Q

swallowed food is propelled through the _________ by _________ waves, and then enters the _______

A

esophagus , peristaltic, stomach

373
Q

peristaltic waves reaching the stomach cause the ________________(cardiac) sphincter to open the ___________

A

gastroesophageal, stomach

374
Q

The stomach is the beginning of the ________

A

GI tract

375
Q

the stomach _______ as it is filled with the bolus

A

expands

376
Q

the stomach will release ______ into the small intestine a little at a time

A

chyme

377
Q

the rate of stomach emptying depends on the the _____ of food, __________ food there is, and _________ the food is

A

type, how much, how wet

378
Q

mechanically churns the bolus and mixes it with the stomach secretions:

A

The stomach

379
Q

important for the absorption of vitamin B12

A

Intrinsic Factor:

380
Q

The stomach _______________ churns the bolus and mixes it with the stomach secretions:

A

mechanically

381
Q

lubrication and protection

A

alkaline mucus:

382
Q

) – helps to break large food particles into smaller ones

A

HCl (from parietal cells

383
Q

The stomach mechanically churns the bolus and mixes it with the _________

A

stomach secretions:

384
Q

pepsinogen (from chief cells) + HCl =

A

pepsin (active protein digesting enzyme)

385
Q

in the small intestine _____ leaves stomach and enters duodenum;

A

chyme ,

386
Q

3 Secretions added to the chyme through the hepatopancreatic duct

A

enzymes

alkaline solution

bile (liver):

387
Q

bile is produced in

A

liver)

388
Q

alkaline solution is found in

A

(pancreas and bile duct):

389
Q

secretions from the ________& __________ are added to the chyme in the duodenum through the _____________& _______________

A

pancreas and liver

hepatopancreatic duct and ampulla

390
Q

salty lipid that emulsifies fats (breaks them into small droplets with more surface area)

A

bile (liver)

391
Q

in the small intestine chyme leaves stomach and enters _______;

A

duodenum

392
Q

neutralizes acidic pH

A

alkaline solution (pancreas and bile duct):

393
Q

enzymes are released in an inactive form and are activated in the duodenum to perform ______

A

hydrolysis

394
Q

examples of hydrolysis

A

pancreatic amylase (carbs to disaccharides)

lipase (lipids)

, trypsin (hydrophilic protein residues),

chymotrypsin (hydrophobic protein residues),

nuclease (DNA and RNA)

395
Q

are released in an inactive form and are activated in the duodenum to perform hydrolysis

A

enzymes

396
Q

breaks down starches into disaccharides; secreted by salivary glands and pancreas

A

amylase:

397
Q

: breaks down disaccharides into glucose; secreted by small intestine

A

carbohydrase

398
Q

enzymes are released in an _____ form and are activated in the ________ to perform hydrolysis

A

inactive, duodenum

399
Q

breaks down proteins into amino acids; secreted by stomach chief cells and pancreas

A

protease (pepsin, trypsin, chymotrypsin):

400
Q

breaks down lipids into glycerol and fatty acids; secreted by pancreas and small intestine

A

lipase:

401
Q

breaks down nucleic acids into nucleotides; secreted by pancreas

A

nuclease:

402
Q

true or false Digestive Enzyme do not have an optimal pH

A

false

403
Q

does The liver processes major nutrients for immediate use, storage or both

A

both

404
Q

The liver converts glucose to

A

glycogen

405
Q

The liver can also convert______&______ to fat to be stored in ______

A

proteins and glucose, adipose tissue

406
Q

The liver can convert ____________ into what’s needed

A

stored nutrients

407
Q

The liver detoxifies __________ as well as _____ and foreign_______

A

body waste, drugs, compounds

408
Q

The liver synthesizes ________ proteins

A

plasma

409
Q

The liver stores ______, ______, _______, _____ & ______

A

glycogen, fats, iron, copper and many vitamins

410
Q

The liver activates vitamin__ (along with the kidney)

A

D

411
Q

macrophages within the liver remove _______& _____

A

old RBCs and bacteria

412
Q

The liver excretes _______& ________(from old RBCs) in bile

A

cholesterol and bilirubin

413
Q

Small Intestine mixes food with__________&_________ secretions during segmentation, and slowly moves food along

A

pancreatic and liver, segmentation

414
Q

small intestine finishes _________ digestion

A

chemical

415
Q

in absorption of nutrients the lining of the small intestine has lots of surface area created by its ___________ (containing_______&_______

A

circular folds

villi and microvilli)

416
Q

absorb monosaccharides, amino acids and nucleotides

A

blood vessels

417
Q

lymphatic lacteal vessels absorb ___________ & _______

A

fatty acids and glycerol (monoglycerides)

418
Q

Large Intestine absorbs ____, ______, ______, ____

A

electrolytes, water, vitamins, minerals

419
Q

Large Intestine normal bacteria (e.g., E. coli) synthesize ________& _______, which can then be absorbed

A

B complex vitamins and vitamin K,

420
Q

undigested food matter, bacteria, water, bilirubin and small amounts of salt

A

feces

421
Q

is released by bacteria as they ferment carbohydrates

A

intestinal gas (flatus)

422
Q

smooth muscle of the digestive tract is self-_______

A

excitatory

423
Q

is the smooth muscle of the digestive tract voluntary or involuntary

A

involuntary

424
Q

motility and secretion can be modified by _______& ________control

A

nerve and hormonal

425
Q

hormones are secreted by the _______ tissue within the _______

A

endocrine, digestive tract

426
Q

hormones are transported by the ___ and _____ other regions of the tract

A

blood, regulate

427
Q

external environment for the digestive process

A

GI Tract

428
Q

extrinsic control by ___ centers

A

CNS

429
Q

intrinsic control by _____ centers

A

local

430
Q

regulation of digestion involves 4 things

______& _________ stimuli

______________ receptors

_________ (fluid concentration),

presence of substrate in the_____

A

mechanical and chemical stimuli

stretch receptors

osmolarity (fluid concentration),

presence of substrate in the lumen

431
Q

Receptors of the GI Tract

A

mechano- and chemoreceptors

432
Q

Receptors of the GI Tract activate or inhibit_____

A

digestive glands

433
Q

Receptors of the GI Tract mix _____contents and move them along

A

lumen

434
Q

mechano- and chemoreceptors of the gi tract respond to:

A

stretch (measures volume),
osmolarity,
pH
presence of food substrate, type of food (proteins, carbs, lipids, nucleic acids) and end products of digestion

435
Q

stimulates pancreas and gall bladder to release digestive enzymes and bile to the small intestine

A

cholecystokinin (CCK):

436
Q

stimulates pancreas and bile duct to secrete base into small intestine to neutralize stomach acid

A

secretin:

437
Q

clears stomach and small intestine of undigested material (gets the colon rollin’)

A

motilin:

438
Q

: inhibits gastric motility and secretion of acid

A

gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP)

439
Q

acts on the hypothalamus to increase hunger when stomach is empty

A

ghrelin:

440
Q

regulates gastric acid secretion and promotes gastric mucosal growth

A

gastrin:

441
Q

_____ plexus controls GI tract movements

A

myenteric plexus

442
Q

_______ plexus regulates gland secretion

A

submucosal

443
Q

intrinsic controls nerve plexuses (webs of nerves) near the GI tract initiate _________

A

short reflexes

444
Q

short reflexes are mediated by local _____ plexuses (gut brain)

A

enteric

445
Q

extrinsic controls of GI tract

long _____ arising within or outside the ______

A

reflexes GI tract

446
Q

extrinsic controls of GI tract involve___ centers and extrinsic ________ nerves

A

CNS

447
Q

growth hormone (GH) comes from the_________ gland

A

Anterior Pituitary

448
Q
growth hormone (GH) Stimulusis is releasing hormones of
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
A

hypothalamus

449
Q

growth hormone (GH ) Function is to stimulates growth of _____ organs in body; mobilizes _______ molecules, ______________ blood glucose level

A

all, food ,increasing

450
Q

growth hormone (GH) Dysfunction/Disorders hypersecretion causes_______ & __________

A

giantism and acromegaly

451
Q

melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH) comes from ______________ Gland

A

Anterior Pituitary

452
Q

melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH) Stimulus is releasing hormones of ___________

A

hypothalamus

453
Q

melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH) Function is stimulating synthesis & dispersion of ___________ in the skin

A

melanin pigment

454
Q

melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH) Dysfunction/Disorders hypersecretion results in the ______ of the skin

A

darkening

455
Q

adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH comes from the __________ )Gland

A

Anterior Pituitary

456
Q

adrenocorticotropic hormone(ACTH) Stimulus is releasing hormones of _________

A

hypothalamus

457
Q

adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) Function stimulates secretion of ______ hormones

A

adrenal cortex

458
Q

adrenocorticotropic hormone(ACTH) Dysfunction/Disorders hypersecretion or hyposecretion of _______

A

adrenal cortex

459
Q

follicle-stimulating hormone(FSH) comes from __________ Gland

A

Anterior Pituitary

460
Q

follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)Stimulus is releasing hormones of ________

A

hypothalamus

461
Q

follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) Function: males stimulates production and growth of ______ in seminiferous tubules of ____

females: stimulates development of follicles in ____ and secretion of____

A

sperm, testes

ovaries, estrogen

462
Q

follicle-stimulating hormone(FSH) Dysfunction/Disorders hyposecretion inhibits _________ and causes sterility

A

sexual development

463
Q

luteinizing hormone (LH) comes from the ________ gland

A

Anterior Pituitary

464
Q

luteinizing hormone (LH) Stimulus is releasing hormones of _______

A

hypothalamus

465
Q

luteinizing hormone (LH) Function is males: stimulates secretion of________ by the_______ cells of the testes

females: stimulates the secretion of ________, stimulates maturation of _____________, triggers ovulation, and stimulates development of the _____

A

testosterone, interstitial

estrogen, ovarian follicle and ovum, corpus luteum

466
Q

luteinizing hormone (LH) Dysfunction/Disorders hyposecretion inhibits _______ and causes sterility

A

sexual development

467
Q

prolactin (PRL) comes from the _______ gland

A

Anterior Pituitary

468
Q

prolactin (PRL) Stimulus is releasing hormones of

__________

A

hypothalamus

469
Q

prolactin (PRL) Function is stimulates_____development during pregnancy and _____ development after pregnancy

A

breast , milk

470
Q

prolactin (PRL) Dysfunction/Disorders hypersecretion causes________ lactation in nonnursing women and in men; hyposecretion causes________ lactation in nursing women

A

inappropriate, insufficient

471
Q

thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) comes from the _____ gland

A

Anterior Pituitary

472
Q

thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) Stimulus is releasing hormones of__________

A

hypothalamus

473
Q

thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) Function is stimulates release of ______ hormone by the ____ gland

A

thyroid

474
Q

thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) Dysfunction/Disorders hypersecretion causes _______; hyposecretion causes ________ in children and _______ in adults

A

hyperthyroidism, cretinis, myxedema

475
Q

antidiuretic hormone (ADH) comes from the ________ gland

A

Posterior Pituitary

476
Q

antidiuretic hormone (ADH) stimulus is

A

hypothalamus

477
Q

antidiuretic hormone (ADH) function is stimulates __________ by the kidneys

A

water retention

478
Q

antidiuretic hormone (ADH) Dysfunction/Disorder is hypersecretion results in abnormal ___________; hyposecretion causes _________

A

water retention, diabetes insipidus

479
Q

oxytocin comes from the _______ gland

A

Posterior Pituitary

480
Q

oxytocin stimulus is

A

hypothalamus

481
Q

oxytocin function is stimulates _______ contractions at the end of pregnancy and the release of_____ into the ducts of the breast

A

uterine, milk

482
Q

oxytocin Dysfunction/Disorder hypersecretion causes inappropriate ejection of ______ in lactating women; hyposecretion may cause prolonged or difficult____&_____

A

milk, labor and delivery

483
Q

releasing hormones come from ______

A

Hypothalamus

484
Q

releasing hormones Stimulus is s various ______ characteristics

A

blood

485
Q

releasing hormones Function is stimulates ________ to release hormones

A

anterior pituitary

486
Q

releasing hormones Dysfunction/Disorders is hypersecretion causes hypersecretion by
_______ =; hyposecretion causes hyposecretion by__________

A

anterior pituitar

487
Q

inhibiting hormones comes from ____

A

Hypothalamus

488
Q

inhibiting hormones Stimulus is s various_______ characteristics

A

blood

489
Q

inhibiting hormones Function is inhibits ________ to stop releasing hormones

A

anterior pituitary

490
Q

inhibiting hormones Dysfunction/Disorders hypersecretion causes hyposecretion by _______; hyposecretion causes hypersecretion by ____

A

anterior pituitary

491
Q

thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3) comes from the ____ gland

A

Thyroid

492
Q

thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3) stimulus is

A

pituitary TSH

493
Q

thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3) function is stimulates __________ activities of
cells

A

energy metabolic

494
Q

thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3) Dysfunction/Disorders is hypersecretion causes _____ _____; hyposecretion causes hypothyroidism, (pre-adult) ______, (adult) _______

A

hyperthyroidism,Graves disease, cretinism, myxedema, goiter

495
Q

calcitonin comes from the ___ gland

A

Thyroid

496
Q

calcitonin stimulus is

A

high blood calcium levels

497
Q

calcitonin function is stimulates ________ using calcium in blood

A

bone formation

498
Q

calcitonin Dysfunction/Disorders is hypersecretion can cause_______ hyposecretion can cause ______

A

hypocalcemia;, hypercalcemia

499
Q

parathyroid hormone (PTH) comes from the ______ gland

A

parathyroid

500
Q

parathyroid hormone (PTH) stimulus is low _______ levels

A

blood calcium

501
Q

parathyroid hormone (PTH) function is stimulates the breakdown of_____ and causes an increase in _____________

A

bone , blood calciumconcentrations

502
Q

parathyroid hormone (PTH) Dysfunction/Disorder is hypersecretion can cause ______; hyposecretion can cause_________

A

hypercalcemia, hypocalcemia

503
Q

thymosin and thymopoietin comes from ____ gland

A

Thymus

504
Q

thymosin and thymopoietin stimulus is

A

immune system

505
Q

thymosin and thymopoietin function is stimulate _________ to function against specific __________ in the immune response

A

T lymphocytes, pathogens

506
Q

thymosin and thymopoietin Dysfunction/Disorder is multiple_______ dysfunctions

A

immune

507
Q

mineralocorticoids (aldosterone) comes from _______ gland

A

Adrenal Cortex

508
Q

mineralocorticoids (aldosterone) stimulus is

A

pituitary ACTH

509
Q

mineralocorticoids (aldosterone) function is regulate ____& _______ homeostasis or balance

A

electrolyte and fluid

510
Q

mineralocorticoids (aldosterone) dysfunction is hypersecretion causes increased ________ ;hyposecretion causes abnormal ________ or dehydration

A

water retention, water loss

511
Q

cortisol (hydrocortisone) and other glucocorticoids comes from ____________ gland

A

Adrenal Cortex

512
Q

cortisol (hydrocortisone) and other glucocorticoids stimulus is

A

pituitary ACTH

513
Q

cortisol (hydrocortisone) and other glucocorticoids function is stimulate_________, causing anincrease in blood glucose concentrations,and have anti-_____, anti-_______ and anti-_______ effects

A

gluconeogenesis, inflammatory, immunity, allergy

514
Q

cortisol (hydrocortisone) and other glucocorticoids dysfunction is hypersecretion causes _______; hyposecretion causes ________

A

Cushing’s Syndrome, Addison’s disease

515
Q

sex hormones (androgens and estrogens) comes from _______ gland

A

Adrenal Cortex

516
Q

sex hormones (androgens and estrogens) stimulus is

A

pituitary ACTH

517
Q

sex hormones (androgens and estrogens) function is adrenal androgens stimulate_______ in females, but adrenal estrogens have little effects in males

A

sexual drive

518
Q
sex hormones (androgens and estrogens) dysfunction is hypersecretion causes premature \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ in females an
\_\_\_\_\_ of females; hyposecretion has no significant effect
A

sexual development , masculinization

519
Q

epinephrine (adrenaline) and norepinephrine (noradrenaline comes from _____ gland

A

Adrenal Medulla

520
Q

epinephrine (adrenaline) and norepinephrine (noradrenaline stimulus is

A

sympathetic nervous system

521
Q

epinephrine (adrenaline) and norepinephrine (noradrenaline function is intensify and prolong the ______ response during stress

A

sympathetic

522
Q

epinephrine (adrenaline) and norepinephrine (noradrenaline dysfunction is hypersecretion causes effects of ______; hyposecretion has no significant effect

A

stress

523
Q

glucagon comes from ____ gland

A

Pancreatic Islets

524
Q

glucagon stimulus is ____ blood glucose levels

A

low

525
Q

glucagon function is stimulates__________, causing an

increase in blood glucose

A

glycogenolysis

526
Q

glucagon dysfunction is

A

uncertain

527
Q

insulin comes from ______ gland

A

Pancreatic Islets

528
Q

insulin stimulus is high ______levels

A

blood glucose

529
Q

insulin function is s promotes glucose entry into cells, causing a decrease in_______

A

blood glucose

530
Q

insulin dysfunction is hypersecretion causes severe insulin _______ or _______; hyposecretion causes_________

A

shock or hypoglycemia, diabetes mellitus

531
Q

Endocrine control helps maintain homeostasis through… regulating cellular ________, along with _____ & ________ balance

A

metabolism water and electrolyte

532
Q

Endocrine control helps maintain homeostasis through… helping (along with the autonomic N.S.) to coordinate the ________, _______ & ___________ of nutrients

A

digestion, storage and circulation

533
Q

Endocrine control helps maintain homeostasis through… helping the body adapt to ______ situations

A

stressful

534
Q

Endocrine control helps maintain homeostasis through… regulating __________ production

A

red blood cell

535
Q

Endocrine control helps maintain homeostasis through directing______ & _______

A

growth and development

536
Q

Endocrine control helps maintain homeostasis through controlling _________

A

reproduction

537
Q

hormone communication composed of glands that precisely secrete_________ (chemical messengers) into the________

A

hormones , bloodstream

538
Q

hormones act on very specific receptors of _______ to change their activities and help to regulate _____________

A

target cells , metabolic processes

539
Q

2 Main Types of Hormones

A

steroid (lipophilic):

amino acid (hydrophilic):

540
Q

complex, ring-shaped lipid molecules; derived from cholesterol; enters nucleus of target cell to activate genes (direct gene action)

A

steroid (lipophilic):

541
Q

involve larger molecules that bind to receptors on target cell membrane without entering cell; cause second messengers within cell to make functional changes

A

amino acid (hydrophilic):

542
Q

within the cell initiate molecular reactions that change the physiological state of the cell.

A

Second messengers

543
Q

true or false hormones are the first messengers

A

true

544
Q

blood levels of hormones: are controlled by ________ feedback systems, vary only within a_____desirable range

A

negative , narrow

545
Q

hormones are synthesized and released in response to _________, _______ & _________

A

humoral, neural, and hormonal stimuli

546
Q

hormones are continually excreted in _______ and broken down by certain________

A

urine , enzymes

547
Q

: secretion of hormones in direct response to changing blood levels of ions and nutrients

A

humoral stimuli

548
Q

nerve fibers stimulate hormone release

A

neural stimuli:

549
Q

: release of hormones in response to hormones produced by other endocrine organs

A

hormonal stimuli

550
Q

protein-based hormones travel freely in the

A

plasma

551
Q

steroid hormones travel in the plasma carried by a

A

plasma protein

552
Q

2 hormones released by the posterior pituitary are made

by the_________

A

hypothalamus

553
Q

what 2 hormones released by the posterior pituitary

A

antidiuretic hormone

oxytocin

554
Q

hormone (targets kidneys, blood vessels, etc.)

A

antidiuretic

555
Q

___________ (targets smooth muscle of mammary glands, uterus, vas deferens; can also mimic ADH)

A

oxytocin

556
Q

(Neurohypophysis

A

Posterior Pituitary

557
Q

(Adenohypophysis)

A

Anterior Pituitary

558
Q

synthesizes and releases several hormones into the blood

A

Anterior Pituitary

559
Q

5 tropic hormones

A

Growth Hormone (GH)
Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH)
Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (ACTH)
Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH)
Luteinizing Hormone (LH

560
Q

true or false tropic hormones regulated other endocrine hormones

A

true

561
Q

true or false, prolactin is a tropic hormones

A

false

562
Q

consists of T3 (triiodothyronine) & T4 (thyroxine)

A

Thyroid Hormone

563
Q

Thyroid Hormone accelerates the________ of most tissues

A

metabolic rate

564
Q

Thyroid Hormone increases __________-responsiveness to epinephrine and norepinephrine

A

target cell

565
Q

Thyroid Hormone essential for normal______ as well as the development and function of the ________

A

growth nervous system

566
Q

type 1 diabetes level of insulin secretion

A

none or almost none

567
Q

type 1 diabetes typical onset age

A

childhood

568
Q

type 1 diabetes % of diabetics

A

10-20%

569
Q

type 1 diabetes basic defect

A

autoimmune destruction of B cells

570
Q

type 1 diabetes treatment

A

insulin injections & exercise with diet

571
Q

type 2 diabetes level of insulin secretion

A

normal or exceed normal

572
Q

type 2 diabetes typical onset age

A

adulthood

573
Q

type 2 diabetes % of diabetics

A

80-90%

574
Q

type 2 diabetes basic defect

A

reduced sensitivity to insulin’s target cells

575
Q

type 2 diabetes treatment

A

diet, weight loss

576
Q

: results in 4 functional sperm cells

A

spermatogenesis

577
Q

results in only 1 functional egg cell (rather than 4) due to disproportionate cytoplasmic division

A

oogenesis:

578
Q

forms spermatids from spermatocytes

A

meiosis

579
Q

forms sperm from spermatids (form tails and lose excess cytoplasm)

A

spermiogenesis

580
Q

cells making up the walls of seminiferous tubules are in various stages of

A

cell division

581
Q

sex hormones play roles in: the development and function of the

A

reproductive organs

582
Q

sex hormones play roles in: ________behavior and drives

A

sexual

583
Q

sex hormones play roles in: the _______ & ________ of many other organs and tissues

A

growth and development

584
Q

in males sex hormones are secreted in constant___ quantities & _____ production is constant

A

low ,

585
Q

“male hormones”, but small amounts in females

A

Androgens

586
Q

cause secondary sex characteristics, bone and muscle maintenance

A

Androgens

587
Q

testosterone produced in ____; androsterone synthesized in ____; others from adrenal glands

A

testes, liver

588
Q

Hormonal Control of the Male Reproductive System

\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
secretes gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH)
↓ 
message sent to
↓ 
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
which secretes
FSH (follicle stimulating hormone)    
-and-   LH (luteinizing hormone)    

message sent to

________

A

hypothalamus

anterior pituitary

testes

589
Q

_____ cells increase sperm production and produce inhibin

A

Sertoli

590
Q

______cells secrete testosterone, which also supports sperm production

A

Leydig

591
Q

Rising levels of ______ & __________act in a negative feedback loop to decrease the amount of__________ releasing hormone produced by the hypothalamus.

result = _______ & _______ production
are at fairly constant, controlled levels

A

testosterone and inhibin , gonadotropin

hormone and sperm

592
Q

in the fetal period, ______(ovarian stem cells) multiply by mitosis and store nutrients

A

oogonia

593
Q

_________ oocytes begin meiosis but stall before completion

A

primary

594
Q

one _________ oocyte is ovulated each month beginning with puberty

A

secondary

595
Q

if penetrated by sperm the secondary oocyte completes __________, yielding:
one large ________ (the functional gamete)
a tiny second _______ (cast off as waste)

A

meiosis II, ovum, polar body

596
Q

upon entry of sperm, the secondary oocyte:

completes ________ & casts out the second ________

A

meiosis II , polar body

597
Q

the ovum nucleus swells, and the two nuclei approach each other when fully swollen, the two nuclei are called ___________

A

pronuclei

598
Q

– when the pronuclei come together

A

fertilization

599
Q

sperm fertilizes oocyte in the ______ to form a _____

A

oviduct, zygote

600
Q

fertilization occurs ___ days before the end of the menstrual cycle

A

14

601
Q

oocyte survives about 1 day following ______

A

ovulation

602
Q

Contrary to most sources, sperm can survive __ days in the female!

A

5

603
Q

zona pellucida: egg layer gelatinous, noncellular
functions:

  • lock & key receptor site for _____
  • prevents _________
  • encases early ______cells
A

spem, polyspermy, cleavage

604
Q

: about 3000 of these diploid cells surround the egg

A

corona radiata cells

605
Q

: destroys corona radiata (many sperm needed to do this)

A

hyaluronidase

606
Q

penetrates zona pellucida only in a successful sperm cell

A

acrosin:

607
Q

in the ovarian cycle

_______ encases egg;

____________) is a blood clot that fills the follicle pit after ovulation;

_______ replaces CH and produces hormones;

___________ is a white scar left when corpus luteum cells die

A

ovary: follicle

corpus hemorrhagicum (CH

corpus luteum

corpus albicans

608
Q

cause secondary sex characteristics, menstrual cycling, bone and muscle maintenance, blood clotting, fat storage

A

Estrogens

609
Q

“female hormones”, but males have small amounts

A

Estrogens

610
Q

levels decreased after menopause

A

Estrogens

611
Q

Progesterone involved in _____ cycle

A

menstrual

612
Q

Progesterone is a _____hormone

A

female

613
Q

prepares for and maintains pregnancy; prevents uterine contractions,

A

Progesterone

614
Q

sudden drop during pregnancy causes miscarriage

A

Progesterone

615
Q

Sex Hormones are Secreted in a 4 step Cycles

A

egg maturation within a follicle

preparation of the endometrium for egg implantation

ovulation

implantation of fertilized egg (pregnancy)
-OR-
menstruation begins (no pregnancy)

616
Q

Understand that lung volumes and capacities can be measured to examine respiratory health, and these measurements are collectively called

A

“spirometry.”

617
Q

Hormonal Control of the Female Reproductive System

hypothalamus
secretes \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ hormone (GnRH)
↓ 
message sent to
↓ 
anterior pituitary
which secretes
\_\_\_\_\_\_ &\_\_\_\_ hormone)   
message sent to
↓ 
ovaries / endometrium
A

gonadotropin releasing

FSH (follicle stimulating hormone)    
and    LH (luteinizing
618
Q
ovarian \_\_\_\_\_ matures, which
contains an egg, 
and endometrium
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
↓
ovaries secrete \_\_\_\_
rising estrogen levels 
trigger
↓  
 mid-cycle surge in FSH and LH
triggers\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
A

follicle, thickens

estrogen

ovulation

619
Q

Days____ of menstrual cycle all hormones low; blood & tissue discharged from uterus

A

Days 1-7

620
Q

Days____ of menstrual cycle estrogen levels increase; follicle and uterine lining develop

A

Days 7-14

621
Q

Days____ of menstrual cycle LH peaks & causes ovulation; estrogen is in decline

A

Day 14

622
Q

Days____ of menstrual cycle LH declines; estrogen & progesterone increase

A

Days 14-21

623
Q

Days____ of menstrual cycle all hormones decline (PMS week!!!)

A

Days 21-28:

624
Q

O2 binds to hemoglobin when: temperature is ____

CO2 levels are___

A

cool, low

625
Q

What is the average number of nephrons per kidney?

A

1 million