Exam 2 Study Guide Flashcards

1
Q

the area where two neurons meet and a signal is passed from one neuron to another

A

Synapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

neurotransmitter is released into the synaptic cleft via _____________

A

exocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

nerve impulses reach the axonal terminal of the presynaptic neuron and open ________; which enters terminal

A

Ca2+ channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

postsynaptic membrane permeability changes, causing an_______________

A

excitatory (more +) or inhibitory (more -) effect: graded potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

involves a chemical messenger (neurotransmitter) which crosses the synaptic cleft

A

Synapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

a weak change in a neuron’s membrane potential (on the dendrites, cell body or sensory receptor) that can vary in size and can die out (not all-or-none!)

A

graded potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

In postsynaptic membrane permeability changes ______ are more postive and ________ are more negative

A

excitatory (more +) inhibitory (more -)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

a synapse is the area where two neurons meet and a signal is _________________

A

passed from one neuron to another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

neurotransmitter crosses the synaptic cleft and binds to receptors on the __________

A

postsynaptic neuron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

can graded potentials vary in size

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

is a graded potential all of none?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

a synapse involves a chemical messenger (neurotransmitter) which crosses the

A

synaptic cleft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

a graded potential is a weak change in a neuron’s membrane potential on the ________

A

dendrites, cell body or sensory receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

can a graded potential die out

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

any place where one cell comes in contact with another and a signal is passed

A

synapses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

the neuron releasing the neurotransmitter is the ____

A

presynaptic neuron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

does a weak + stimulus (below threshold level) cause a lot or a few sodium gates to open

A

causes only a few sodium gates to open

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

the neuron that receives the neurotransmitter

A

postsynaptic neuron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

excitatory post-synaptic potential (EPSP): encourages the post-synaptic cell to have an action potential by increasing its ________________

A

membrane voltage toward threshold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

If a few presynaptic cells release neurotransmitter (in a convergence), it may or may not be enough to trigger an action potential in the ____________

A

postsynaptic cell.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

does a strong + stimulus (reaches threshold) cause many or a few sodium gates to open?

A

many sodium gates to open

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

inhibitory post-synaptic potential (IPSP): discourages the post-synaptic cell from having an action potential by ___________________

A

decreasing its membrane voltage away from threshold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

If a few presynaptic cells release ________ (in a convergence), it may or may not be enough to trigger an action potential in the postsynaptic cell.

A

neurotransmitter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

encourages 2nd cell to have action potential by trying to raise voltage toward threshold

A

excitatory post-synaptic potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

does inhibitory post synaptic potential encourage or discourage an action potential?

A

discourage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

does excitatory post-synaptic potential encourage or discourage action potentials

A

encourage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

timing or frequency

A

temporal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

how many are releasing neurotransmitters

A

spatial summation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

toward the brain

A

afferent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

receptors for hormones

A

target cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

away from the brain

A

efferent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

motor means

A

movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

stimulus means

A

change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

unconscious

A

somatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

stronger stimulus in temporal summation

is due to ___________

A

more frequent release of excitatory neurotransmitter at the same synapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

automatic

A

autonomic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

fibers

A

axon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

weaker stimulus in temporal summation is due to __________

A

less frequent release of excitatory neurotransmitter at the same synapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

means to change shape

A

plastic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

joints and skeletal muscles are ______

A

external

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

internal organs are referred to as ______

A

viscera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

center of homeostasis

A

hypothalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

in temporal summation a less frequent release of excitatory neurotransmitter at the same synapse will result in a ________

A

weaker stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

short term

A

acute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

stay in central nervous system and do not leave

A

inter neuron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

the effector organ is always ____

A

muscles and glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

in temporal summation a more frequent release of excitatory neurotransmitter at the same synapse will result in a _______

A

stronger stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

long term

A

chronic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

in spatial summation a stronger stimulus is due to a greater number of _________________

A

presynaptic neurons releasing excitatory neurotransmitter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

superficial somatic pain is in the _ fibers

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

the time between an action potential ending at the axonal terminal

A

synaptic delay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

in spatial summation a weaker stimulus is due to _______________

A

fewer presynaptic neurons releasing excitatory neurotransmitter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

deep somatic pain is in the _ fibers

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

in spatial summation fewer presynaptic neurons releasing excitatory neurotransmitter will cause

A

weaker stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

in spatial summation a greater number of presynaptic neurons releasing excitatory neurotransmitter will cause a _________

A

stronger stimulus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

end of the presynaptic cell and a new action potential beginning in the axon of the postsynaptic cell

A

synaptic delay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Throbbing, lasting pain is in the _ fibers

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

does it take longer or faster for an impulse to reach its destination with more synapses in a nerve pathway,

A

longer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

initial sharp pain is in the _ fibers

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

are released into the bloodstream by endocrine glands

A

hormones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

major regulatory systems are the ______ &_______

A

nervous and endocrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

the ______ has rapid electrical signals (“wired”)

A

nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

response is slower, but longer in duration

A

the endocrine system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

are carried throughout the body in the blood

A

hormones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

the _______ relies on circulatory system for transmission (“wireless”)

A

endocrine system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

are chemical messengers made up of proteins or lipids

A

hormones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

long distance chemical messengers

A

the endocrine system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

act on specific target cells within other organs (or other endocrine glands), changing the activity of those cells

A

hormones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

response is rapid, but short in duration

A

the nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

short distance chemical messengers (neurotransmitters)

A

the nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

are controlled through negative feedback regulation

A

hormones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

a division of the nervous system that is responsible for monitoring stimuli occurring inside and outside the body

A

sensory (afferent) input:

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

light receptors

A

photoreceptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

type of mechanoreceptor that monitor blood pressure

A

baroreceptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

the master controlling and communicating system of the body functions

A

the nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

respond to touch, pressure, vibration, stretch and itch

A

mechanoreceptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

a part of the nervous system that involves interpretation of sensory input

A

integration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

type of mechanoreceptors that are (stretch receptors in skeletal muscle), hearing and equilibrium receptors in the ear

A

proprioceptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

a part of that nervous system that is a response to stimuli by activating effector organs

A

motor (efferent) output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

receptor that monitors changes in solute concentration

A

osmoreceptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

processes and integrates information coming from and going to the peripheral nervous system

A

central nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

receptor for hot and cold

A

thermoreceptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

a lot of receptors in a small area will result in

A

a higher acuity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

consists of the brain and spinal cord

A

central nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

receptors that detect certain chemicals like smell, taste, blood O2 or CO2

A

chemoreceptors:

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

is there new production of nerve cells

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

when you learn, new connections between neurons are made

A

plasticity of the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

the area around a sensory receptor

A

receptive field

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

since visceral pain afferents travel along the same pathways as somatic pain fibers, a common misdiagnosis is __________

A

Referred Pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

the homeostatic conditions in the brain are monitored and regulated _______ than those of the rest of the body

A

more closely

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

the blood-brain barrier is intact walls of _______ with ______ wrapped around them to keep the environment in the brain in a steady state

A

blood capillaries + astrocyte feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

receptors adapt to sustained stimulus by becoming ______

A

less responsive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Do Flow of Blood and Blood Pressure to the Brain Greatly Fluctuate?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

prevents fluctuations in electrolyte concentrations within the brain

A

blood brain barrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

a constant supply of _____ & _____ are required to supply the ATP

A

oxygen and glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

responding to pressure, touch, and smell adapt quickly (body stops noticing quickly)

A

phasic receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

the part of the brain responsible for Sensory perception

A

Cerebral cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

prevents harmful blood-born substances from reaching the brain

A

blood brain barrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

the part of the brain responsible for Inhibition of muscle tone

A

Basal nuclei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

may respond slowly, including receptors that respond to chemical levels in the blood

A

tonic receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

the part of the brain responsible for Relay station for all synaptic input

A

Thalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

prevents circulating hormones from reaching the brain

A

blood brain barrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

______ & ________ are specialized tonic receptors that do not exhibit adaptation!!!

A

pain receptors and proprioceptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

the part of the brain responsible for regulation of many homeostatic functions, such as temperature control, thirst, urine output, and food intake

A

Hypothalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

when stimulus energy (heat, sound, light, pressure…) must be converted to electrical energy (action potential)

A

Transduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

_____ is hotter than body temperature

A

blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

the part of the brain responsible for Maintenance of balance

A

Cerebellum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

spends energy

A

sympathetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

another name fore diuresis

A

urination, micturition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

the stronger the stimulus, the more change in ______

A

permeability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

saves energy

A

parasympathetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

the part of the brain responsible for Origin of majority of peripheral cranial nerves

A

Brain stem (midbrain, pons, and medulla)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

brief sharp, pricking pain arising from skin, muscles or joints

A

superficial somatic pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

cause more inflammatory chemicals (e.g., histamines, prostaglandins) to be released for healing.

A

Bradykinins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

sensitive to pain-causing stimuli; important safety mechanism, but may cause suffering

A

nociceptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

burning, itching or aching of skin, muscles or joints; lasts longer than superficial & always indicates tissue destruction

A

deep somatic pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

over stimulation of ANY receptor is _________

A

painful

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Tissue injury causes cells to release inflammatory chemicals including________

A

bradykinins (very potent pain-producers).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

true or false.. all receptors can act as nociceptors

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

aching or burning of injured organs in thoracic or abdominal cavities

A

visceral pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

heavily myelinated axons that transmit impulses quickly; sensitive to weak stimuli and responsible for first sharp pain felt upon injury

A

A fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

awareness of stimulus

A

sensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

are free nerve endings of neurons found throughout the entire body except for most of the brain

A

pain receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

specialized senses:

A

vision, hearing, taste, smell, equilibrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

unmyelinated axons that transmit impulses more slowly; sensitive to strong stimuli and responsible for second dull or burning pain, cramping, warmth, itch, and sensual touch

A

C fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

input about homeostatic conditions usually never reaches a ___________

A

conscious awareness level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

pain receptors are found throughout the body except some parts of _____

A

the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

the part of the brain responsible for voluntary control of movement

A

Cerebral cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

the part of the brain responsible for Enhancement of muscle tone

A

Cerebellum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

which is faster, an A fiber or a C fiber?

A

A fiber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

somatic (general) sensation:

A

touch, pressure, heat, cold, pain (variations of pain)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

interpretation of stimulus meaning, occur in the brain

A

perception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

which fiber is unmilenated A or C?

A

C fiber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

carry impulses from skin, skeletal muscles, and joints to the brain

A

sensory afferent fibers:

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

the part of the brain responsible for cardiovascular, respiratory, and digestive control centers

A

Brain stem (midbrain, pons, and medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

the Peripheral Nervous System two Functional Divisions

A

sensory and motor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

two divisions of the motor division are

A

somatic and autonomic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

the sensory division is afferent or efferent?

A

afferent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

the part of the brain responsible for Coordination of slow, sustained movements

A

Basal nuclei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

transmit impulses from visceral organs to the brain

A

visceral afferent fibers:

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

transmits impulses from the CNS to effector organs

A

motor division

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

the motor division is afferent or efferent?

A

efferent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

the part of the brain responsible for the Important link between nervous and endocrine systems

A

Hypothalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

conscious control of skeletal muscles

A

somatic nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

the part of the brain responsible for Crude awareness of sensation

A

Thalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

the part of the brain responsible for Language

A

Cerebral cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

subconscious regulation of smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands through dual innervation

A

autonomic nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

the part of the brain responsible for Coordination and planning of skilled voluntary muscle activity

A

Cerebellum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

the part of the brain responsible for Suppression of useless patterns of movements

A

Basal nuclei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

two divisions of the autonomic nervous system

A

sympathetic and parasympathetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

the part of the brain responsible for Regulation of muscle reflexes involved with equilibrium and posture

A

Brain stem (midbrain, pons, and medulla)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

cluster of nerve cell bodies

A

ganglion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

the part of the brain responsible for some degree of consciousness

A

Thalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

the part of the brain responsible for Extensive involvement with emotion and basic behavioral patterns

A

Hypothalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

innervates cardiac and smooth muscle, most exocrine glands and some endocrine glands.

A

Autonomic division

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

is the “fight-or-flight” system

A

the sympathetic division

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

found on postganglionic cell bodies of all autonomic ganglia

A

nicotinic receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

the part of the brain responsible for Role in motor control

A

Thalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

adrenergic receptors types

A

alpha (α) receptors

beta (β) receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

heart rate increases, and breathing is rapid and deep

-the skin is cool (at first), and the pupils dilate

A

sympathetic division

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

bind to ACh

A

cholinergic receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

the part of the brain responsible for Reception and integration of all synaptic input from spinal cord;

arousal and activation of cerebral cortex

A

Brain stem (midbrain, pons, and medulla)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

bind to norepinephrine and epinephrine

A

adrenergic receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

blood flow to organs is reduced, flow to muscles is increased

A

sympathetic division

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

the part of the brain responsible for Role in sleep-wake cycle

A

Brain stem (midbrain, pons, and medulla)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

each neurotransmitter can _____ activity on some organs and ______ activity in others

A

stimulate, inhibit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

found on effector cell membranes

A

muscarinic receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

involves E activities – exercise, excitement, emergency, and embarrassment AND FEAR

A

sympathetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

the part of the brain responsible for Sophisticated mental events, such as thinking memory, decision making, creativity, and self-consciousness

A

cerebral cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

response depends on the ________ on the tissue cells

A

type of receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

the types of autonomic receptors are

A

cholinergic receptors – bind to ACh

adrenergic receptors – bind to norepinephrine and epinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

is a Modified Part of the Sympathetic Nervous System

A

The Adrenal Medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q
pupils of the eye dilate
sweating occurs
heart rate increases
bronchioles dilate
motility for digestion is inhibited
liver: glycogen is converted into glucose
urine production is inhibited
A

sympathetic division

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

involves the D activities – digestion, defecation, and diuresis

A

parasympathetic division

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

reinforces the effect of the sympathetic nerve pathways

A

The Adrenal Medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

true or false most organs are innervated by both parasympathetic and sympathetic pathways,

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

innervates cardiac and smooth muscle, most exocrine glands and some endocrine glands

A

Autonomic Nervous System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

produces norepinephrine (20%) and epinephrine (80%)

A

The Adrenal Medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

concerned with keeping body energy use low

A

parasympathetic division

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

neurotransmitters at effector organs (parasympathetic)

A

acetylcholine (ACh)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

releases norepinephrine and epinephrine into the blood as hormones instead of as messengers to the postganglionic fiber

A

The Adrenal Medulla

182
Q

rest-and-digest” or “feed-and-breed” system

A

parasympathetic division

183
Q

an autonomic nerve pathway has two neurons:

A

a preganglionic fiber and postganglionic fiber

184
Q

most arterioles and veins. as well as sweat glands

A

only sympathetic pathways

185
Q

neurotransmitters at effector organs (sympathetic):

A

norepinephrine

186
Q

gastrointestinal tract activity, blood flow to kidneys and urine production are increased

A

parasympathetic division

187
Q

true or false preganglionic neurotransmitter in both sympathetic and parasympathetic pathways is acetylcholine

A

true

188
Q

the postganglionic neurotransmitters are

A

parasympathetic: acetylcholine (ACh)
sympathetic: norepinephrine (NE)

189
Q

Describe the anatomy and physiology of a synapse

A

the area where two neurons meet and a signal is passed from one neuron to another

190
Q

what type of chemical must cross the synapse to

stimulate the next cell?

A

neurotransmitter

191
Q

what is the function of a synapse

A

to transfer information from one cell to another

192
Q

what is meant by a graded potential

A

a weak change in a neuron’s membrane potential (on the dendrites, cell body or sensory receptor) that can vary in size and can die out (not all-or-none!)

193
Q

Differentiate between a graded potential and an action potential.

A

a graded potential will only become an action potential if threshold is met by a strong stimulus

194
Q

Explain the differences between excitatory and inhibitory post-synaptic potentials

A

excitatory post-synaptic potential (EPSP): encourages the post-synaptic cell to have an action potential by increasing its membrane voltage toward threshold and an inhibitory post-synaptic potential (IPSP): discourages the post-synaptic cell from having an action potential by decreasing its membrane voltage away from threshold

195
Q

what is the importance of having both excitatory and inhibitory post-synaptic potentials to balance each other out?

A

if you didn’t have both your body would have all sorts of action potentials at once

196
Q

the connection between a neuron and a muscle fiber

A

neuromuscular junction

197
Q

in the 3rd event of neuromuscular junction acetylcholine diffuses across space between ___________________

A

neuron and muscle fiber

198
Q

is a neuromuscular junction similar to a synapse

A

yes

199
Q

true or false, in a neuromuscular junction the neurotransmitter is always acetylcholine

A

true

200
Q

in the first event of a neuromuscular junction an __________ reaches the axon terminal end of the neuron

A

action potential

201
Q

in the second event of a neuromuscular junction exocytosis of _________ is triggered

A

acetylcholine

202
Q

skeletal muscle organ

A

muscle

203
Q

skeletal muscle thin protein filaments

A

actin

204
Q

in the 4th event of a neuromuscular junction acetylcholine binds to receptor sites on_____________ in the _____________

A

Na+ channel proteins, motor end plate

205
Q

skeletal muscle fiber intracellular structure

A

myofibril

206
Q

In the 5th event of a neuromuscular junction __ channels open,__ rushes in

A

Na+

207
Q

skeletal muscle cell

A

muscle fiber

208
Q

skeletal muscle thick protein filaments

A

(myosin)

209
Q

in the 6th event of a neuromuscular junction an _____________ begins along the muscle cell membrane

A

action potential

210
Q

dArk band

A

A band

211
Q

Structural Organization of Skeletal Muscle

A

skeletal muscle, fascicle, muscle fiber, myofibril, myofilament

212
Q

true or false in a neuromuscular junction, any neurotransmitter that lands on a receptor is an action potential

A

true

213
Q

LIght band

A

I band

214
Q

z disc

A

end of sarcomere

215
Q

middle of sarcomere

A

m line

216
Q

H zone

A

surrounds M line

217
Q

adrenaline

A

epinephrine

218
Q

norepinephrine

A

nor adrenaline

219
Q

true or false, in a neuromuscular junction there is a graded potential

A

false

220
Q

myosin filaments attach “paddles” to actin filaments and pull them, sliding the actin filaments together toward the M line

A

the sliding filament model:

221
Q

action potential causes ___________ membrane to become more permeable to Ca++

A

sarcoplasmic reticulum

222
Q

in the sliding filament model myosin filaments attach “paddles” to actin filaments and _____________, sliding the actin filaments together toward the ________

A

pull them, M line

223
Q

______ diffuses into cytosol, binds to troponin and clears actin binding sites

A

Ca++

224
Q

in the sliding filament model, the length of the filaments ____________, but the sarcomere _________ as the filaments slide past each other

A

remain the same, shortens

225
Q

basic steps in muscle contraction

A

ACh is released, binding to receptors

action potential reaches t-tubule

sarcoplasmic reticulium releases calcium

troponin & tropomyosin shift

myosin pulls actin

atp allows myosin to detach and recock

226
Q

metric

A

measurement

227
Q

true or false ATP is not made on demand

A

false

228
Q

action potential causes sarcoplasmic reticulum membrane to become more permeable to _____

A

Ca++

229
Q

tonic (muscles)

A

tension # of myosin heads that attach to actin

230
Q

red, use oxygen, slow ATPase, fatigue resistant (posture muscles)

A

slow oxidative fiber

231
Q

myosin cross bridges attach to_________binding sites and pull the actin filament

A

actin

232
Q

myosin pulls actin toward the M line using a ______ motion.

A

ratchet

233
Q

ATP is required for the myosin to detach from actin and for______ to be pumped back into the _______________

A

Ca++ , sarcoplasmic reticulum

234
Q

red, use oxygen, fast ATPase, fast fatigue (cardio workout muscles)

A

fast oxidative fiber

235
Q

true or false, myosin heads require energy from ATP to release the actin and bind again lengthwise

A

true

236
Q

in a muscle contraction, nerve impulse triggers action potential, which travels along the muscle cell ________ and into the ________ and the folds of the ____________

A

sarcolemma, T tubule, sarcoplasmic reticulum

237
Q

white, fast ATPase, no oxygen, very fast fatigue (sprinting, weight lifting)

A

fast glycolytic fiber

238
Q

in a muscle contraction an action potential causes_____________ membrane to become more permeable to Ca++

A

sarcoplasmic reticulum

239
Q

when exercise begins, the first step of skeletal muscle metabolism is when the body uses up a small amount of stored ___ that was produced during ____

A

ATP, rest

240
Q

in a muscle contraction Ca++ diffuses into________

A

cytoplasm

241
Q

when exercise begins, the second step of skeletal muscle metabolism is when ATP must be created from___, first using __________, which is stored in the ___________. This is the __________ system.

A

ADP, creatine phosphate, muscle tissue, phosphagen

242
Q

in a muscle contraction, Ca++ binds to ______ molecules on the actin filaments

A

troponin

243
Q

If blood glucose levels begin to drop_______ is taken out of storage from the________ & _____________ broken down into glucose and released into the ______.

A

Glycogen, liver and skeletal muscle tissue, blood

244
Q

______ & __________(rarely) can also be used to power cellular respiration.

A

Stored fat and protein

245
Q

when exercise begins, the third fuel source used is

A

blood glucose

246
Q

Anaerobic Glycolysis Produces___________

A

Lactate (Lactic Acid)

247
Q

muscle soreness is caused by _________ in the connective tissues.

A

microtears

248
Q

true or false contraction of muscle fibers (cells) and muscles (organs) are NOT similar

A

false

249
Q

lactic acid is picked up and used as fuel by the _______, ______ &_________

A

liver, kidneys, and heart

250
Q

the two types of muscle contractions are:

A

isometric contraction, isotonic contraction

251
Q

true or false, lactic acid creates muscle soreness

A

false

252
Q

: decreasing muscle length (muscle shortens during contraction)

A

isotonic contraction

253
Q

true or false lactic acid may remain in the cell

A

true

254
Q

lactic acid is converted back into _________ by the liver or within the cell upon reintroduction of _______

A

pyruvic acid, oxygen

255
Q

increasing muscle tension (muscle does not shorten during contraction)

A

isometric contraction:

256
Q

true or false lactic acid may diffuse into the bloodstream

A

true

257
Q

tension increases to the muscle’s capacity, but the muscle neither shortens nor lengthens

A

Isometric Contractions

258
Q

the two types of isotonic contractions are_____________

A

concentric and eccentric

259
Q

, the muscle changes in length (decreasing the angle of the joint) and moves the load

A

isotonic contractions

260
Q

occurs if the load is greater than the tension the muscle is able to develop

A

Isometric Contractions

261
Q

___________ (typically anaerobic) results in muscle hypertrophy (due to increase in fiber size)

A

resistance exercise

262
Q

results in greater endurance, strength, and resistance to fatigue

A

Aerobic Exercise

263
Q

: the muscle shortens and does work

A

concentric contractions

264
Q

may convert fast glycolytic fibers into fast oxidative fibers

A

Aerobic Exercise

265
Q

increased mitochondria, myofilaments, glycogen stores, and connective tissue

A

resistance exercise

266
Q

: the muscle lengthens and does work

A

eccentric contractions

267
Q

leads to increased:
muscle capillaries (more blood with nutrients)
number of mitochondria
myoglobin synthesis (more O2 in the muscle)

A

Aerobic Exercise

268
Q

A_________ is a single motor neuron plus all of the muscle fibers that receive acetylcholine from it

A

motor unit

269
Q

more frequent motor neuron stimulation = more frequent contractions of the muscle

A

temporal summation:

270
Q

more motor neurons stimulate muscle = more muscle fibers (motor units*) involved in the contraction (called recruitment of fibers) = stronger contraction of the muscle

A

spatial summation:

271
Q

type of receptor that adapt and the body stops noticing

A

phasic

272
Q

spends energy

A

sympathetic

273
Q

A motor unit is a single motor neuron plus all of the muscle fibers that receive ________ from it

A

acetylcholine

274
Q

saves energy

A

parasympathetic

275
Q

are skeletal muscle neurons myelinated

A

yes

276
Q

adrenaline

A

epinephrine

277
Q

nor adrenaline

A

nor epinephrine

278
Q

means to add on

A

summation

279
Q

calcium stops being released when motor neuron stops releasing __________

A

acetylcholine

280
Q

more calcium means __________ contraction

A

stronger

281
Q

humans only consciously use ____% of muscles because muscles become enlarged and smush ___________

A

70%, blood vessels

282
Q

sarcoplasmic reticulium repaire within _____

A

24 hours

283
Q

______ dump neurotransmitters for smooth muscle

A

varicosities

284
Q

another name for bundle of his

A

AV bundle

285
Q

normal adult resting heart rate

A

60- 100 bpm

286
Q

under 60 bpm

A

bradycardia

287
Q

over 100 BPM

A

tacardia

288
Q

an action potential lasts _________

A

1-2 msec

289
Q

a single muscle contraction lasts _________

A

100 msec

290
Q

each action potential releases ______into the cytoplasm

A

calcium

291
Q

a second action potential can reach the muscle fiber before relaxation is complete

A

temporal summation

292
Q

more calcium =

A

more binding sites uncovered

293
Q

more exposed binding sites =

A

more cross bridges

294
Q

more cross bridges =

A

stronger contraction

295
Q

The body alternates motor unit involvement to prevent __________

A

muscle fatigue

296
Q

the muscle is in a state of physiological inability to contract/relax

A

muscle fatigue

297
Q

ATP production fails to keep pace with ATP use (ATP deficit)

A

muscle fatigue

298
Q

only ___ of the energy released in muscle activity is useful as work

A

40%

299
Q

-ionic imbalances (K+, Ca2+, etc.) interfere with _________________

A

neuron-to-muscle communication

300
Q

which type of muscle tissue Contain actin and myosin filaments

A

smooth, cardiac, skeletal

301
Q
  • prolonged exercise damages the SR and interferes with Ca2+ regulation and release
A

muscle fatigue

302
Q

the remaining___ of energy is given off as heat

A

60%

303
Q
  • prolonged exercise damages the SR and interferes with ___ regulation and release
A

Ca2+

304
Q

dangerous heat levels are prevented by ________from the skin through dilated __________ and sweating

A

radiation of heat, blood vessels

305
Q

-ionic imbalances (K+, Ca2+, etc.) interfere with neuron-to-muscle communication

A

muscle fatigue

306
Q

which muscle type uses ATP

A

skeletal, smooth and cardiac

307
Q

skeletal muscles Controlled by ______ nervous system

A

somatic

308
Q

is skeletal muscle voluntary or involuntary

A

voluntary

309
Q

smooth muscle is controlled by_____ nervous system

A

autonomic

310
Q

is cardiac muscle voluntary or involuntary

A

involuntary

311
Q

which muscle type Contract in response to Ca++ in the cytoplasm

A

smooth, cardiac, skeletal

312
Q

is smooth muscle voluntary or involuntary

A

involuntary

313
Q

cardiac muscles are controlled by _______ nervous

system

A

autonomic

314
Q

is smooth muscle striated

A

no

315
Q

is cardiac muscle striated, branched or both

A

both

316
Q

is skeletal muscle striated, branched or both

A

striated

317
Q

Nervous system initiates contraction

A

Neurogenic:

318
Q

is skeletal muscle tissue myogenic, neurogenic or both

A

neurogenic

319
Q

Selfexcitatory, Nervous system modifies contraction but doesn’t initiate it.

A

Myogenic:

320
Q

type of muscle tissue where cells interconnected through gap junctions

A

smooth and cardiac

321
Q

in smooth muscle Neurogenic: ________ nervous system . intiates contraction

A

Autonomic

322
Q

is cardiac muscle tissue myogenic, neurogenic or both

A

myogenic

323
Q

cranial nerve that Relays olfactory sensory impulses to brain

A

Olfactory

324
Q

cranial nerve that Relays visual sensory impulses to brain

A

optic

325
Q

is smooth muscle tissue myogenic, neurogenic or both

A

both

326
Q

cranial nerve that Controls contraction of most eye muscles

A

Oculomotor

327
Q

cranial nerve that Controls tongue muscles.

A

Hypoglossal

328
Q

cranial nerve that Controls throat and voice box (larynx) muscles.

A

Accessory

329
Q

cranial nerve that Controls one eye muscle.

A

Trochlear

330
Q

cranial nerve that Controls swallowing muscles, stimulates parotid salivary gland and relays tongue and throat sensory impulses to the brain

A

Glossopharyngeal

331
Q

cranial nerve that Relays sensory impulses from eye, upper and lower jaw to brain.

A

Trigeminal

332
Q

how many cranial nerves are there

A

12

333
Q

cranial nerve that Controls one eye muscle

A

Abducens

334
Q

cranial nerve that Controls facial expression muscles, stimulates some salivary glands and lacrimal gland, and relays sensory impulses for taste to brain.

A

Facial

335
Q

cranial nerve that Relays hearing and equilibrium sensory impulses to the brain

A

Vestibulocochlear

336
Q

cranial nerve that Controls most thoracic and abdominal organs, and relays throat and voice box (larynx) sensory impulses to the brain.

A

Vagus

337
Q

blood flow thru the body

A
systemic arteries
systemic capillaries
systemic veins
right atrium
right AV (tricuspid) valve
right ventricle
pulmonary semilunar valve
pulmonary arteries
pulmonary capillaries
pulmonary veins 
left atrium
left AV (bicuspid or mitral) valve
left ventricle
aortic semilunar valve
338
Q

cardiac muscle cells are _____ – they are self-excitatory and can initiate action potentials (myogenic)

A

autorhythmic

339
Q

where is electrical activity of the heart found

A

sinoatrial (SA) node, the atrioventricular (AV) node, bundle of His (atrioventricular bundle) and Purkinje fibers

340
Q

most of the cells of the heart (99%) do not exhibit autorhythmicity under normal conditions; they are the ________ cells

A

contractile

341
Q

where is the SA node located

A

in the superior wall of the right atrium

342
Q

where is the AV node located

A

at the base of the right atrium

343
Q

generates an action potential that spreads over both atria, causing them to contract

A

SA node

344
Q

bundle of His: ____ times/minute

A

20 - 40

345
Q

70 - 80 times/minute

A

SA node (pacemaker

346
Q

40 - 60 times/minute

A

AV node

347
Q

average adult resting heart rate is ___ bpm

A

75

348
Q

Purkinje fibers:________times/minute

A

20 - 40

349
Q

delays the impulse for an average of 0.1 sec (during rest)

A

AV Node

350
Q

_____ contraction should be complete before _______contraction begins

A

Atrial, ventricular

351
Q

– wave of action potential slows down in the AV node for about 0.1 sec (during rest)

A

AV node delay

352
Q

_________ are insulated with lipids and fibrous CT to prevent electricity from moving through them

A

right and left AV valves

353
Q

________ in intercalated discs allow for action potentials to easily pass from cell to cell

A

gap junctions

354
Q

AV node delay – wave of action potential ________in the AV node for about 0.1 sec (during rest)

A

slows down

355
Q

random, uncoordinated contraction of cardiac cells

A

fibrillation:

356
Q

right and left AV valves are insulated with____ and __________ to prevent electricity from moving through them

A

lipids, fibrous CT

357
Q

: strong electrical current applied to the chest

A

defibrillation

358
Q

gap junctions in _________allow for action potentials to easily pass from cell to cell

A

intercalated discs

359
Q

right and left AV valves are insulated with lipids and fibrous CT to prevent _________ from moving through them

A

electricity

360
Q

________ cardiac cells prolong the action potential and contraction

A

Contractile

361
Q

cranial nerve I

XI. Accessory Controls throat and voice box (larynx) muscles.
XII. Hypoglossal

A

Olfactory

362
Q

cranial nerve II

A

. Optic

363
Q

do contractile cardiac cells speed up or prolong an action potential and contraction

A

prolong

364
Q

cranial nerve III.

A

Oculomotor

365
Q

slow _____ channels prolong the time it takes for an action potential to pass through an area of membrane

A

Ca++

366
Q

____ enters the cell as __exits

A

-Ca++, K+

367
Q

cranial nerve V.

A

Trigeminal

368
Q

A long refractory period prevents_____

A

tetany.

369
Q

Ca++ enters the cell as K+ exits this causes a plateau phase, which _________ depolarization

A

prolongs

370
Q

cranial nerve IV.

A

Trochlear

371
Q

cranial nerve VI.

A

Abducens

372
Q

sensory nerves

A

olfactory, optic, Vestibulocochlear

373
Q

cranial nerve VII.

A

Facial

374
Q

motor nerves

A

Oculomotor, Trochlear, Abducens, Accessory, Hypoglossal

375
Q

cranial nerve VIII.

A

Vestibulocochlear

376
Q

both sensory and motor nerves

A

Trigeminal, Facial, Glossopharyngeal, Vagus

377
Q

cranial nerve IX.

A

Glossopharyngeal

378
Q

Some Say Marry Money, But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter More!

A

sensory and motor or both

379
Q

cranial nerve X.

A

Vagus

380
Q

OOO…To Touch And Feel Very Green Velvet…AH!

A

cranial nerves

381
Q

cranial nerve XI.

A

Accessory

382
Q

cranial nerve XII.

A

Hypoglossal

383
Q

three levels of defense

A

surface barriers, innate immunity, adaptive immunity

384
Q

type of surface barrier with unbroken skin and epithelia that line tubes and cavities

A

physical

385
Q

(nonspecific - no memory of the invader)

A

surface barriers

386
Q

type of surface barrier skin oil (sebum), low pH of skin and urine, gastric juices, urinary and vaginal tracts, lysozyme (bacteria-killing enzyme in saliva and lacrimal fluid)

A

chemical

387
Q

–built-in defenses (nonspecific - no memory of the invader

A

innate immunity

388
Q

type of surface barrier cilia, mucus, flushing action of tears, saliva, urination, diarrhea, etc.

A

mechanical

389
Q

custom-made for each invader, (specific - memory of the invader that may last a lifetime)

A

adaptive immunity

390
Q

type of surface barrier crowd out invaders

A

normal bacterial flora

391
Q

patrol the interstitial fluid and phagocytize invaders and old cells

A

macrophages (WBC):

392
Q

increased blood flow to injured area

A

inflammation

393
Q

: speeds up healing enzyme reactions and slows down bacterial metabolic rate

A

fever (via hypothalamus)

394
Q

pores in capillaries enlarge

A

inflammation

395
Q

: (normally inactive) directly kill invaders by puncturing cells;

A

compliment proteins

396
Q

phagocytes (WBC) squeeze through pores to kill invaders

A

inflammation

397
Q

also work with antibodies to form a coating on the invader to mark it for death by a macrophage

A

compliment proteins (opsonization)

398
Q

are proteins in the body fluids made by B-lymphocytes specifically for each invader

A

antibodies (immunoglobulins)

399
Q

in the tissues have receptors that recognize self and non-self proteins, specific for each invader encountered

A

T-lymphocytes

400
Q

it takes about____ for B and T cells to respond in full force to a new invader;

A

a week

401
Q

true or false if the same invader shows up again, they make a stronger, faster response

A

true

402
Q

T-lymphocytes in the tissues have receptors that recognize ____ & ______ proteins, specific for each invader encountered

A

self and non-self

403
Q

why do additional synapses cause an increase in impulse travel time.

A

because the stimulus has to go through the Receptor, Afferent pathway, Integrating center, Efferent pathway, Effector organs

404
Q

functions of the nervous system

A

sensory (afferent) input
integration: interpretation of sensory input
motor (efferent) output

405
Q

5 componentss of a reflex arc

A

a stimulus activates a receptor

nerve signal travels through the sensory neuron to the CNS (afferent)

information from the nerve signal is processed in the integration center by interneurons

motor neuron transmits signal to an effector (efferent)

the effector responds to the nerve signal from the motor neuron (effector organ)

406
Q

Which type of feedback system is used to regulate the majority of the body’s hormones

A

negative

407
Q

why each hormone only affects specific cells.

A

because only target cells have special receptors for that particular hormone

408
Q

where hormones are released in the body

A

bloodstream

409
Q

temporal summation versus spatial summation

A

temporal summation

stronger stimulus = due to MORE FREQUENT release of excitatory neurotransmitter at the same synapse

spatial summation

stronger stimulus = due to a GREATER NUMBER of PRESYNAPTIC neurons releasing excitatory neurotransmitter

410
Q

Which major regulatory system has rapid electrical signals (“wired”)

A

nervous system

411
Q

Which major regulatory system has short distance chemical messengers

A

nervous system

412
Q

Which major regulatory system has long distance chemical messengers

A

endocrine system

413
Q

Which major regulatory system relies on circulatory system for transmission (“wireless”)

A

endocrine system

414
Q

Which major regulatory system response is rapid, but short in duration

A

nervous system

415
Q

Which major regulatory system response is slower, but longer in duration

A

endocrine

416
Q

CNS consists of the

A

brain and spinal cord

417
Q

Contrast afferent versus efferent

A

afferent is sensory (to the brain) and efferent is motor (away from brain)

418
Q

Peripheral Nervous System (PNS): Two Functional Divisions

A

sensory & motor

419
Q

brain plasticity and its relation to learning

A

when you learn, new connections between neurons are made; there is no new production of nerve cells

420
Q

. Explain the importance of maintaining homeostatic conditions within the area of the brain

A

if blood touches the neurons they die

421
Q

Discuss why the blood flow and blood pressure to the brain are relatively steady.

A

a constant supply of oxygen and glucose are required to supply the ATP needed

422
Q

Motor Division: Two Main Parts (PNS)

A

somatic and autonomic

423
Q

two main parts of the autonomic division ( PNS, Motor, Autonomic)

A

sympathetic & parasympathetic

424
Q

conscious sensations

A

somatic (general) sensation: touch, pressure, heat, cold, pain (variations of pain)

specialized senses: vision, hearing, taste, smell, equilibrium

425
Q

Differentiate between sensation and perception

A

sensation (awareness of stimulus)

perception (interpretation of stimulus meaning)

426
Q

Describe sensory receptor adaptation

A

receptors adapt to sustained stimulus by becoming less responsive

427
Q

only sympathetic pathways

A

most arterioles and veins, sweat glands

428
Q

neurotransmitters at effector organs:parasympathetic:

A

acetylcholine (ACh)

429
Q

neurotransmitters at effector organs sympathetic:

A

norepinephrine (NE)

430
Q

sympathetic comes out the

A

middle of back

431
Q

parasympathetic comes out the

A

brain and butt ares

432
Q

Types of Autonomic Receptors

A

cholinergic receptors (nicotinic & muscarinic)

adrenergic receptors

433
Q

levels of muscle organization

A

muscle
(organ)

muscle fiber
(cell)

myofibril
(intracellular structure)

thick protein thin protein
filaments filaments
(myosin) (actin)

434
Q

thick filaments

A

myosin

435
Q

thin filaments

A

actin

436
Q

in the sliding filament model of muscle contraction do the length of the filaments remain the same or lengthen

A

remain the same

437
Q

is required for the myosin to detach from actin and

A

ATP

438
Q

ATP is required for Ca++ to be pumped back into the

A

sarcoplasmic reticulum

439
Q

where glycogen is stored within the body

A

liver and skeletal muscle tissue

440
Q

Once exercise begins, explain the various sources of ATP for the skeletal muscle,

A

stored atp

ATP from ADP and creation phosphate

blood glucose

glycogen is broken down into glucose & released in blood

stored fat and protein

441
Q

the two types of muscle contractions are

A

isometric contraction, isotonic contraction

442
Q

the two types of isotonic contractions are

A

concentric and eccentric

443
Q

the left side of the heart pumps blood to the

A

whole body

444
Q

the right side of the heart pumps blood to the

A

lungs

445
Q

Arteries typically transport blood relatively high in

A

oxygen

446
Q

What type of cell junction is used to spread electrical impulses between cardiac muscle cells?

A

gap

447
Q

veins typically transport blood relatively ____ in oxygen

A

low

448
Q

why atrial fibrillation is typically not considered an immediate danger, while ventricular fibrillation can be life-threatening within minutes.

A

ventricular fibrillation doesn’t allow

blood to pump throughout the body

449
Q

Explain why action potentials within the heart are typically more prolonged

A

Contractile cardiac cells, slow Ca++ channels , prolonged depolarization

450
Q

How is the heart protected from experiencing tetany?

A

A long refractory period, cardiac muscle cannot be restimulated until contraction is complete