Exam 2 Study Guide Flashcards
1
Q
the area where two neurons meet and a signal is passed from one neuron to another
A
Synapse
2
Q
neurotransmitter is released into the synaptic cleft via _____________
A
exocytosis
3
Q
nerve impulses reach the axonal terminal of the presynaptic neuron and open ________; which enters terminal
A
Ca2+ channels
4
Q
postsynaptic membrane permeability changes, causing an_______________
A
excitatory (more +) or inhibitory (more -) effect: graded potential
5
Q
involves a chemical messenger (neurotransmitter) which crosses the synaptic cleft
A
Synapse
6
Q
a weak change in a neuron’s membrane potential (on the dendrites, cell body or sensory receptor) that can vary in size and can die out (not all-or-none!)
A
graded potential
7
Q
In postsynaptic membrane permeability changes ______ are more postive and ________ are more negative
A
excitatory (more +) inhibitory (more -)
8
Q
a synapse is the area where two neurons meet and a signal is _________________
A
passed from one neuron to another
9
Q
neurotransmitter crosses the synaptic cleft and binds to receptors on the __________
A
postsynaptic neuron
10
Q
can graded potentials vary in size
A
yes
11
Q
is a graded potential all of none?
A
no
12
Q
a synapse involves a chemical messenger (neurotransmitter) which crosses the
A
synaptic cleft
13
Q
a graded potential is a weak change in a neuron’s membrane potential on the ________
A
dendrites, cell body or sensory receptor
14
Q
can a graded potential die out
A
yes
15
Q
any place where one cell comes in contact with another and a signal is passed
A
synapses
16
Q
the neuron releasing the neurotransmitter is the ____
A
presynaptic neuron
17
Q
does a weak + stimulus (below threshold level) cause a lot or a few sodium gates to open
A
causes only a few sodium gates to open
18
Q
the neuron that receives the neurotransmitter
A
postsynaptic neuron
19
Q
excitatory post-synaptic potential (EPSP): encourages the post-synaptic cell to have an action potential by increasing its ________________
A
membrane voltage toward threshold
20
Q
If a few presynaptic cells release neurotransmitter (in a convergence), it may or may not be enough to trigger an action potential in the ____________
A
postsynaptic cell.
21
Q
does a strong + stimulus (reaches threshold) cause many or a few sodium gates to open?
A
many sodium gates to open
22
Q
inhibitory post-synaptic potential (IPSP): discourages the post-synaptic cell from having an action potential by ___________________
A
decreasing its membrane voltage away from threshold
23
Q
If a few presynaptic cells release ________ (in a convergence), it may or may not be enough to trigger an action potential in the postsynaptic cell.
A
neurotransmitter
24
Q
encourages 2nd cell to have action potential by trying to raise voltage toward threshold
A
excitatory post-synaptic potential
25
does inhibitory post synaptic potential encourage or discourage an action potential?
discourage
26
does excitatory post-synaptic potential encourage or discourage action potentials
encourage
27
timing or frequency
temporal
28
how many are releasing neurotransmitters
spatial summation
29
toward the brain
afferent
30
receptors for hormones
target cells
31
away from the brain
efferent
32
motor means
movement
33
stimulus means
change
34
unconscious
somatic
35
stronger stimulus in temporal summation
| is due to ___________
more frequent release of excitatory neurotransmitter at the same synapse
36
automatic
autonomic
37
fibers
axon
38
weaker stimulus in temporal summation is due to __________
less frequent release of excitatory neurotransmitter at the same synapse
39
means to change shape
plastic
40
joints and skeletal muscles are ______
external
41
internal organs are referred to as ______
viscera
42
center of homeostasis
hypothalamus
43
in temporal summation a less frequent release of excitatory neurotransmitter at the same synapse will result in a ________
weaker stimulus
44
short term
acute
45
stay in central nervous system and do not leave
inter neuron
46
the effector organ is always ____
muscles and glands
47
in temporal summation a more frequent release of excitatory neurotransmitter at the same synapse will result in a _______
stronger stimulus
48
long term
chronic
49
in spatial summation a stronger stimulus is due to a greater number of _________________
presynaptic neurons releasing excitatory neurotransmitter
50
superficial somatic pain is in the _ fibers
A
51
the time between an action potential ending at the axonal terminal
synaptic delay
52
in spatial summation a weaker stimulus is due to _______________
fewer presynaptic neurons releasing excitatory neurotransmitter
53
deep somatic pain is in the _ fibers
C
54
in spatial summation fewer presynaptic neurons releasing excitatory neurotransmitter will cause
weaker stimulus
55
in spatial summation a greater number of presynaptic neurons releasing excitatory neurotransmitter will cause a _________
stronger stimulus
56
end of the presynaptic cell and a new action potential beginning in the axon of the postsynaptic cell
synaptic delay
57
Throbbing, lasting pain is in the _ fibers
C
58
does it take longer or faster for an impulse to reach its destination with more synapses in a nerve pathway,
longer
59
initial sharp pain is in the _ fibers
A
60
are released into the bloodstream by endocrine glands
hormones
61
major regulatory systems are the ______ &_______
nervous and endocrine
62
the ______ has rapid electrical signals (“wired”)
nervous system
63
response is slower, but longer in duration
the endocrine system
64
are carried throughout the body in the blood
hormones
65
the _______ relies on circulatory system for transmission (“wireless”)
endocrine system
66
are chemical messengers made up of proteins or lipids
hormones
67
long distance chemical messengers
the endocrine system
68
act on specific target cells within other organs (or other endocrine glands), changing the activity of those cells
hormones
69
response is rapid, but short in duration
the nervous system
70
short distance chemical messengers (neurotransmitters)
the nervous system
71
are controlled through negative feedback regulation
hormones
72
a division of the nervous system that is responsible for monitoring stimuli occurring inside and outside the body
sensory (afferent) input:
73
light receptors
photoreceptors
74
type of mechanoreceptor that monitor blood pressure
baroreceptors
75
the master controlling and communicating system of the body functions
the nervous system
76
respond to touch, pressure, vibration, stretch and itch
mechanoreceptor
77
a part of the nervous system that involves interpretation of sensory input
integration
78
type of mechanoreceptors that are (stretch receptors in skeletal muscle), hearing and equilibrium receptors in the ear
proprioceptors
79
a part of that nervous system that is a response to stimuli by activating effector organs
motor (efferent) output
80
receptor that monitors changes in solute concentration
osmoreceptors
81
processes and integrates information coming from and going to the peripheral nervous system
central nervous system
82
receptor for hot and cold
thermoreceptors
83
a lot of receptors in a small area will result in
a higher acuity
84
consists of the brain and spinal cord
central nervous system
85
receptors that detect certain chemicals like smell, taste, blood O2 or CO2
chemoreceptors:
86
is there new production of nerve cells
no
87
when you learn, new connections between neurons are made
plasticity of the brain
88
the area around a sensory receptor
receptive field
89
since visceral pain afferents travel along the same pathways as somatic pain fibers, a common misdiagnosis is __________
Referred Pain
90
the homeostatic conditions in the brain are monitored and regulated _______ than those of the rest of the body
more closely
91
the blood-brain barrier is intact walls of _______ with ______ wrapped around them to keep the environment in the brain in a steady state
blood capillaries + astrocyte feet
92
receptors adapt to sustained stimulus by becoming ______
less responsive
93
Do Flow of Blood and Blood Pressure to the Brain Greatly Fluctuate?
no
94
prevents fluctuations in electrolyte concentrations within the brain
blood brain barrier
95
a constant supply of _____ & _____ are required to supply the ATP
oxygen and glucose
96
responding to pressure, touch, and smell adapt quickly (body stops noticing quickly)
phasic receptors
97
the part of the brain responsible for Sensory perception
Cerebral cortex
98
prevents harmful blood-born substances from reaching the brain
blood brain barrier
99
the part of the brain responsible for Inhibition of muscle tone
Basal nuclei
100
may respond slowly, including receptors that respond to chemical levels in the blood
tonic receptors
101
the part of the brain responsible for Relay station for all synaptic input
Thalamus
102
prevents circulating hormones from reaching the brain
blood brain barrier
103
______ & ________ are specialized tonic receptors that do not exhibit adaptation!!!
pain receptors and proprioceptors
104
the part of the brain responsible for regulation of many homeostatic functions, such as temperature control, thirst, urine output, and food intake
Hypothalamus
105
when stimulus energy (heat, sound, light, pressure…) must be converted to electrical energy (action potential)
Transduction
106
_____ is hotter than body temperature
blood
107
the part of the brain responsible for Maintenance of balance
Cerebellum
108
spends energy
sympathetic
109
another name fore diuresis
urination, micturition
110
the stronger the stimulus, the more change in ______
permeability
111
saves energy
parasympathetic
112
the part of the brain responsible for Origin of majority of peripheral cranial nerves
Brain stem (midbrain, pons, and medulla)
113
brief sharp, pricking pain arising from skin, muscles or joints
superficial somatic pain
114
cause more inflammatory chemicals (e.g., histamines, prostaglandins) to be released for healing.
Bradykinins
115
sensitive to pain-causing stimuli; important safety mechanism, but may cause suffering
nociceptors
116
burning, itching or aching of skin, muscles or joints; lasts longer than superficial & always indicates tissue destruction
deep somatic pain
117
over stimulation of ANY receptor is _________
painful
118
Tissue injury causes cells to release inflammatory chemicals including________
bradykinins (very potent pain-producers).
119
true or false.. all receptors can act as nociceptors
true
120
aching or burning of injured organs in thoracic or abdominal cavities
visceral pain
121
heavily myelinated axons that transmit impulses quickly; sensitive to weak stimuli and responsible for first sharp pain felt upon injury
A fibers
122
awareness of stimulus
sensation
123
are free nerve endings of neurons found throughout the entire body except for most of the brain
pain receptors
124
specialized senses:
vision, hearing, taste, smell, equilibrium
125
unmyelinated axons that transmit impulses more slowly; sensitive to strong stimuli and responsible for second dull or burning pain, cramping, warmth, itch, and sensual touch
C fibers
126
input about homeostatic conditions usually never reaches a ___________
conscious awareness level
127
pain receptors are found throughout the body except some parts of _____
the brain
128
the part of the brain responsible for voluntary control of movement
Cerebral cortex
129
the part of the brain responsible for Enhancement of muscle tone
Cerebellum
130
which is faster, an A fiber or a C fiber?
A fiber
131
somatic (general) sensation:
touch, pressure, heat, cold, pain (variations of pain)
132
interpretation of stimulus meaning, occur in the brain
perception
133
which fiber is unmilenated A or C?
C fiber
134
carry impulses from skin, skeletal muscles, and joints to the brain
sensory afferent fibers:
135
the part of the brain responsible for cardiovascular, respiratory, and digestive control centers
Brain stem (midbrain, pons, and medulla
136
the Peripheral Nervous System two Functional Divisions
sensory and motor
137
two divisions of the motor division are
somatic and autonomic
138
the sensory division is afferent or efferent?
afferent
139
the part of the brain responsible for Coordination of slow, sustained movements
Basal nuclei
140
transmit impulses from visceral organs to the brain
visceral afferent fibers:
141
transmits impulses from the CNS to effector organs
motor division
142
the motor division is afferent or efferent?
efferent
143
the part of the brain responsible for the Important link between nervous and endocrine systems
Hypothalamus
144
conscious control of skeletal muscles
somatic nervous system
145
the part of the brain responsible for Crude awareness of sensation
Thalamus
146
the part of the brain responsible for Language
Cerebral cortex
147
subconscious regulation of smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands through dual innervation
autonomic nervous system
148
the part of the brain responsible for Coordination and planning of skilled voluntary muscle activity
Cerebellum
149
the part of the brain responsible for Suppression of useless patterns of movements
Basal nuclei
150
two divisions of the autonomic nervous system
sympathetic and parasympathetic
151
the part of the brain responsible for Regulation of muscle reflexes involved with equilibrium and posture
Brain stem (midbrain, pons, and medulla)
152
cluster of nerve cell bodies
ganglion
153
the part of the brain responsible for some degree of consciousness
Thalamus
154
the part of the brain responsible for Extensive involvement with emotion and basic behavioral patterns
Hypothalamus
155
innervates cardiac and smooth muscle, most exocrine glands and some endocrine glands.
Autonomic division
156
is the “fight-or-flight” system
the sympathetic division
157
found on postganglionic cell bodies of all autonomic ganglia
nicotinic receptors
158
the part of the brain responsible for Role in motor control
Thalamus
159
adrenergic receptors types
alpha (α) receptors
| beta (β) receptors
160
heart rate increases, and breathing is rapid and deep
| -the skin is cool (at first), and the pupils dilate
sympathetic division
161
bind to ACh
cholinergic receptors
162
the part of the brain responsible for Reception and integration of all synaptic input from spinal cord;
arousal and activation of cerebral cortex
Brain stem (midbrain, pons, and medulla)
163
bind to norepinephrine and epinephrine
adrenergic receptors
164
blood flow to organs is reduced, flow to muscles is increased
sympathetic division
165
the part of the brain responsible for Role in sleep-wake cycle
Brain stem (midbrain, pons, and medulla)
166
each neurotransmitter can _____ activity on some organs and ______ activity in others
stimulate, inhibit
167
found on effector cell membranes
muscarinic receptors
168
involves E activities – exercise, excitement, emergency, and embarrassment AND FEAR
sympathetic
169
the part of the brain responsible for Sophisticated mental events, such as thinking memory, decision making, creativity, and self-consciousness
cerebral cortex
170
response depends on the ________ on the tissue cells
type of receptor
171
the types of autonomic receptors are
cholinergic receptors – bind to ACh
adrenergic receptors – bind to norepinephrine and epinephrine
172
is a Modified Part of the Sympathetic Nervous System
The Adrenal Medulla
173
```
pupils of the eye dilate
sweating occurs
heart rate increases
bronchioles dilate
motility for digestion is inhibited
liver: glycogen is converted into glucose
urine production is inhibited
```
sympathetic division
174
involves the D activities – digestion, defecation, and diuresis
parasympathetic division
175
reinforces the effect of the sympathetic nerve pathways
The Adrenal Medulla
176
true or false most organs are innervated by both parasympathetic and sympathetic pathways,
true
177
innervates cardiac and smooth muscle, most exocrine glands and some endocrine glands
Autonomic Nervous System
178
produces norepinephrine (20%) and epinephrine (80%)
The Adrenal Medulla
179
concerned with keeping body energy use low
parasympathetic division
180
neurotransmitters at effector organs (parasympathetic)
acetylcholine (ACh)
181
releases norepinephrine and epinephrine into the blood as hormones instead of as messengers to the postganglionic fiber
The Adrenal Medulla
182
rest-and-digest” or “feed-and-breed” system
parasympathetic division
183
an autonomic nerve pathway has two neurons:
a preganglionic fiber and postganglionic fiber
184
most arterioles and veins. as well as sweat glands
only sympathetic pathways
185
neurotransmitters at effector organs (sympathetic):
norepinephrine
186
gastrointestinal tract activity, blood flow to kidneys and urine production are increased
parasympathetic division
187
true or false preganglionic neurotransmitter in both sympathetic and parasympathetic pathways is acetylcholine
true
188
the postganglionic neurotransmitters are
parasympathetic: acetylcholine (ACh)
sympathetic: norepinephrine (NE)
189
Describe the anatomy and physiology of a synapse
the area where two neurons meet and a signal is passed from one neuron to another
190
what type of chemical must cross the synapse to
| stimulate the next cell?
neurotransmitter
191
what is the function of a synapse
to transfer information from one cell to another
192
what is meant by a graded potential
a weak change in a neuron’s membrane potential (on the dendrites, cell body or sensory receptor) that can vary in size and can die out (not all-or-none!)
193
Differentiate between a graded potential and an action potential.
a graded potential will only become an action potential if threshold is met by a strong stimulus
194
Explain the differences between excitatory and inhibitory post-synaptic potentials
excitatory post-synaptic potential (EPSP): encourages the post-synaptic cell to have an action potential by increasing its membrane voltage toward threshold and an inhibitory post-synaptic potential (IPSP): discourages the post-synaptic cell from having an action potential by decreasing its membrane voltage away from threshold
195
what is the importance of having both excitatory and inhibitory post-synaptic potentials to balance each other out?
if you didn't have both your body would have all sorts of action potentials at once
196
the connection between a neuron and a muscle fiber
neuromuscular junction
197
in the 3rd event of neuromuscular junction acetylcholine diffuses across space between ___________________
neuron and muscle fiber
198
is a neuromuscular junction similar to a synapse
yes
199
true or false, in a neuromuscular junction the neurotransmitter is always acetylcholine
true
200
in the first event of a neuromuscular junction an __________ reaches the axon terminal end of the neuron
action potential
201
in the second event of a neuromuscular junction exocytosis of _________ is triggered
acetylcholine
202
skeletal muscle organ
muscle
203
skeletal muscle thin protein filaments
actin
204
in the 4th event of a neuromuscular junction acetylcholine binds to receptor sites on_____________ in the _____________
Na+ channel proteins, motor end plate
205
skeletal muscle fiber intracellular structure
myofibril
206
In the 5th event of a neuromuscular junction __ channels open,__ rushes in
Na+
207
skeletal muscle cell
muscle fiber
208
skeletal muscle thick protein filaments
(myosin)
209
in the 6th event of a neuromuscular junction an _____________ begins along the muscle cell membrane
action potential
210
dArk band
A band
211
Structural Organization of Skeletal Muscle
skeletal muscle, fascicle, muscle fiber, myofibril, myofilament
212
true or false in a neuromuscular junction, any neurotransmitter that lands on a receptor is an action potential
true
213
LIght band
I band
214
z disc
end of sarcomere
215
middle of sarcomere
m line
216
H zone
surrounds M line
217
adrenaline
epinephrine
218
norepinephrine
nor adrenaline
219
true or false, in a neuromuscular junction there is a graded potential
false
220
myosin filaments attach “paddles” to actin filaments and pull them, sliding the actin filaments together toward the M line
the sliding filament model:
221
action potential causes ___________ membrane to become more permeable to Ca++
sarcoplasmic reticulum
222
in the sliding filament model myosin filaments attach “paddles” to actin filaments and _____________, sliding the actin filaments together toward the ________
pull them, M line
223
______ diffuses into cytosol, binds to troponin and clears actin binding sites
Ca++
224
in the sliding filament model, the length of the filaments ____________, but the sarcomere _________ as the filaments slide past each other
remain the same, shortens
225
basic steps in muscle contraction
ACh is released, binding to receptors
action potential reaches t-tubule
sarcoplasmic reticulium releases calcium
troponin & tropomyosin shift
myosin pulls actin
atp allows myosin to detach and recock
226
metric
measurement
227
true or false ATP is not made on demand
false
228
action potential causes sarcoplasmic reticulum membrane to become more permeable to _____
Ca++
229
tonic (muscles)
tension # of myosin heads that attach to actin
230
red, use oxygen, slow ATPase, fatigue resistant (posture muscles)
slow oxidative fiber
231
myosin cross bridges attach to_________binding sites and pull the actin filament
actin
232
myosin pulls actin toward the M line using a ______ motion.
ratchet
233
ATP is required for the myosin to detach from actin and for______ to be pumped back into the _______________
Ca++ , sarcoplasmic reticulum
234
red, use oxygen, fast ATPase, fast fatigue (cardio workout muscles)
fast oxidative fiber
235
true or false, myosin heads require energy from ATP to release the actin and bind again lengthwise
true
236
in a muscle contraction, nerve impulse triggers action potential, which travels along the muscle cell ________ and into the ________ and the folds of the ____________
sarcolemma, T tubule, sarcoplasmic reticulum
237
white, fast ATPase, no oxygen, very fast fatigue (sprinting, weight lifting)
fast glycolytic fiber
238
in a muscle contraction an action potential causes_____________ membrane to become more permeable to Ca++
sarcoplasmic reticulum
239
when exercise begins, the first step of skeletal muscle metabolism is when the body uses up a small amount of stored ___ that was produced during ____
ATP, rest
240
in a muscle contraction Ca++ diffuses into________
cytoplasm
241
when exercise begins, the second step of skeletal muscle metabolism is when ATP must be created from___, first using __________, which is stored in the ___________. This is the __________ system.
ADP, creatine phosphate, muscle tissue, phosphagen
242
in a muscle contraction, Ca++ binds to ______ molecules on the actin filaments
troponin
243
If blood glucose levels begin to drop_______ is taken out of storage from the________ & _____________ broken down into glucose and released into the ______.
Glycogen, liver and skeletal muscle tissue, blood
244
______ & __________(rarely) can also be used to power cellular respiration.
Stored fat and protein
245
when exercise begins, the third fuel source used is
blood glucose
246
Anaerobic Glycolysis Produces___________
Lactate (Lactic Acid)
247
muscle soreness is caused by _________ in the connective tissues.
microtears
248
true or false contraction of muscle fibers (cells) and muscles (organs) are NOT similar
false
249
lactic acid is picked up and used as fuel by the _______, ______ &_________
liver, kidneys, and heart
250
the two types of muscle contractions are:
isometric contraction, isotonic contraction
251
true or false, lactic acid creates muscle soreness
false
252
: decreasing muscle length (muscle shortens during contraction)
isotonic contraction
253
true or false lactic acid may remain in the cell
true
254
lactic acid is converted back into _________ by the liver or within the cell upon reintroduction of _______
pyruvic acid, oxygen
255
increasing muscle tension (muscle does not shorten during contraction)
isometric contraction:
256
true or false lactic acid may diffuse into the bloodstream
true
257
tension increases to the muscle’s capacity, but the muscle neither shortens nor lengthens
Isometric Contractions
258
the two types of isotonic contractions are_____________
concentric and eccentric
259
, the muscle changes in length (decreasing the angle of the joint) and moves the load
isotonic contractions
260
occurs if the load is greater than the tension the muscle is able to develop
Isometric Contractions
261
___________ (typically anaerobic) results in muscle hypertrophy (due to increase in fiber size)
resistance exercise
262
results in greater endurance, strength, and resistance to fatigue
Aerobic Exercise
263
: the muscle shortens and does work
concentric contractions
264
may convert fast glycolytic fibers into fast oxidative fibers
Aerobic Exercise
265
increased mitochondria, myofilaments, glycogen stores, and connective tissue
resistance exercise
266
: the muscle lengthens and does work
eccentric contractions
267
leads to increased:
muscle capillaries (more blood with nutrients)
number of mitochondria
myoglobin synthesis (more O2 in the muscle)
Aerobic Exercise
268
A_________ is a single motor neuron plus all of the muscle fibers that receive acetylcholine from it
motor unit
269
more frequent motor neuron stimulation = more frequent contractions of the muscle
temporal summation:
270
more motor neurons stimulate muscle = more muscle fibers (motor units*) involved in the contraction (called recruitment of fibers) = stronger contraction of the muscle
spatial summation:
271
type of receptor that adapt and the body stops noticing
phasic
272
spends energy
sympathetic
273
A motor unit is a single motor neuron plus all of the muscle fibers that receive ________ from it
acetylcholine
274
saves energy
parasympathetic
275
are skeletal muscle neurons myelinated
yes
276
adrenaline
epinephrine
277
nor adrenaline
nor epinephrine
278
means to add on
summation
279
calcium stops being released when motor neuron stops releasing __________
acetylcholine
280
more calcium means __________ contraction
stronger
281
humans only consciously use ____% of muscles because muscles become enlarged and smush ___________
70%, blood vessels
282
sarcoplasmic reticulium repaire within _____
24 hours
283
______ dump neurotransmitters for smooth muscle
varicosities
284
another name for bundle of his
AV bundle
285
normal adult resting heart rate
60- 100 bpm
286
under 60 bpm
bradycardia
287
over 100 BPM
tacardia
288
an action potential lasts _________
1-2 msec
289
a single muscle contraction lasts _________
100 msec
290
each action potential releases ______into the cytoplasm
calcium
291
a second action potential can reach the muscle fiber before relaxation is complete
temporal summation
292
more calcium =
more binding sites uncovered
293
more exposed binding sites =
more cross bridges
294
more cross bridges =
stronger contraction
295
The body alternates motor unit involvement to prevent __________
muscle fatigue
296
the muscle is in a state of physiological inability to contract/relax
muscle fatigue
297
ATP production fails to keep pace with ATP use (ATP deficit)
muscle fatigue
298
only ___ of the energy released in muscle activity is useful as work
40%
299
-ionic imbalances (K+, Ca2+, etc.) interfere with _________________
neuron-to-muscle communication
300
which type of muscle tissue Contain actin and myosin filaments
smooth, cardiac, skeletal
301
- prolonged exercise damages the SR and interferes with Ca2+ regulation and release
muscle fatigue
302
the remaining___ of energy is given off as heat
60%
303
- prolonged exercise damages the SR and interferes with ___ regulation and release
Ca2+
304
dangerous heat levels are prevented by ________from the skin through dilated __________ and sweating
radiation of heat, blood vessels
305
-ionic imbalances (K+, Ca2+, etc.) interfere with neuron-to-muscle communication
muscle fatigue
306
which muscle type uses ATP
skeletal, smooth and cardiac
307
skeletal muscles Controlled by ______ nervous system
somatic
308
is skeletal muscle voluntary or involuntary
voluntary
309
smooth muscle is controlled by_____ nervous system
autonomic
310
is cardiac muscle voluntary or involuntary
involuntary
311
which muscle type Contract in response to Ca++ in the cytoplasm
smooth, cardiac, skeletal
312
is smooth muscle voluntary or involuntary
involuntary
313
cardiac muscles are controlled by _______ nervous
| system
autonomic
314
is smooth muscle striated
no
315
is cardiac muscle striated, branched or both
both
316
is skeletal muscle striated, branched or both
striated
317
Nervous system initiates contraction
Neurogenic:
318
is skeletal muscle tissue myogenic, neurogenic or both
neurogenic
319
Selfexcitatory, Nervous system modifies contraction but doesn’t initiate it.
Myogenic:
320
type of muscle tissue where cells interconnected through gap junctions
smooth and cardiac
321
in smooth muscle Neurogenic: ________ nervous system . intiates contraction
Autonomic
322
is cardiac muscle tissue myogenic, neurogenic or both
myogenic
323
cranial nerve that Relays olfactory sensory impulses to brain
Olfactory
324
cranial nerve that Relays visual sensory impulses to brain
optic
325
is smooth muscle tissue myogenic, neurogenic or both
both
326
cranial nerve that Controls contraction of most eye muscles
Oculomotor
327
cranial nerve that Controls tongue muscles.
Hypoglossal
328
cranial nerve that Controls throat and voice box (larynx) muscles.
Accessory
329
cranial nerve that Controls one eye muscle.
Trochlear
330
cranial nerve that Controls swallowing muscles, stimulates parotid salivary gland and relays tongue and throat sensory impulses to the brain
Glossopharyngeal
331
cranial nerve that Relays sensory impulses from eye, upper and lower jaw to brain.
Trigeminal
332
how many cranial nerves are there
12
333
cranial nerve that Controls one eye muscle
Abducens
334
cranial nerve that Controls facial expression muscles, stimulates some salivary glands and lacrimal gland, and relays sensory impulses for taste to brain.
Facial
335
cranial nerve that Relays hearing and equilibrium sensory impulses to the brain
Vestibulocochlear
336
cranial nerve that Controls most thoracic and abdominal organs, and relays throat and voice box (larynx) sensory impulses to the brain.
Vagus
337
blood flow thru the body
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systemic arteries
systemic capillaries
systemic veins
right atrium
right AV (tricuspid) valve
right ventricle
pulmonary semilunar valve
pulmonary arteries
pulmonary capillaries
pulmonary veins
left atrium
left AV (bicuspid or mitral) valve
left ventricle
aortic semilunar valve
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338
cardiac muscle cells are _____ – they are self-excitatory and can initiate action potentials (myogenic)
autorhythmic
339
where is electrical activity of the heart found
sinoatrial (SA) node, the atrioventricular (AV) node, bundle of His (atrioventricular bundle) and Purkinje fibers
340
most of the cells of the heart (99%) do not exhibit autorhythmicity under normal conditions; they are the ________ cells
contractile
341
where is the SA node located
in the superior wall of the right atrium
342
where is the AV node located
at the base of the right atrium
343
generates an action potential that spreads over both atria, causing them to contract
SA node
344
bundle of His: ____ times/minute
20 - 40
345
70 - 80 times/minute
SA node (pacemaker
346
40 - 60 times/minute
AV node
347
average adult resting heart rate is ___ bpm
75
348
Purkinje fibers:________times/minute
20 - 40
349
delays the impulse for an average of 0.1 sec (during rest)
AV Node
350
_____ contraction should be complete before _______contraction begins
Atrial, ventricular
351
– wave of action potential slows down in the AV node for about 0.1 sec (during rest)
AV node delay
352
_________ are insulated with lipids and fibrous CT to prevent electricity from moving through them
right and left AV valves
353
________ in intercalated discs allow for action potentials to easily pass from cell to cell
gap junctions
354
AV node delay – wave of action potential ________in the AV node for about 0.1 sec (during rest)
slows down
355
random, uncoordinated contraction of cardiac cells
fibrillation:
356
right and left AV valves are insulated with____ and __________ to prevent electricity from moving through them
lipids, fibrous CT
357
: strong electrical current applied to the chest
defibrillation
358
gap junctions in _________allow for action potentials to easily pass from cell to cell
intercalated discs
359
right and left AV valves are insulated with lipids and fibrous CT to prevent _________ from moving through them
electricity
360
________ cardiac cells prolong the action potential and contraction
Contractile
361
cranial nerve I
XI. Accessory Controls throat and voice box (larynx) muscles.
XII. Hypoglossal
Olfactory
362
cranial nerve II
. Optic
363
do contractile cardiac cells speed up or prolong an action potential and contraction
prolong
364
cranial nerve III.
Oculomotor
365
slow _____ channels prolong the time it takes for an action potential to pass through an area of membrane
Ca++
366
____ enters the cell as __exits
-Ca++, K+
367
cranial nerve V.
Trigeminal
368
A long refractory period prevents_____
tetany.
369
Ca++ enters the cell as K+ exits this causes a plateau phase, which _________ depolarization
prolongs
370
cranial nerve IV.
Trochlear
371
cranial nerve VI.
Abducens
372
sensory nerves
olfactory, optic, Vestibulocochlear
373
cranial nerve VII.
Facial
374
motor nerves
Oculomotor, Trochlear, Abducens, Accessory, Hypoglossal
375
cranial nerve VIII.
Vestibulocochlear
376
both sensory and motor nerves
Trigeminal, Facial, Glossopharyngeal, Vagus
377
cranial nerve IX.
Glossopharyngeal
378
Some Say Marry Money, But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter More!
sensory and motor or both
379
cranial nerve X.
Vagus
380
OOO…To Touch And Feel Very Green Velvet…AH!
cranial nerves
381
cranial nerve XI.
Accessory
382
cranial nerve XII.
Hypoglossal
383
three levels of defense
surface barriers, innate immunity, adaptive immunity
384
type of surface barrier with unbroken skin and epithelia that line tubes and cavities
physical
385
(nonspecific - no memory of the invader)
surface barriers
386
type of surface barrier skin oil (sebum), low pH of skin and urine, gastric juices, urinary and vaginal tracts, lysozyme (bacteria-killing enzyme in saliva and lacrimal fluid)
chemical
387
–built-in defenses (nonspecific - no memory of the invader
innate immunity
388
type of surface barrier cilia, mucus, flushing action of tears, saliva, urination, diarrhea, etc.
mechanical
389
custom-made for each invader, (specific - memory of the invader that may last a lifetime)
adaptive immunity
390
type of surface barrier crowd out invaders
normal bacterial flora
391
patrol the interstitial fluid and phagocytize invaders and old cells
macrophages (WBC):
392
increased blood flow to injured area
inflammation
393
: speeds up healing enzyme reactions and slows down bacterial metabolic rate
fever (via hypothalamus)
394
pores in capillaries enlarge
inflammation
395
: (normally inactive) directly kill invaders by puncturing cells;
compliment proteins
396
phagocytes (WBC) squeeze through pores to kill invaders
inflammation
397
also work with antibodies to form a coating on the invader to mark it for death by a macrophage
compliment proteins (opsonization)
398
are proteins in the body fluids made by B-lymphocytes specifically for each invader
antibodies (immunoglobulins)
399
in the tissues have receptors that recognize self and non-self proteins, specific for each invader encountered
T-lymphocytes
400
it takes about____ for B and T cells to respond in full force to a new invader;
a week
401
true or false if the same invader shows up again, they make a stronger, faster response
true
402
T-lymphocytes in the tissues have receptors that recognize ____ & ______ proteins, specific for each invader encountered
self and non-self
403
why do additional synapses cause an increase in impulse travel time.
because the stimulus has to go through the Receptor, Afferent pathway, Integrating center, Efferent pathway, Effector organs
404
functions of the nervous system
sensory (afferent) input
integration: interpretation of sensory input
motor (efferent) output
405
5 componentss of a reflex arc
a stimulus activates a receptor
nerve signal travels through the sensory neuron to the CNS (afferent)
information from the nerve signal is processed in the integration center by interneurons
motor neuron transmits signal to an effector (efferent)
the effector responds to the nerve signal from the motor neuron (effector organ)
406
Which type of feedback system is used to regulate the majority of the body’s hormones
negative
407
why each hormone only affects specific cells.
because only target cells have special receptors for that particular hormone
408
where hormones are released in the body
bloodstream
409
temporal summation versus spatial summation
temporal summation
stronger stimulus = due to MORE FREQUENT release of excitatory neurotransmitter at the same synapse
spatial summation
stronger stimulus = due to a GREATER NUMBER of PRESYNAPTIC neurons releasing excitatory neurotransmitter
410
Which major regulatory system has rapid electrical signals (“wired”)
nervous system
411
Which major regulatory system has short distance chemical messengers
nervous system
412
Which major regulatory system has long distance chemical messengers
endocrine system
413
Which major regulatory system relies on circulatory system for transmission (“wireless”)
endocrine system
414
Which major regulatory system response is rapid, but short in duration
nervous system
415
Which major regulatory system response is slower, but longer in duration
endocrine
416
CNS consists of the
brain and spinal cord
417
Contrast afferent versus efferent
afferent is sensory (to the brain) and efferent is motor (away from brain)
418
Peripheral Nervous System (PNS): Two Functional Divisions
sensory & motor
419
brain plasticity and its relation to learning
when you learn, new connections between neurons are made; there is no new production of nerve cells
420
. Explain the importance of maintaining homeostatic conditions within the area of the brain
if blood touches the neurons they die
421
Discuss why the blood flow and blood pressure to the brain are relatively steady.
a constant supply of oxygen and glucose are required to supply the ATP needed
422
Motor Division: Two Main Parts (PNS)
somatic and autonomic
423
two main parts of the autonomic division ( PNS, Motor, Autonomic)
sympathetic & parasympathetic
424
conscious sensations
somatic (general) sensation: touch, pressure, heat, cold, pain (variations of pain)
specialized senses: vision, hearing, taste, smell, equilibrium
425
Differentiate between sensation and perception
sensation (awareness of stimulus)
perception (interpretation of stimulus meaning)
426
Describe sensory receptor adaptation
receptors adapt to sustained stimulus by becoming less responsive
427
only sympathetic pathways
most arterioles and veins, sweat glands
428
neurotransmitters at effector organs:parasympathetic:
acetylcholine (ACh)
429
neurotransmitters at effector organs sympathetic:
norepinephrine (NE)
430
sympathetic comes out the
middle of back
431
parasympathetic comes out the
brain and butt ares
432
Types of Autonomic Receptors
cholinergic receptors (nicotinic & muscarinic)
adrenergic receptors
433
levels of muscle organization
muscle
(organ)
muscle fiber
(cell)
myofibril
(intracellular structure)
thick protein thin protein
filaments filaments
(myosin) (actin)
434
thick filaments
myosin
435
thin filaments
actin
436
in the sliding filament model of muscle contraction do the length of the filaments remain the same or lengthen
remain the same
437
is required for the myosin to detach from actin and
ATP
438
ATP is required for Ca++ to be pumped back into the
sarcoplasmic reticulum
439
where glycogen is stored within the body
liver and skeletal muscle tissue
440
Once exercise begins, explain the various sources of ATP for the skeletal muscle,
stored atp
ATP from ADP and creation phosphate
blood glucose
glycogen is broken down into glucose & released in blood
stored fat and protein
441
the two types of muscle contractions are
isometric contraction, isotonic contraction
442
the two types of isotonic contractions are
concentric and eccentric
443
the left side of the heart pumps blood to the
whole body
444
the right side of the heart pumps blood to the
lungs
445
Arteries typically transport blood relatively high in
oxygen
446
What type of cell junction is used to spread electrical impulses between cardiac muscle cells?
gap
447
veins typically transport blood relatively ____ in oxygen
low
448
why atrial fibrillation is typically not considered an immediate danger, while ventricular fibrillation can be life-threatening within minutes.
ventricular fibrillation doesn't allow
| blood to pump throughout the body
449
Explain why action potentials within the heart are typically more prolonged
Contractile cardiac cells, slow Ca++ channels , prolonged depolarization
450
How is the heart protected from experiencing tetany?
A long refractory period, cardiac muscle cannot be restimulated until contraction is complete
