lab exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

is cardiac muscle neurogenic or myogenic

A

myogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is the difference beween a neurogenic muscle and a myogenic muscle?

A

neurogenic- nervous system initiates

myogenic- self generating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

if cardiac muscle were suddenly under the influence of the sympathetic nervous system, heart rate would _______ and contraction force would _______

A

increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

would you find greater concentration of sodium ions inside or outside of a cardiac muscle cell

A

outside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

in the cardiac muscle lab what solution was used to keep the frog heart moist

A

ringers solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

if cardiac muscle were suddenly under the influence of the parasympathetic nervous system, heart rate would _______ and contraction force would _______

A

decrease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

would you find greater concentration of potassium ions inside or outside of a cardiac muscle cell

A

inside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

in the cardiac muscle lab an ___ inch fish hook was used

A

18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

in the cardiac muscle lab the fishhook is placed on a ___ angle

A

right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

in the cardiac muscle lab when reading the heart rate the first bump is the ____________ and the second bump is the _______________

A

atrial contraction

ventricle contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

in the cardiac muscle lab when added norepinephrine the heart rate ______ and the rate/force ________

A

increases, increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

in the cardiac muscle lab when added acetylcholine the heart rate ______ and the rate/force ________

A

decreases, decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

in the cardiac muscle lab when added atropine the heart rate ______ and the rate/force ________

A

increases, increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

in the cardiac muscle lab when added NaCl the heart rate ______ and the rate/force ________

A

increases, increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

in the cardiac muscle lab when added KCl the heart rate ______ and the rate/force ________

A

decreases, decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

in the cardiac muscle lab when added calcium chloride the heart rate ______ and the rate/force ________

A

decreases, increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

in the cardiac muscle lab the ______ of the heart is removed

A

pericardium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

in the cardiac muscle lab how do you figure out beats per minute when reading heart rate

A

60 seconds divided by wave duration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

in the cardiac muscle lab how do you calculate wave duration

A

M marker at the peak of the wave, cursor at the next peak

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

in the cardiac muscle lab how do you measure contraction force

A

M marker at the base of the wave, cursor at the peak

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

in the cardiac muscle lab under what conditions will norepinephrine be released

A

sympathetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

in the cardiac muscle lab what is the effect of norepinephrine on heart rate and contractility

A

they will go up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

in the cardiac muscle lab under what types of conditions will ACh be released

A

parasympathetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

in the cardiac muscle lab what is the effect of ACh on heart rate and contractility

A

they will go down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

in the cardiac muscle lab what is the effect of atropine on heart rate and contractility

A

they will go up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

in the cardiac muscle lab how does excess sodium effect the heart

A

rate and contractility go up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

in the cardiac muscle lab how does excess potassium effect the heart

A

rate and contractility go down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

in the cardiac muscle lab how does excess calcium effect the heart

A

rate goes down and contractility goes up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

in the cardiac muscle lab what occurred when epinephrine was added to the frogs heart?

A

when epinephrine was added to the frogs heart, the heart rate (beats per minute) increased. However, atrial wave amplitude and ventricular wave amplitude decreased.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

in the cardiac muscle lab what happened when acetylcholine was added to the frogs heart?

A

when ACh was added to the frogs heart the heart rate (bpm) decreased, as did the atrial wave amplitude. Note, ventricular wave amplitude increased as a result of adding ACh.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

in the cardiac muscle lab what happened when atropine was added to the frogs heart?

A

when atropine was added to the frogs heart, heart rate increased ( beats per minute). however, atrial wave and ventricular wave decreased.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

in the cardiac muscle lab on a cellular level what is the mode of action of atropine?

A

atropine blocks the action of the Vagus nerve. Atropine is an antagonist of Acetylcholine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

In the intestinal motility lab when norepinephrine is added to the gut, the activity _______

A

decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

In the intestinal motility lab when ACH is added to the gut, the activity _______

A

increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

In the intestinal motility lab when atropine is added to the gut, the activity _______

A

decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what type of muscle is found within the walls of the small intestine

A

smooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

is the muscle within the wall of the small intestine myogenic, neurogenic or both

A

both. myogenic because they move on their own and neurogenic because they respond to autonomic nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

name the two types of motility seen in the small intestine

A

peristalsis ( wave like propulsion, push forward)

segmentation (shaking/mixing)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

would you expect motility to increase or decrease if the small intestine were being stimulated by the sympathetic nervous system

A

decrease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what kind of intestine was used In the intestinal motility lab

A

rat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

In the intestinal motility lab what is the solution used to keep the intestine saturated

A

tyrode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

In the intestinal motility lab what is the ideal temperature because it mimic body temp

A

37 degrees C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

would you expect motility to increase or decrease if the small intestine were being stimulated by the parasympathetic nervous system

A

increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

In the intestinal motility lab what chemicals were used

A

norepinephrine, acetylcholine, atropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

In the intestinal motility lab what is used to keep the temperature

A

alcohol lamp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

In the intestinal motility lab temperatures must be between ______ to keep the intestine alive

A

36-39 degrees C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

In the intestinal motility lab how do you determine duration of a wave

A

M marker at the peak of a wave and cursor at the next peak

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

In the intestinal motility lab how do you calculate contractions per minute

A

divide 60 by the duration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

In the intestinal motility lab how do you determine amplitude of a wave

A

M marker at base, cursor at peak

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

In the intestinal motility lab Rhythmic Contractions of Intestinal Muscle are initiated by

A

Rhythmic Contractions of Intestinal Muscle are initiated by

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

In the intestinal motility lab Epinephrine on gut muscle

A

Decreased Motility/ Slowed Down Contraction of Intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

In the intestinal motility lab ACH (Acetylcholine) on gut muscle

A

Increased Motility/ Speeds Up Contraction of Intestine, Increased secretions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

In the intestinal motility lab what are these contractions called

A

Peristalsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

In the intestinal motility lab Atropine on gut muscle

A

Decreased, Slows down contractions (ACh antagonist)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

In the intestinal motility lab What occurs to gut muscle during exercise

A

Sympathetic stimulation which releases neurotransmitter Epinephrine this causes an increase in heart rate and a decrease in intestinal motility (gut activity). Parasympathetic activity is inhibited.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

In the intestinal motility lab What occurs to gut muscle during rest

A

Parasympathetic stimulation which releases neurotransmitter ACh (Acteylcholine) causing a decrease in heartrate and an increase in intestinal motility (gut activity). Sympathetic activity is inhibited.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

In the intestinal motility lab Explain Atropine’s effect on the gut muscle

A

Blocks the effect of ACh.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

in the electrocardiogram lab the ____ is an indirect measurement of the electrical activity of the heart. Electrical changes which occur during depolarization and repolarization of the heart are amplified and displayed in a graphic record

A

ECG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

in the electrocardiogram lab is it electrical or mechanical if SA node autorhythmically depolarizes

A

electrical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

in the electrocardiogram lab is it electrical or mechanical if wave of depolarization spreads through the cardiac muscle cells of the atria

A

electrical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

in the electrocardiogram lab is it electrical or mechanical if atrial muscle cells contract

A

mechanical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

in the electrocardiogram lab is it electrical or mechanical if action potential is delayed at the AV node

A

electrical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

in the electrocardiogram lab is it electrical or mechanical if depolarization moves through the bundle of his and the purkinje fibers

A

electrical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

in the electrocardiogram lab is it electrical or mechanical if wave of depolarization spreads through the cardiac muscle cells of the ventricle

A

electrical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

in the electrocardiogram lab is it electrical or mechanical if ventricular muscle cells contract

A

mechanical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

in the electrocardiogram lab what does the P wave represent

A

atrial depolarization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

in the electrocardiogram lab what does the QRS complex represent

A

ventricular depolarization or atrial repolarization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

in the electrocardiogram lab what does the T wave represent

A

ventricular repolarization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

in the electrocardiogram lab 1 large square = ____ small squares and ____ seconds

A

5 squares, 0.2 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

in the electrocardiogram lab 5 large square = ____ seconds

A

one second

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

in the electrocardiogram lab 30 large square = ____ second

A

6 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

in the electrocardiogram lab the paper speed is ___ small squares/second

A

25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

in the electrocardiogram lab one small square is ___ seconds

A

0.04

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

in the electrocardiogram lab after the S in the QRS complex lab is the _______ line

A

isoelectric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

in the electrocardiogram lab what is occurring during the PR interval

A

atria will contract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

in the electrocardiogram lab what is occurring during the ST interval

A

ventricles will contract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

in the electrocardiogram lab what is the normal duration of the P wave _____ seconds and more than __ small square but less than _____ small squares

A

0.06- 0.11 seconds, more than 1 square but less than 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

in the electrocardiogram lab what is the normal duration of the QRS complex? less than ____ seconds and less than ___ small square

A

less than 0.12 seconds & less than 3 small squares

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

in the electrocardiogram lab how much time elapses between the start of the QRS and the start of the thumb pulse

A

0.32 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

in the electrocardiogram lab what are the 3 specific reasons that there is a delay in time between the start of the QRS complex and the start of the thumb pulse

A

ventricles take time to depolarize

ventricles take time to contract

travel of pulse wave to the thumb takes place

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

in the electrocardiogram lab can you wear jewelry

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

in the electrocardiogram lab what electrode placement do we use

A

lead II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

in the electrocardiogram lab can you move or talk

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

in the electrocardiogram lab how do you determine BPM

A

60 divided by duration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

in the electrocardiogram lab how do you calculate pulse transit time

A

M marker at start of QRS in channel 3, cursor at start of next thumb pulse in channel 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

in the electrocardiogram lab lead I, left arm ____, right arm ___ & left leg ____

A

black, white, green

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

in the electrocardiogram lab lead II, left arm ____, right arm ___ & left leg ____

A

green, white, black

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

in the electrocardiogram lab lead III, left arm ____, right arm ___ & left leg ____

A

white, green, black

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

in the electrocardiogram lab how many electrodes are used

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

in the electrocardiogram lab was a dutch scientist who developed the first external mechanism for recording small electrical waves produced by the heart

A

willem einthoven

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

in the blood pressure lab the most common, indirect means of measuring blood pressure is done by using a ______ and a _______

A

sphygmomanometer, stethoscope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

in the blood pressure lab when measuring blood pressure the sound occurs in the ________ as the pressure of the cuff is lowered

A

brachial artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

in the blood pressure lab the pressure of the cuff _____ the artery

A

collapses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

in the blood pressure lab when the cuff pressure being to fall below the ______ pressure in the artery, blood begins to to the arm. This flow is _______ rather than streamlined

A

systolic. turbulent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

in the blood pressure lab the sound that you hear once you release the cuff

A

korotkoff sounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

in the blood pressure lab when a sound is first herd it approximates _______ pressure

A

systolic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

in the blood pressure lab when a sound is no longer herd it approximates _______ pressure

A

diastolic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

in the blood pressure lab what causes the first korotkoff sound

A

blood enters the empty artery and slaps up against the wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

in the blood pressure lab what causes the disappearance of the last korotkoff sound

A

the artery is filled with blood and the blood no longer slaps against the wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

in the blood pressure lab what heart event is the systolic pressure associated with

A

ventricular contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

in the blood pressure lab what heart event is the diastolic pressure associated with

A

ventricular relaxation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

in the blood pressure lab what is the term given to someone 140/90

A

hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

in the blood pressure lab define pulse pressure

A

systolic - diastolic ( how strong the pulse feels)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

in the blood pressure lab you have the cuff layed out flat on the table with the valve _____ but make sure to _____ the valve

A

open, closed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

in the blood pressure lab the tubes which exit the cuff should be positioned over the ______ as well as the ___ of the stethoscope

A

brachial artery, bell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

in the blood pressure lab you pump the bulb until you reach a pressure of _______mmHg do not inflate over ______mmHg

A

160-180mmhg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

in the blood pressure lab how do you calculate heart rate

A

palpate the carotid artery. count the number of pulses felp in 10 seconds, multiply by 6 the minute heart rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

in the blood pressure lab how do you calculate blood pressure

A

using a portable sphgmomanometer the theblood pressure in usual manner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

in the blood pressure lab how do you calculate respiratory rate

A

watch the thorax of the subject, counting the number of respiratory cycles in 30 seconds. double to obtain minute rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

in the blood pressure lab, when one goes from rest to exercise the heart rate

A

increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

in the blood pressure lab, when one goes from rest to exercise the stroke volume

A

increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

in the blood pressure lab, when one goes from rest to exercise the overall peripheral resistance due to vasoconstriction of both arterioles and veins

A

increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

in the blood pressure lab, when one goes from rest to exercise the overall venous return

A

increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

in the blood pressure lab, when one goes from rest to exercise the total cardiac output

A

increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

in the blood pressure lab, when one goes from rest to exercise the sympathetic nervous stimulation

A

increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

in the blood pressure lab, when one goes from rest to exercise the parasympathetic nervous stimulation

A

decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

in the blood pressure lab, when one goes from rest to exercise the rate of oxygen use by active cells

A

increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

in the blood pressure lab, when one goes from rest to exercise the rate of carbon dioxide production by active cells

A

increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

in the blood pressure lab, when one goes from rest to exercise the oxygen level in active muscles

A

decreases then returns to homeostatic set point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

in the blood pressure lab, when one goes from rest to exercise the blood pH

A

increases then returns to homeostatic set point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

in the blood pressure lab, when one goes from rest to exercise the magnitude of respirations

A

increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

in the blood pressure lab, when one goes from rest to exercise the respiration rate

A

increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

in the blood pressure lab, when one goes from rest to exercise the blood flow to active skeletal muscles

A

increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

in the blood pressure lab, when one goes from rest to exercise the blood flow to intestines and kidneys

A

decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

in the blood pressure lab, when one goes from rest to exercise the blood flow to cardiac muscle

A

increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

in the blood pressure lab, when one goes from rest to exercise the blood flow to skin

A

increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

in the blood pressure lab, when one goes from rest to exercise the blood flow to brain

A

increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

in the blood pressure lab, when one goes from rest to exercise the pressure gradient of venous return

A

increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

in the blood pressure lab, when one goes from rest to exercise the venous return of skeletal muscle pump

A

increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

in the blood pressure lab, when one goes from rest to exercise the venous return of respiratory pump

A

increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

in the blood pressure lab, when one goes from rest to exercise the venous return of venous vasoconstriction

A

increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

in the hematocrit lab whole blood is made up of ____ & ____

A

plasma & formed components

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

in the hematocrit lab formed components are

A

RBC, WBC,platlets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

in the hematocrit lab a ______ is used to seperate the components. where the ______ components collect at the bottom

A

centrifuge, heavier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

in the hematocrit lab ______ are the heaviest component

A

RBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

in the hematocrit lab centrifuge blood is used to measure

A

the percent of RBC in the total blood volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

in the hematocrit lab, this is a good test to see if someone is ______ or making too many

A

anemic, RBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

in the hematocrit lab the normal hematocrit range for men is

A

42-54

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

in the hematocrit lab the normal hematocrit range for women is

A

38-46

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

in the hematocrit lab, it is also called a ________test

A

packed cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

in the hematocrit lab _____ is a liquid connective tissue

A

blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

in the hematocrit lab the layers go ______, _____ & _____

A

plasma (nonliving matrix)

buffy coat (WBC & platlets)

RBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

in the hematocrit lab what is is measuring

A

percentage of cells in blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

in the hematocrit lab what is polycythemia

A

high RBC count

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

in the hematocrit lab what materials form the buffy coat

A

WBC & platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

in the hematocrit lab when you read a hematocrit chart the clay plug is at ____ and the platelet line is at the _____

A

0, top

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

in the hematocrit lab what is the difference between plasma and serum

A

serum is plasma without proteins

148
Q

in the differential white blood cell count if neutrophils are high you should suspect

A

bacteria

149
Q

in the differential white blood cell count if lymphocytes are high you should suspect

A

viruses

150
Q

in the differential white blood cell count if eosinophils are high you should suspect _________ or _______

A

parasitic worms, allergies

151
Q

in the differential white blood cell count if lymphocytes are low you should suspect

A

aids

152
Q

in the differential white blood cell count if immature neutrophils are high you should suspect

A

acute bacterial infections

153
Q

in the differential white blood cell count ______ shaped neutrophils are ________ neutrophils just entering ________

A

band, replacement, circulation

154
Q

in the differential white blood cell count mature neutrophils have ______ nuclei

A

segmented

155
Q

in the differential white blood cell count a-typical lymphocytes are an important indicator of

A

infectious mononucleosis

156
Q

in the differential white blood cell count a-typical lymphocytes are transformed __ lymphocytes responding to __ lymphocytes which are infected with __________

A

T, B, epstein-bar virus

157
Q

in the differential white blood cell count a-typical lymphocyte are irregularly shaped because the ______ is frequently indented surrounding red blood cells

A

cytoplasm

158
Q

in the differential white blood cell count if neutrophils are high you should suspect

A

bacteria

159
Q

in the differential white blood cell count if lymphocytes are high you should suspect

A

viruses

160
Q

in the differential white blood cell count if eosinophils are high you should suspect _________ or _______

A

parasitic worms, allergies

161
Q

in the differential white blood cell count if lymphocytes are low you should suspect

A

aids

162
Q

in the differential white blood cell count if immature neutrophils are high you should suspect

A

acute bacterial infections

163
Q

in the differential white blood cell count ______ shaped neutrophils are ________ neutrophils just entering ________

A

band, replacement, circulation

164
Q

in the differential white blood cell count mature neutrophils have ______ nuclei

A

segmented

165
Q

in the differential white blood cell count a-typical lymphocytes are an important indicator of

A

infectious mononucleosis

166
Q

in the differential white blood cell count a-typical lymphocytes are transformed __ lymphocytes responding to __ lymphocytes which are infected with __________

A

T, B, epstein-bar virus

167
Q

in the differential white blood cell count what concerns should you have if he patient has mononucleosis is a high school football player

A

spleen could burst and it is a contact sport

168
Q

in the blood typing lab an antigen is an ________

A

identifier

169
Q

in the blood typing lab an antibody is a ________

A

protein warrior

170
Q

in the blood typing lab Rhesus + can accept

A

+ or -

171
Q

in the blood typing lab Rhesus - can accept

A
  • only
172
Q

in the blood typing lab RBC have _______ on their membrane

A

proteins

173
Q

in the differential white blood cell count what is the normal percentage for eosinophils

A

0-5%

174
Q

in the differential white blood cell count what is the normal percentage for basophils

A

0-2%

175
Q

in the differential white blood cell count when there is atypical lymphocytes plus high lymphocytes

A

viral mononucleosis

176
Q

if your patient has a high percentage of eosinophils what would be a god follow up question to ask

A

if they have traveled outside of the country lately

177
Q

in the blood typing lab he proteins on RBC membranes are called

A

antigens

178
Q

in the blood typing lab the ABO system of blood typing is based on which type of _______ you have or dont have on our RBC membrane

A

antigens

179
Q

in the urinalysis lab urine is primary made up of water some _______ and organic materials such as _______. the concentration of these varies on the persons _____, ______ and degree of _______

A

salts, urea, health, diet, activity

180
Q

in the urinalysis lab it is used to determine the

A

general health of a person

181
Q

in the urinalysis lab the normal pH of urine falls between _______ with an average of ______

A

4.5-8.0, 6

182
Q

in the urinalysis lab acidic urine may indicate _________, ________, ______ & or ________

A

metabolic or respiratory acidosis , uncontrolled diabetes, starvation, dehydration

183
Q

in the urinalysis lab basic alkalosis urine may indicate ___________, _______ or ________

A

metabolic or respiratory alkalosis, UTI, renal failure

184
Q

in the urinalysis lab the ______ protein in he urine indicated possible kidney disease

A

albumin

185
Q

in the blood typing lab your blood type comes from

A

your parents genetically

186
Q

in the blood typing lab you use a ________ to poke your finger

A

lancet

187
Q

in the blood typing lab What causes the clumping observed?

A

Clumping involves a chemical reaction between antigen on surface of red blood cell and protein antibodies in plasma or liquid part of the blood.

188
Q

in the blood typing lab What is the difference between clumping and clotting

A

clotting refers to the hemostasis process that occurs in the body when there is some injury to a blood vessel and blood loss needs to be stopped.

Clumping of red blood cell occurs when different blood types are mixed together.

189
Q

in the urinalysis lab urine is primary made up of water some _______ and organic materials such as _______. the concentration of these varies on the persons _____, ______ and degree of _______

A

salts, urea, health, diet, activity

190
Q

in the urinalysis lab it is used to determine the

A

general health of a person

191
Q

in the urinalysis lab the normal pH of urine falls between _______ with an average of ______

A

4.5-8.0, 6

192
Q

in the urinalysis lab acidic urine may indicate _________, ________, ______ & or ________

A

metabolic or respiratory acidosis , uncontrolled diabetes, starvation, dehydration

193
Q

in the urinalysis lab basic alkalosis urine may indicate ___________, _______ or ________

A

metabolic or respiratory alkalosis, UTI, renal failure

194
Q

in the urinalysis lab the ______ protein in he urine indicated possible kidney disease

A

albumin

195
Q

in the urinalysis lab vegetarian diets increase ______ in urine as well as _______

A

alkalinity, bacterial infections

196
Q

in the urinalysis lab yeast in the urine indiates ______ or ______

A

UTI, yeast infection

197
Q

in the urinalysis lab the color of urine is usually

A

light yellow to amber

198
Q

in the urinalysis lab the greater solute concentration the ______ the color

A

deeper

199
Q

in the urinalysis lab the yellow color of urine is do to the presence of

A

urochrome

200
Q

in the urinalysis lab changes in urine color can be due to ____ & ______

A

drugs and vegetables

201
Q

in the urinalysis lab normal urine is _______ and becomes _____ upon standing

A

transparent, cloudy

202
Q

in the urinalysis lab cloudy urine may be evidence of _____ , ___, ____, _______, _________, _______

A

phosphates, uric acid, mucus, bacteria, epithelial cells, leukocytes

203
Q

in the urinalysis lab high protein diets increase _____ in urine

A

acidity

204
Q

in the urinalysis lab vegetarian diets increase ______ in urine as well as _______

A

alkalinity, bacterial infections

205
Q

in the urinalysis lab normal specific gravity is _____ average range _______

A
  1. 005-1.035

1. 010-1.025

206
Q

in the urinalysis lab normal specific gravity is _____ average range ______

A
  1. 005-1.035

1. 010-1.025

207
Q

in the urinalysis lab the ________ of urine is a measurement of density (how concentrated or dilute a sample may be)

A

specific gravity

208
Q

in the urinalysis lab the presence of ketones and glucose means

A

diabetes mellitus

209
Q

in the urinalysis lab the presence of WBC and nitrate indicate a

A

UTI

210
Q

in the urinalysis lab excess RBC may not be a prolem if from the

A

uterus

211
Q

in the urinalysis lab true or false albumin is normally too large to pass through the glomerulus

A

true, indicates abnormal increased permeability

212
Q

in the urinalysis lab nonpathological reasons for albumin in the urine would be

A

pregnancy, physical exertion, increased protein consumption,

213
Q

in the urinalysis lab the majority of urobilinogen is eliminated in the______ but small amounts are reabsorbed into the blood from the intestines and then excreted into the ______

A

feces, urine

214
Q

in the urinalysis lab causes of abnormal urobilinogen is due to

A

hemolytic anemia, liver disease

215
Q

in the urinalysis lab normally filtered glucose is reabsorbed by the ________ and returned to the blood by ________

A

renal tubules, carrier molecules

216
Q

in the urinalysis lab if blood glucose levels exceed the amount that cane be reabsorbed, the remaining glucose will spill over into the _______ main cause being _____

A

urine, diabetes mellitus

217
Q

in the urinalysis lab _______ comes from the breakdown of hemoglobin in RBC

A

biliruben

218
Q

in the urinalysis lab the globin portion of the hemoglobin is split off and the heme groups (iron containing protein) of hemoglobin are converted into the pigment _____

A

biliruben

219
Q

in the urinalysis lab biliruben is transported in the blood to the _____

A

liver

220
Q

in the urinalysis lab some biliruben is used to produce ____ and is released into small intestines

A

bile

221
Q

in the urinalysis lab causes of abnormal biliruben in he urine would be

A

liver disorders, cirrhosis, hepaitis, obstruction of bile ducts

222
Q

in the urinalysis lab biliruben is converted into ________ in the small intestine,

A

urobilinogen

223
Q

in the respiration lab what does a pulse oximeter measure

A

measured oxygen level (saturation) in the blood on the hemoglobin

224
Q

in the respiration lab how does a pulse oximeter work

A

comparing how much red light and infra red light is absorbed

225
Q

in the urinalysis lab ________ is the presence of hemoglobin in he urine

A

hemoglobinuria

226
Q

in the urinalysis lab hemoglobin in the urine causes ________, ___________, __________ & __________

A

hemolytic anemia, blood transfusion reactions, massive burns & renal disease

227
Q

in the urinalysis lab ________ is the presence of intact erythrocytes in the urine and is almost always ______

A

hematuria, pathological

228
Q

in the urinalysis lab causes of hematuria in urine

A

kidney stones, tumors, glomerulonephritis, physical trauma

229
Q

in the urinalysis lab the presence of leukocytes in urine is referred to as ______ (pus in urine)

A

pyuria

230
Q

in the urinalysis lab causes of pyuria woud be

A

UTI

231
Q

in the urinalysis lab_______ is when bacteria is present in the urine

A

nitrite

232
Q

in the respiration lab as you hyperventilate what happens to the arterial blood oxygen levels

A

increase a little bit (already have a lot of O2)

233
Q

in the respiration lab as you hyperventilate what happens to the arterial blood carbon dioxide levels

A

decrease breathing of carbon dioxide

234
Q

in the respiration lab as you hyperventilate what happens to the arterial blood pH

A

increase getting rid of acid with exhalation

235
Q

in the respiration lab what is the normal range for SpO2

A

95%-99%

236
Q

in the respiration lab what is hypoxemia

A

abnormally low concentration of oxygen in blood

237
Q

in the respiration lab what conditions might cause hypoxemia

A

lung disease, anemia, high altitude

238
Q

in the respiration lab as you hyperventilate into a bag what happens to the arterial blood pH

A

decreased because carbon dioxide goes up

239
Q

in the respiration lab which is more important in regulating your breathing, oxygen or carbon dioxide

A

carbon dioxide, you only exhale to get rid of it

240
Q

in the respiration lab as you hold your breath what happens to the arterial blood carbon dioxide levels

A

increases because you cant exhale it

241
Q

in the respiration lab as you hold your breath what happens to the arterial blood pH

A

decrease because carbon dioxide goes up

242
Q

in the respiration lab as you hyperventilate what happens to the arterial blood oxygen levels

A

increase a little bit (already have a lot of O2)

243
Q

in the respiration lab as you hyperventilate what happens to the arterial blood carbon dioxide levels

A

decrease breathing of carbon dioxide

244
Q

in the respiration lab as you hyperventilate what happens to the arterial blood pH

A

increase getting rid of acid with exhalation

245
Q

in the respiration lab ________ is the same as holding your breath

A

hyperventilate into a bag

246
Q

in the respiration lab as you hyperventilate into a bag what happens to arterial blood oxygen levels

A

decrease a little

247
Q

in the respiration lab as you hyperventilate into a bag what happens to arterial blood carbon dioxide levels

A

increase because you cant exhale

248
Q

in the respiration lab as you hyperventilate into a bag what happens to the arterial blood pH

A

decreased because carbon dioxide goes up

249
Q

in the respiration lab which is more important in regulating your breathing, oxygen or carbon dioxide

A

carbon dioxide, you only exhale to get rid of it

250
Q

in the respiration lab when you forcefully exhale after a forceful inhalation and the standard amount is _____ml

A

vital capacity, 4800ml

251
Q

in the respiration lab vital capacity is measured using a

A

spirometer

252
Q

in the respiration lab when you hold your breath until you cant and you take a sip of water what happens to your urge to breathe & why

A

it goes away because when you swallow your brain makes it so you’re not able to breathe ( deglutition apnea reflex )

253
Q

in the respiration lab of what value is this deglutition apnea reflex

A

anti choking

254
Q

Compare the respiratory rate and the magnitude of the breaths between normal breathing and during the recovery from breath holding.

A

Normal breathing decrease in breathes per minute and increases magnitude of breathes (wave amplitude).

Whereas, recovery from breath holding increases breathes per minute and decrease magnitude of breathes (wave amplitude)

255
Q

in the respiration lab when the subject reads out loud it looks

A

small waves with random peaks

256
Q

in the respiration lab when the subject coughs it looks

A

extreme rise and fall

257
Q

in the respiration lab the _________ is preformed by forcible exhalation against a closed airway, usually done by closing ones mouth and pinching ones nose shut

A

valsalva maneuver

258
Q

in the respiration lab valsalva maneuver can be used to test _________ & ___________ or to _______

A

cardiac function & autonomic nervous control of the heart, clear the ears and sinuses

259
Q

Why are the four breath holding values different?

A

Different activity levels require different O2 levels.

260
Q

Why is carbon dioxide more important in regulating breathing?

A

Too much CO2 creates respiratory acidosis.

Too little CO2 creates respiratory alkalosis

261
Q

As you do the Valsalva maneuver what happens to the strength of the pulse?

A

increases

262
Q

Does the % saturation of hemoglobin change significantly during breath holding?

A

no remains the same

263
Q

Does the % saturation of hemoglobin change significantly during hyperventilation?

A

no remains the same

264
Q

Compare the respiratory rate and the magnitude of the breaths between normal breathing and during the recovery from breath holding.

A

Normal breathing decrease in breathes per minute and increases magnitude of breathes (wave amplitude).
Whereas, recovery from breath holding increases breathes per minute and decrease magnitude of breathes (wave amplitude)

265
Q

How do these changes help to restore homeostasis

A

These changes help restore homeostasis through proper gas exchange and regulation of blood pH.

Rapid breathing after recovery is to expel accumulated CO2 waste and allows oxgen to get to O2 deprived organs for ATP (cellular respiration).

266
Q

After Valsalva maneuver what happens to the strength of the pulse?

A

decreases

267
Q

in the digestive enzyme lab _______ are protein catalysts and function to speed cellular reactions

A

enzymes

268
Q

in the digestive enzyme lab enzyme goes through 4 stages

A

substrate and enzyme are available

substrate binds to enzymes active site

substrate is converted to produts

products are released

269
Q

in the digestive enzyme lab can enzymes be recycled

A

yes

270
Q

in the digestive enzyme lab enzymes are made of ____

A

proteins

271
Q

in the digestive enzyme lab true or false one enzyme is used up with each chemical reaction

A

false

272
Q

in the digestive enzyme lab warmer temp makes reaction go

A

faster

273
Q

in the digestive enzyme lab cooler temp makes reaction go

A

slower

274
Q

in the digestive enzyme lab a pH that is more acidic than the optimum will work

A

slower

275
Q

in the digestive enzyme lab a pH hat is more basic than the optimum will work

A

faster

276
Q

in the digestive enzyme lab extreme ________ and extreme _____ can cause enzyme to become denatured

A

extreme temp and extreme pH

277
Q

in the digestive enzyme lab pepsin is produced in the

A

stomach

278
Q

in the digestive enzyme lab pepsin works in the

A

stomach

279
Q

in the digestive enzyme lab the substrate for pepsin is

A

[protein

280
Q

in the digestive enzyme lab the products of pepsin are

A

amino acids

281
Q

in the digestive enzyme lab optimum pH for pepsin is

A

1.2- 2.0

282
Q

in the digestive enzyme lab trypsin produced in the

A

pancreas

283
Q

in the digestive enzyme lab trypsin works in the

A

small intestine

284
Q

in the digestive enzyme lab trypsins substrate is

A

proteins

285
Q

in the digestive enzyme lab trypsins products are

A

amino acids

286
Q

in the digestive enzyme lab the optimum pH for trypsin is

A

7.5- 8.0

287
Q

in the digestive enzyme lab lipase is produced in the ___ & _____

A

pancreas & small intestine

288
Q

in the digestive enzyme lab lipase works in the

A

small intestine

289
Q

in the digestive enzyme lab the substrate for lipase is

A

lipids

290
Q

in the digestive enzyme lab the products for lipase are

A

fatty acids & monoglycerides

291
Q

in the digestive enzyme lab he optimum pH for lipase is

A

7.5- 8.0

292
Q

in the digestive enzyme labwhat chemicals were used

A

HCl, pH 7 buffer, NaOH

293
Q

in the digestive enzyme lab what is placed inside the proteins

A

camera film

294
Q

in the digestive enzyme lab pepsin and ____ had a positive result

A

HCL

295
Q

in the digestive enzyme lab trypsin and _____ had a positive result

A

buffer

296
Q

in the digestive enzyme lab litmus cream and ______ had a positive result

A

lipase

297
Q

in the digestive enzyme lab pepsin and HCL pH

A

1

298
Q

in the digestive enzyme lab boiled pepsin and Hcl pH

A

2

299
Q

in the digestive enzyme lab pepsin and buffer pH

A

7

300
Q

in the digestive enzyme lab Lipid digestion results

A

(Lipase)

Positive result - A change in color from purple to pink indicates digestion of lipids has occurred in Litmus cream.

301
Q

in the digestive enzyme lab, Why were the enzyme tubes placed in a warm water bath (37*) instead of being kept at room temperature while enzyme activity was occurring?

A

To maintain enzymatic activity at an optimal rate.

302
Q

in the digestive enzyme lab trypsin and HCL pH

A

2

303
Q

in the digestive enzyme lab boiled trypsin and buffer

A

6

304
Q

in the digestive enzyme lab trypsin and buffer

A

7

305
Q

in the digestive enzyme lab trypsin and NaOh

A

14

306
Q

in the digestive enzyme lab water and buffer pH

A

7

307
Q

in the digestive enzyme lab Substrate is

A

The substance on which an enzyme acts.

308
Q

in the digestive enzyme lab Product is

A

Something” manufactured by an enzyme from its substrate.

309
Q

in the digestive enzyme lab Protein digestion results

A

(Trypsin and Pepsin)
Positive result - Protein digested (enzyme worked) when film turns clear.
Negative result - film opaque

310
Q

in the digestive enzyme lab Lipid digestion results

A

(Lipase)

Positive result - A change in color from purple to pink indicates digestion of lipids has occurred in Litmus cream.

311
Q

in the digestive enzyme lab, Why were the enzyme tubes placed in a warm water bath (37*) instead of being kept at room temperature while enzyme activity was occurring?

A

To maintain enzymatic activity at an optimal rate.

312
Q

in the digestive enzyme lab are pepsin and trypsin affected differently by pH

A

yes because enzymes like a specific pH and pepsin is more acidic and trypsin is more basic

313
Q

in the digestive enzyme lab, How does temperature effect the rate of an enzyme catalyzed reaction?

A

As temperature increases, the rate of the enzyme catalyzed reaction also increases because the molecules are moving faster and colliding more frequently. After a certain temperature, the reaction rate decreases because the heat starts to denature the enzyme so that it no longer can function.

314
Q

phagocytic; first to arrive at an injury site; specialize in killing bacteria but also kill fungi and neutralize some viruses; die after feeding once and can form pus

A

Neutrophils:

315
Q

help to prevent allergic reactions from becoming dangerously out of control, and defend against parasitic worms

A

Eosinophils:

316
Q

increase blood flow to injured tissues for the healing process; secrete histamine (increase inflammation) and heparin (decrease clotting)

A

Basophil

317
Q

(do not contain granules that are visible under a light microscope)

A

Agranulocytes (ending in cytes)

318
Q

(contain granules that are visible under a light microscope)

A

Granulocytes (ending in phils)

319
Q

leave the bloodstream to become macrophages that destroy unwanted cells and invading pathogens; they can feed many times and still remain alive

A

Monocytes

320
Q

B, T & NK cells

A

Lymphocytes

321
Q

produce antibodies to attack foreign invaders

A

B cells

322
Q

manage the immune system, and directly attack microorganisms, cancer cells and transplanted cells

A

T cells

323
Q

are special granulated lymphocytes that destroy unwanted cells

A

NK (natural killer) cells

324
Q

The valsalva maneuver (forced exhalation against a closed airway) creates increased ________

A

thoracic pressure

325
Q

The cardiac control center is in the

A

medulla oblongata

326
Q

cranial nerve __ the _______nerve, is the parasympathetic pathway to the heart

A

X, vagus

327
Q

in the cardiac lab The neurotransmitter in the

autonomic ganglion of both sympathetic and parasympathetic pathways is _________ (the preganglionic neurotransmitter).

A

acetylcholine

328
Q

in the blood pressure lab When cuff pressure is greater than ____ mm Hg and exceeds blood pressure throughout the cardiac cycle:No blood flows through the vessel. No sound is herd

A

120

329
Q

in the blood pressure lab When cuff pressure is between
___&___ mm Hg:Blood flow through the vessel is turbulent
whenever blood pressure exceeds cuff pressure.
2 The first sound is heard at peak systolic pressure.
3 Intermittent sounds are produced
by turbulent spurts of flow as blood
pressure cyclically exceeds cuff pressure

A

120 and 80

330
Q

in the blood pressure lab When cuff pressure is less than ___ mm Hg and is below blood pressure throughout the cardiac cycle: Blood flows through the vessel in smooth, laminar fashion.The last sound is heard at minimum
diastolic pressure. No sound is heard thereafter because

A

80

331
Q

growth hormone (GH) comes from the_________ gland

A

Anterior Pituitary

332
Q
growth hormone (GH) Stimulusis is releasing hormones of
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
A

hypothalamus

333
Q

growth hormone (GH ) Function is to stimulates growth of _____ organs in body; mobilizes _______ molecules, ______________ blood glucose level

A

all, food ,increasing

334
Q

growth hormone (GH) Dysfunction/Disorders hypersecretion causes_______ & __________

A

giantism and acromegaly

335
Q

melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH) comes from ______________ Gland

A

Anterior Pituitary

336
Q

melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH) Stimulus is releasing hormones of ___________

A

hypothalamus

337
Q

melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH) Function is stimulating synthesis & dispersion of ___________ in the skin

A

melanin pigment

338
Q

melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH) Dysfunction/Disorders hypersecretion results in the ______ of the skin

A

darkening

339
Q

adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH comes from the __________ )Gland

A

Anterior Pituitary

340
Q

adrenocorticotropic hormone(ACTH) Stimulus is releasing hormones of _________

A

hypothalamus

341
Q

adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) Function stimulates secretion of ______ hormones

A

adrenal cortex

342
Q

adrenocorticotropic hormone(ACTH) Dysfunction/Disorders hypersecretion or hyposecretion of _______

A

adrenal cortex

343
Q

follicle-stimulating hormone(FSH) Gland

A

Anterior Pituitary

344
Q

follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)Stimulus is releasing hormones of ________

A

hypothalamus

345
Q

follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) Function: males stimulates production and growth of ______ in seminiferous tubules of ____

females: stimulates development of follicles in ____ and secretion of____

A

sperm, testes

ovaries, estrogen

346
Q

follicle-stimulating hormone(FSH) Dysfunction/Disorders hyposecretion inhibits _________ and causes sterility

A

sexual development

347
Q

luteinizing hormone (LH) comes from the ________ gland

A

Anterior Pituitary

348
Q

luteinizing hormone (LH) Stimulus is releasing hormones of _______

A

hypothalamus

349
Q

luteinizing hormone (LH) Function is males: stimulates secretion of________ by the_______ cells of the testes

females: stimulates the secretion of ________, stimulates maturation of _____________, triggers ovulation, and stimulates development of the _____

A

testosterone, interstitial

estrogen, ovarian follicle and ovum, corpus luteum

350
Q

luteinizing hormone (LH) Dysfunction/Disorders hyposecretion inhibits _______ and causes sterility

A

sexual development

351
Q

prolactin (PRL) comes from the _______ gland

A

Anterior Pituitary

352
Q

prolactin (PRL) Stimulus is releasing hormones of

__________

A

hypothalamus

353
Q

prolactin (PRL) Function is stimulates_____development during pregnancy and _____ development after pregnancy

A

breast , milk

354
Q

prolactin (PRL) Dysfunction/Disorders hypersecretion causes________ lactation in nonnursing women and in men; hyposecretion causes________ lactation in nursing women

A

inappropriate, insufficient

355
Q

thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) comes from the _____ gland

A

Anterior Pituitary

356
Q

thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) Stimulus is releasing hormones of__________

A

hypothalamus

357
Q

thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) Function is stimulates release of ______ hormone by the ____ gland

A

thyroid

358
Q

thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) Dysfunction/Disorders hypersecretion causes _______; hyposecretion causes ________ in children and _______ in adults

A

hyperthyroidism, cretinis, myxedema

359
Q

antidiuretic hormone (ADH) comes from the ________ gland

A

Posterior Pituitary

360
Q

antidiuretic hormone (ADH) stimulus is

A

hypothalamus

361
Q

antidiuretic hormone (ADH) function is stimulates __________ by the kidneys

A

water retention

362
Q

antidiuretic hormone (ADH) Dysfunction/Disorder is hypersecretion results in abnormal ___________; hyposecretion causes _________

A

water retention, diabetes insipidus

363
Q

oxytocin comes from the _______ gland

A

Posterior Pituitary

364
Q

oxytocin stimulus is

A

hypothalamus

365
Q

oxytocin function is stimulates _______ contractions at the end of pregnancy and the release of_____ into the ducts of the breast

A

uterine, milk

366
Q

oxytocin Dysfunction/Disorder hypersecretion causes inappropriate ejection of ______ in lactating women; hyposecretion may cause prolonged or difficult____&_____

A

milk, labor and delivery