lab exam 2 Flashcards
1
Q
is cardiac muscle neurogenic or myogenic
A
myogenic
2
Q
what is the difference beween a neurogenic muscle and a myogenic muscle?
A
neurogenic- nervous system initiates
myogenic- self generating
3
Q
if cardiac muscle were suddenly under the influence of the sympathetic nervous system, heart rate would _______ and contraction force would _______
A
increase
4
Q
would you find greater concentration of sodium ions inside or outside of a cardiac muscle cell
A
outside
5
Q
in the cardiac muscle lab what solution was used to keep the frog heart moist
A
ringers solution
6
Q
if cardiac muscle were suddenly under the influence of the parasympathetic nervous system, heart rate would _______ and contraction force would _______
A
decrease
7
Q
would you find greater concentration of potassium ions inside or outside of a cardiac muscle cell
A
inside
8
Q
in the cardiac muscle lab an ___ inch fish hook was used
A
18
9
Q
in the cardiac muscle lab the fishhook is placed on a ___ angle
A
right
10
Q
in the cardiac muscle lab when reading the heart rate the first bump is the ____________ and the second bump is the _______________
A
atrial contraction
ventricle contraction
11
Q
in the cardiac muscle lab when added norepinephrine the heart rate ______ and the rate/force ________
A
increases, increases
12
Q
in the cardiac muscle lab when added acetylcholine the heart rate ______ and the rate/force ________
A
decreases, decreases
13
Q
in the cardiac muscle lab when added atropine the heart rate ______ and the rate/force ________
A
increases, increases
14
Q
in the cardiac muscle lab when added NaCl the heart rate ______ and the rate/force ________
A
increases, increases
15
Q
in the cardiac muscle lab when added KCl the heart rate ______ and the rate/force ________
A
decreases, decreases
16
Q
in the cardiac muscle lab when added calcium chloride the heart rate ______ and the rate/force ________
A
decreases, increases
17
Q
in the cardiac muscle lab the ______ of the heart is removed
A
pericardium
18
Q
in the cardiac muscle lab how do you figure out beats per minute when reading heart rate
A
60 seconds divided by wave duration
19
Q
in the cardiac muscle lab how do you calculate wave duration
A
M marker at the peak of the wave, cursor at the next peak
20
Q
in the cardiac muscle lab how do you measure contraction force
A
M marker at the base of the wave, cursor at the peak
21
Q
in the cardiac muscle lab under what conditions will norepinephrine be released
A
sympathetic
22
Q
in the cardiac muscle lab what is the effect of norepinephrine on heart rate and contractility
A
they will go up
23
Q
in the cardiac muscle lab under what types of conditions will ACh be released
A
parasympathetic
24
Q
in the cardiac muscle lab what is the effect of ACh on heart rate and contractility
A
they will go down
25
in the cardiac muscle lab what is the effect of atropine on heart rate and contractility
they will go up
26
in the cardiac muscle lab how does excess sodium effect the heart
rate and contractility go up
27
in the cardiac muscle lab how does excess potassium effect the heart
rate and contractility go down
28
in the cardiac muscle lab how does excess calcium effect the heart
rate goes down and contractility goes up
29
in the cardiac muscle lab what occurred when epinephrine was added to the frogs heart?
when epinephrine was added to the frogs heart, the heart rate (beats per minute) increased. However, atrial wave amplitude and ventricular wave amplitude decreased.
30
in the cardiac muscle lab what happened when acetylcholine was added to the frogs heart?
when ACh was added to the frogs heart the heart rate (bpm) decreased, as did the atrial wave amplitude. Note, ventricular wave amplitude increased as a result of adding ACh.
31
in the cardiac muscle lab what happened when atropine was added to the frogs heart?
when atropine was added to the frogs heart, heart rate increased ( beats per minute). however, atrial wave and ventricular wave decreased.
32
in the cardiac muscle lab on a cellular level what is the mode of action of atropine?
atropine blocks the action of the Vagus nerve. Atropine is an antagonist of Acetylcholine.
33
In the intestinal motility lab when norepinephrine is added to the gut, the activity _______
decreases
34
In the intestinal motility lab when ACH is added to the gut, the activity _______
increases
35
In the intestinal motility lab when atropine is added to the gut, the activity _______
decreases
36
what type of muscle is found within the walls of the small intestine
smooth
37
is the muscle within the wall of the small intestine myogenic, neurogenic or both
both. myogenic because they move on their own and neurogenic because they respond to autonomic nervous system
38
name the two types of motility seen in the small intestine
peristalsis ( wave like propulsion, push forward)
segmentation (shaking/mixing)
39
would you expect motility to increase or decrease if the small intestine were being stimulated by the sympathetic nervous system
decrease
40
what kind of intestine was used In the intestinal motility lab
rat
41
In the intestinal motility lab what is the solution used to keep the intestine saturated
tyrode
42
In the intestinal motility lab what is the ideal temperature because it mimic body temp
37 degrees C
43
would you expect motility to increase or decrease if the small intestine were being stimulated by the parasympathetic nervous system
increase
44
In the intestinal motility lab what chemicals were used
norepinephrine, acetylcholine, atropine
45
In the intestinal motility lab what is used to keep the temperature
alcohol lamp
46
In the intestinal motility lab temperatures must be between ______ to keep the intestine alive
36-39 degrees C
47
In the intestinal motility lab how do you determine duration of a wave
M marker at the peak of a wave and cursor at the next peak
48
In the intestinal motility lab how do you calculate contractions per minute
divide 60 by the duration
49
In the intestinal motility lab how do you determine amplitude of a wave
M marker at base, cursor at peak
50
In the intestinal motility lab Rhythmic Contractions of Intestinal Muscle are initiated by
Rhythmic Contractions of Intestinal Muscle are initiated by
51
In the intestinal motility lab Epinephrine on gut muscle
Decreased Motility/ Slowed Down Contraction of Intestine
52
In the intestinal motility lab ACH (Acetylcholine) on gut muscle
Increased Motility/ Speeds Up Contraction of Intestine, Increased secretions
53
In the intestinal motility lab what are these contractions called
Peristalsis
54
In the intestinal motility lab Atropine on gut muscle
Decreased, Slows down contractions (ACh antagonist)
55
In the intestinal motility lab What occurs to gut muscle during exercise
Sympathetic stimulation which releases neurotransmitter Epinephrine this causes an increase in heart rate and a decrease in intestinal motility (gut activity). Parasympathetic activity is inhibited.
56
In the intestinal motility lab What occurs to gut muscle during rest
Parasympathetic stimulation which releases neurotransmitter ACh (Acteylcholine) causing a decrease in heartrate and an increase in intestinal motility (gut activity). Sympathetic activity is inhibited.
57
In the intestinal motility lab Explain Atropine's effect on the gut muscle
Blocks the effect of ACh.
58
in the electrocardiogram lab the ____ is an indirect measurement of the electrical activity of the heart. Electrical changes which occur during depolarization and repolarization of the heart are amplified and displayed in a graphic record
ECG
59
in the electrocardiogram lab is it electrical or mechanical if SA node autorhythmically depolarizes
electrical
60
in the electrocardiogram lab is it electrical or mechanical if wave of depolarization spreads through the cardiac muscle cells of the atria
electrical
61
in the electrocardiogram lab is it electrical or mechanical if atrial muscle cells contract
mechanical
62
in the electrocardiogram lab is it electrical or mechanical if action potential is delayed at the AV node
electrical
63
in the electrocardiogram lab is it electrical or mechanical if depolarization moves through the bundle of his and the purkinje fibers
electrical
64
in the electrocardiogram lab is it electrical or mechanical if wave of depolarization spreads through the cardiac muscle cells of the ventricle
electrical
65
in the electrocardiogram lab is it electrical or mechanical if ventricular muscle cells contract
mechanical
66
in the electrocardiogram lab what does the P wave represent
atrial depolarization
67
in the electrocardiogram lab what does the QRS complex represent
ventricular depolarization or atrial repolarization
68
in the electrocardiogram lab what does the T wave represent
ventricular repolarization
69
in the electrocardiogram lab 1 large square = ____ small squares and ____ seconds
5 squares, 0.2 seconds
70
in the electrocardiogram lab 5 large square = ____ seconds
one second
71
in the electrocardiogram lab 30 large square = ____ second
6 seconds
72
in the electrocardiogram lab the paper speed is ___ small squares/second
25
73
in the electrocardiogram lab one small square is ___ seconds
0.04
74
in the electrocardiogram lab after the S in the QRS complex lab is the _______ line
isoelectric
75
in the electrocardiogram lab what is occurring during the PR interval
atria will contract
76
in the electrocardiogram lab what is occurring during the ST interval
ventricles will contract
77
in the electrocardiogram lab what is the normal duration of the P wave _____ seconds and more than __ small square but less than _____ small squares
0.06- 0.11 seconds, more than 1 square but less than 3
78
in the electrocardiogram lab what is the normal duration of the QRS complex? less than ____ seconds and less than ___ small square
less than 0.12 seconds & less than 3 small squares
79
in the electrocardiogram lab how much time elapses between the start of the QRS and the start of the thumb pulse
0.32 seconds
80
in the electrocardiogram lab what are the 3 specific reasons that there is a delay in time between the start of the QRS complex and the start of the thumb pulse
ventricles take time to depolarize
ventricles take time to contract
travel of pulse wave to the thumb takes place
81
in the electrocardiogram lab can you wear jewelry
no
82
in the electrocardiogram lab what electrode placement do we use
lead II
83
in the electrocardiogram lab can you move or talk
no
84
in the electrocardiogram lab how do you determine BPM
60 divided by duration
85
in the electrocardiogram lab how do you calculate pulse transit time
M marker at start of QRS in channel 3, cursor at start of next thumb pulse in channel 2
86
in the electrocardiogram lab lead I, left arm ____, right arm ___ & left leg ____
black, white, green
87
in the electrocardiogram lab lead II, left arm ____, right arm ___ & left leg ____
green, white, black
88
in the electrocardiogram lab lead III, left arm ____, right arm ___ & left leg ____
white, green, black
89
in the electrocardiogram lab how many electrodes are used
3
90
in the electrocardiogram lab was a dutch scientist who developed the first external mechanism for recording small electrical waves produced by the heart
willem einthoven
91
in the blood pressure lab the most common, indirect means of measuring blood pressure is done by using a ______ and a _______
sphygmomanometer, stethoscope
92
in the blood pressure lab when measuring blood pressure the sound occurs in the ________ as the pressure of the cuff is lowered
brachial artery
93
in the blood pressure lab the pressure of the cuff _____ the artery
collapses
94
in the blood pressure lab when the cuff pressure being to fall below the ______ pressure in the artery, blood begins to to the arm. This flow is _______ rather than streamlined
systolic. turbulent
95
in the blood pressure lab the sound that you hear once you release the cuff
korotkoff sounds
96
in the blood pressure lab when a sound is first herd it approximates _______ pressure
systolic
97
in the blood pressure lab when a sound is no longer herd it approximates _______ pressure
diastolic
98
in the blood pressure lab what causes the first korotkoff sound
blood enters the empty artery and slaps up against the wall
99
in the blood pressure lab what causes the disappearance of the last korotkoff sound
the artery is filled with blood and the blood no longer slaps against the wall
100
in the blood pressure lab what heart event is the systolic pressure associated with
ventricular contraction
101
in the blood pressure lab what heart event is the diastolic pressure associated with
ventricular relaxation
102
in the blood pressure lab what is the term given to someone 140/90
hypertension
103
in the blood pressure lab define pulse pressure
systolic - diastolic ( how strong the pulse feels)
104
in the blood pressure lab you have the cuff layed out flat on the table with the valve _____ but make sure to _____ the valve
open, closed
105
in the blood pressure lab the tubes which exit the cuff should be positioned over the ______ as well as the ___ of the stethoscope
brachial artery, bell
106
in the blood pressure lab you pump the bulb until you reach a pressure of _______mmHg do not inflate over ______mmHg
160-180mmhg
107
in the blood pressure lab how do you calculate heart rate
palpate the carotid artery. count the number of pulses felp in 10 seconds, multiply by 6 the minute heart rate
108
in the blood pressure lab how do you calculate blood pressure
using a portable sphgmomanometer the theblood pressure in usual manner
109
in the blood pressure lab how do you calculate respiratory rate
watch the thorax of the subject, counting the number of respiratory cycles in 30 seconds. double to obtain minute rate
110
in the blood pressure lab, when one goes from rest to exercise the heart rate
increases
111
in the blood pressure lab, when one goes from rest to exercise the stroke volume
increases
112
in the blood pressure lab, when one goes from rest to exercise the overall peripheral resistance due to vasoconstriction of both arterioles and veins
increases
113
in the blood pressure lab, when one goes from rest to exercise the overall venous return
increases
114
in the blood pressure lab, when one goes from rest to exercise the total cardiac output
increases
115
in the blood pressure lab, when one goes from rest to exercise the sympathetic nervous stimulation
increases
116
in the blood pressure lab, when one goes from rest to exercise the parasympathetic nervous stimulation
decreases
117
in the blood pressure lab, when one goes from rest to exercise the rate of oxygen use by active cells
increases
118
in the blood pressure lab, when one goes from rest to exercise the rate of carbon dioxide production by active cells
increases
119
in the blood pressure lab, when one goes from rest to exercise the oxygen level in active muscles
decreases then returns to homeostatic set point
120
in the blood pressure lab, when one goes from rest to exercise the blood pH
increases then returns to homeostatic set point
121
in the blood pressure lab, when one goes from rest to exercise the magnitude of respirations
increases
122
in the blood pressure lab, when one goes from rest to exercise the respiration rate
increases
123
in the blood pressure lab, when one goes from rest to exercise the blood flow to active skeletal muscles
increases
124
in the blood pressure lab, when one goes from rest to exercise the blood flow to intestines and kidneys
decreases
125
in the blood pressure lab, when one goes from rest to exercise the blood flow to cardiac muscle
increases
126
in the blood pressure lab, when one goes from rest to exercise the blood flow to skin
increases
127
in the blood pressure lab, when one goes from rest to exercise the blood flow to brain
increases
128
in the blood pressure lab, when one goes from rest to exercise the pressure gradient of venous return
increases
129
in the blood pressure lab, when one goes from rest to exercise the venous return of skeletal muscle pump
increases
130
in the blood pressure lab, when one goes from rest to exercise the venous return of respiratory pump
increases
131
in the blood pressure lab, when one goes from rest to exercise the venous return of venous vasoconstriction
increases
132
in the hematocrit lab whole blood is made up of ____ & ____
plasma & formed components
133
in the hematocrit lab formed components are
RBC, WBC,platlets
134
in the hematocrit lab a ______ is used to seperate the components. where the ______ components collect at the bottom
centrifuge, heavier
135
in the hematocrit lab ______ are the heaviest component
RBC
136
in the hematocrit lab centrifuge blood is used to measure
the percent of RBC in the total blood volume
137
in the hematocrit lab, this is a good test to see if someone is ______ or making too many
anemic, RBC
138
in the hematocrit lab the normal hematocrit range for men is
42-54
139
in the hematocrit lab the normal hematocrit range for women is
38-46
140
in the hematocrit lab, it is also called a ________test
packed cell
141
in the hematocrit lab _____ is a liquid connective tissue
blood
142
in the hematocrit lab the layers go ______, _____ & _____
plasma (nonliving matrix)
buffy coat (WBC & platlets)
RBC
143
in the hematocrit lab what is is measuring
percentage of cells in blood
144
in the hematocrit lab what is polycythemia
high RBC count
145
in the hematocrit lab what materials form the buffy coat
WBC & platelets
146
in the hematocrit lab when you read a hematocrit chart the clay plug is at ____ and the platelet line is at the _____
0, top
147
in the hematocrit lab what is the difference between plasma and serum
serum is plasma without proteins
148
in the differential white blood cell count if neutrophils are high you should suspect
bacteria
149
in the differential white blood cell count if lymphocytes are high you should suspect
viruses
150
in the differential white blood cell count if eosinophils are high you should suspect _________ or _______
parasitic worms, allergies
151
in the differential white blood cell count if lymphocytes are low you should suspect
aids
152
in the differential white blood cell count if immature neutrophils are high you should suspect
acute bacterial infections
153
in the differential white blood cell count ______ shaped neutrophils are ________ neutrophils just entering ________
band, replacement, circulation
154
in the differential white blood cell count mature neutrophils have ______ nuclei
segmented
155
in the differential white blood cell count a-typical lymphocytes are an important indicator of
infectious mononucleosis
156
in the differential white blood cell count a-typical lymphocytes are transformed __ lymphocytes responding to __ lymphocytes which are infected with __________
T, B, epstein-bar virus
157
in the differential white blood cell count a-typical lymphocyte are irregularly shaped because the ______ is frequently indented surrounding red blood cells
cytoplasm
158
in the differential white blood cell count if neutrophils are high you should suspect
bacteria
159
in the differential white blood cell count if lymphocytes are high you should suspect
viruses
160
in the differential white blood cell count if eosinophils are high you should suspect _________ or _______
parasitic worms, allergies
161
in the differential white blood cell count if lymphocytes are low you should suspect
aids
162
in the differential white blood cell count if immature neutrophils are high you should suspect
acute bacterial infections
163
in the differential white blood cell count ______ shaped neutrophils are ________ neutrophils just entering ________
band, replacement, circulation
164
in the differential white blood cell count mature neutrophils have ______ nuclei
segmented
165
in the differential white blood cell count a-typical lymphocytes are an important indicator of
infectious mononucleosis
166
in the differential white blood cell count a-typical lymphocytes are transformed __ lymphocytes responding to __ lymphocytes which are infected with __________
T, B, epstein-bar virus
167
in the differential white blood cell count what concerns should you have if he patient has mononucleosis is a high school football player
spleen could burst and it is a contact sport
168
in the blood typing lab an antigen is an ________
identifier
169
in the blood typing lab an antibody is a ________
protein warrior
170
in the blood typing lab Rhesus + can accept
+ or -
171
in the blood typing lab Rhesus - can accept
- only
172
in the blood typing lab RBC have _______ on their membrane
proteins
173
in the differential white blood cell count what is the normal percentage for eosinophils
0-5%
174
in the differential white blood cell count what is the normal percentage for basophils
0-2%
175
in the differential white blood cell count when there is atypical lymphocytes plus high lymphocytes
viral mononucleosis
176
if your patient has a high percentage of eosinophils what would be a god follow up question to ask
if they have traveled outside of the country lately
177
in the blood typing lab he proteins on RBC membranes are called
antigens
178
in the blood typing lab the ABO system of blood typing is based on which type of _______ you have or dont have on our RBC membrane
antigens
179
in the urinalysis lab urine is primary made up of water some _______ and organic materials such as _______. the concentration of these varies on the persons _____, ______ and degree of _______
salts, urea, health, diet, activity
180
in the urinalysis lab it is used to determine the
general health of a person
181
in the urinalysis lab the normal pH of urine falls between _______ with an average of ______
4.5-8.0, 6
182
in the urinalysis lab acidic urine may indicate _________, ________, ______ & or ________
metabolic or respiratory acidosis , uncontrolled diabetes, starvation, dehydration
183
in the urinalysis lab basic alkalosis urine may indicate ___________, _______ or ________
metabolic or respiratory alkalosis, UTI, renal failure
184
in the urinalysis lab the ______ protein in he urine indicated possible kidney disease
albumin
185
in the blood typing lab your blood type comes from
your parents genetically
186
in the blood typing lab you use a ________ to poke your finger
lancet
187
in the blood typing lab What causes the clumping observed?
Clumping involves a chemical reaction between antigen on surface of red blood cell and protein antibodies in plasma or liquid part of the blood.
188
in the blood typing lab What is the difference between clumping and clotting
clotting refers to the hemostasis process that occurs in the body when there is some injury to a blood vessel and blood loss needs to be stopped.
Clumping of red blood cell occurs when different blood types are mixed together.
189
in the urinalysis lab urine is primary made up of water some _______ and organic materials such as _______. the concentration of these varies on the persons _____, ______ and degree of _______
salts, urea, health, diet, activity
190
in the urinalysis lab it is used to determine the
general health of a person
191
in the urinalysis lab the normal pH of urine falls between _______ with an average of ______
4.5-8.0, 6
192
in the urinalysis lab acidic urine may indicate _________, ________, ______ & or ________
metabolic or respiratory acidosis , uncontrolled diabetes, starvation, dehydration
193
in the urinalysis lab basic alkalosis urine may indicate ___________, _______ or ________
metabolic or respiratory alkalosis, UTI, renal failure
194
in the urinalysis lab the ______ protein in he urine indicated possible kidney disease
albumin
195
in the urinalysis lab vegetarian diets increase ______ in urine as well as _______
alkalinity, bacterial infections
196
in the urinalysis lab yeast in the urine indiates ______ or ______
UTI, yeast infection
197
in the urinalysis lab the color of urine is usually
light yellow to amber
198
in the urinalysis lab the greater solute concentration the ______ the color
deeper
199
in the urinalysis lab the yellow color of urine is do to the presence of
urochrome
200
in the urinalysis lab changes in urine color can be due to ____ & ______
drugs and vegetables
201
in the urinalysis lab normal urine is _______ and becomes _____ upon standing
transparent, cloudy
202
in the urinalysis lab cloudy urine may be evidence of _____ , ___, ____, _______, _________, _______
phosphates, uric acid, mucus, bacteria, epithelial cells, leukocytes
203
in the urinalysis lab high protein diets increase _____ in urine
acidity
204
in the urinalysis lab vegetarian diets increase ______ in urine as well as _______
alkalinity, bacterial infections
205
in the urinalysis lab normal specific gravity is _____ average range _______
1. 005-1.035
| 1. 010-1.025
206
in the urinalysis lab normal specific gravity is _____ average range ______
1. 005-1.035
| 1. 010-1.025
207
in the urinalysis lab the ________ of urine is a measurement of density (how concentrated or dilute a sample may be)
specific gravity
208
in the urinalysis lab the presence of ketones and glucose means
diabetes mellitus
209
in the urinalysis lab the presence of WBC and nitrate indicate a
UTI
210
in the urinalysis lab excess RBC may not be a prolem if from the
uterus
211
in the urinalysis lab true or false albumin is normally too large to pass through the glomerulus
true, indicates abnormal increased permeability
212
in the urinalysis lab nonpathological reasons for albumin in the urine would be
pregnancy, physical exertion, increased protein consumption,
213
in the urinalysis lab the majority of urobilinogen is eliminated in the______ but small amounts are reabsorbed into the blood from the intestines and then excreted into the ______
feces, urine
214
in the urinalysis lab causes of abnormal urobilinogen is due to
hemolytic anemia, liver disease
215
in the urinalysis lab normally filtered glucose is reabsorbed by the ________ and returned to the blood by ________
renal tubules, carrier molecules
216
in the urinalysis lab if blood glucose levels exceed the amount that cane be reabsorbed, the remaining glucose will spill over into the _______ main cause being _____
urine, diabetes mellitus
217
in the urinalysis lab _______ comes from the breakdown of hemoglobin in RBC
biliruben
218
in the urinalysis lab the globin portion of the hemoglobin is split off and the heme groups (iron containing protein) of hemoglobin are converted into the pigment _____
biliruben
219
in the urinalysis lab biliruben is transported in the blood to the _____
liver
220
in the urinalysis lab some biliruben is used to produce ____ and is released into small intestines
bile
221
in the urinalysis lab causes of abnormal biliruben in he urine would be
liver disorders, cirrhosis, hepaitis, obstruction of bile ducts
222
in the urinalysis lab biliruben is converted into ________ in the small intestine,
urobilinogen
223
in the respiration lab what does a pulse oximeter measure
measured oxygen level (saturation) in the blood on the hemoglobin
224
in the respiration lab how does a pulse oximeter work
comparing how much red light and infra red light is absorbed
225
in the urinalysis lab ________ is the presence of hemoglobin in he urine
hemoglobinuria
226
in the urinalysis lab hemoglobin in the urine causes ________, ___________, __________ & __________
hemolytic anemia, blood transfusion reactions, massive burns & renal disease
227
in the urinalysis lab ________ is the presence of intact erythrocytes in the urine and is almost always ______
hematuria, pathological
228
in the urinalysis lab causes of hematuria in urine
kidney stones, tumors, glomerulonephritis, physical trauma
229
in the urinalysis lab the presence of leukocytes in urine is referred to as ______ (pus in urine)
pyuria
230
in the urinalysis lab causes of pyuria woud be
UTI
231
in the urinalysis lab_______ is when bacteria is present in the urine
nitrite
232
in the respiration lab as you hyperventilate what happens to the arterial blood oxygen levels
increase a little bit (already have a lot of O2)
233
in the respiration lab as you hyperventilate what happens to the arterial blood carbon dioxide levels
decrease breathing of carbon dioxide
234
in the respiration lab as you hyperventilate what happens to the arterial blood pH
increase getting rid of acid with exhalation
235
in the respiration lab what is the normal range for SpO2
95%-99%
236
in the respiration lab what is hypoxemia
abnormally low concentration of oxygen in blood
237
in the respiration lab what conditions might cause hypoxemia
lung disease, anemia, high altitude
238
in the respiration lab as you hyperventilate into a bag what happens to the arterial blood pH
decreased because carbon dioxide goes up
239
in the respiration lab which is more important in regulating your breathing, oxygen or carbon dioxide
carbon dioxide, you only exhale to get rid of it
240
in the respiration lab as you hold your breath what happens to the arterial blood carbon dioxide levels
increases because you cant exhale it
241
in the respiration lab as you hold your breath what happens to the arterial blood pH
decrease because carbon dioxide goes up
242
in the respiration lab as you hyperventilate what happens to the arterial blood oxygen levels
increase a little bit (already have a lot of O2)
243
in the respiration lab as you hyperventilate what happens to the arterial blood carbon dioxide levels
decrease breathing of carbon dioxide
244
in the respiration lab as you hyperventilate what happens to the arterial blood pH
increase getting rid of acid with exhalation
245
in the respiration lab ________ is the same as holding your breath
hyperventilate into a bag
246
in the respiration lab as you hyperventilate into a bag what happens to arterial blood oxygen levels
decrease a little
247
in the respiration lab as you hyperventilate into a bag what happens to arterial blood carbon dioxide levels
increase because you cant exhale
248
in the respiration lab as you hyperventilate into a bag what happens to the arterial blood pH
decreased because carbon dioxide goes up
249
in the respiration lab which is more important in regulating your breathing, oxygen or carbon dioxide
carbon dioxide, you only exhale to get rid of it
250
in the respiration lab when you forcefully exhale after a forceful inhalation and the standard amount is _____ml
vital capacity, 4800ml
251
in the respiration lab vital capacity is measured using a
spirometer
252
in the respiration lab when you hold your breath until you cant and you take a sip of water what happens to your urge to breathe & why
it goes away because when you swallow your brain makes it so you're not able to breathe ( deglutition apnea reflex )
253
in the respiration lab of what value is this deglutition apnea reflex
anti choking
254
Compare the respiratory rate and the magnitude of the breaths between normal breathing and during the recovery from breath holding.
Normal breathing decrease in breathes per minute and increases magnitude of breathes (wave amplitude).
Whereas, recovery from breath holding increases breathes per minute and decrease magnitude of breathes (wave amplitude)
255
in the respiration lab when the subject reads out loud it looks
small waves with random peaks
256
in the respiration lab when the subject coughs it looks
extreme rise and fall
257
in the respiration lab the _________ is preformed by forcible exhalation against a closed airway, usually done by closing ones mouth and pinching ones nose shut
valsalva maneuver
258
in the respiration lab valsalva maneuver can be used to test _________ & ___________ or to _______
cardiac function & autonomic nervous control of the heart, clear the ears and sinuses
259
Why are the four breath holding values different?
Different activity levels require different O2 levels.
260
Why is carbon dioxide more important in regulating breathing?
Too much CO2 creates respiratory acidosis.
| Too little CO2 creates respiratory alkalosis
261
As you do the Valsalva maneuver what happens to the strength of the pulse?
increases
262
Does the % saturation of hemoglobin change significantly during breath holding?
no remains the same
263
Does the % saturation of hemoglobin change significantly during hyperventilation?
no remains the same
264
Compare the respiratory rate and the magnitude of the breaths between normal breathing and during the recovery from breath holding.
Normal breathing decrease in breathes per minute and increases magnitude of breathes (wave amplitude).
Whereas, recovery from breath holding increases breathes per minute and decrease magnitude of breathes (wave amplitude)
265
How do these changes help to restore homeostasis
These changes help restore homeostasis through proper gas exchange and regulation of blood pH.
Rapid breathing after recovery is to expel accumulated CO2 waste and allows oxgen to get to O2 deprived organs for ATP (cellular respiration).
266
After Valsalva maneuver what happens to the strength of the pulse?
decreases
267
in the digestive enzyme lab _______ are protein catalysts and function to speed cellular reactions
enzymes
268
in the digestive enzyme lab enzyme goes through 4 stages
substrate and enzyme are available
substrate binds to enzymes active site
substrate is converted to produts
products are released
269
in the digestive enzyme lab can enzymes be recycled
yes
270
in the digestive enzyme lab enzymes are made of ____
proteins
271
in the digestive enzyme lab true or false one enzyme is used up with each chemical reaction
false
272
in the digestive enzyme lab warmer temp makes reaction go
faster
273
in the digestive enzyme lab cooler temp makes reaction go
slower
274
in the digestive enzyme lab a pH that is more acidic than the optimum will work
slower
275
in the digestive enzyme lab a pH hat is more basic than the optimum will work
faster
276
in the digestive enzyme lab extreme ________ and extreme _____ can cause enzyme to become denatured
extreme temp and extreme pH
277
in the digestive enzyme lab pepsin is produced in the
stomach
278
in the digestive enzyme lab pepsin works in the
stomach
279
in the digestive enzyme lab the substrate for pepsin is
[protein
280
in the digestive enzyme lab the products of pepsin are
amino acids
281
in the digestive enzyme lab optimum pH for pepsin is
1.2- 2.0
282
in the digestive enzyme lab trypsin produced in the
pancreas
283
in the digestive enzyme lab trypsin works in the
small intestine
284
in the digestive enzyme lab trypsins substrate is
proteins
285
in the digestive enzyme lab trypsins products are
amino acids
286
in the digestive enzyme lab the optimum pH for trypsin is
7.5- 8.0
287
in the digestive enzyme lab lipase is produced in the ___ & _____
pancreas & small intestine
288
in the digestive enzyme lab lipase works in the
small intestine
289
in the digestive enzyme lab the substrate for lipase is
lipids
290
in the digestive enzyme lab the products for lipase are
fatty acids & monoglycerides
291
in the digestive enzyme lab he optimum pH for lipase is
7.5- 8.0
292
in the digestive enzyme labwhat chemicals were used
HCl, pH 7 buffer, NaOH
293
in the digestive enzyme lab what is placed inside the proteins
camera film
294
in the digestive enzyme lab pepsin and ____ had a positive result
HCL
295
in the digestive enzyme lab trypsin and _____ had a positive result
buffer
296
in the digestive enzyme lab litmus cream and ______ had a positive result
lipase
297
in the digestive enzyme lab pepsin and HCL pH
1
298
in the digestive enzyme lab boiled pepsin and Hcl pH
2
299
in the digestive enzyme lab pepsin and buffer pH
7
300
in the digestive enzyme lab Lipid digestion results
(Lipase)
| Positive result - A change in color from purple to pink indicates digestion of lipids has occurred in Litmus cream.
301
in the digestive enzyme lab, Why were the enzyme tubes placed in a warm water bath (37*) instead of being kept at room temperature while enzyme activity was occurring?
To maintain enzymatic activity at an optimal rate.
302
in the digestive enzyme lab trypsin and HCL pH
2
303
in the digestive enzyme lab boiled trypsin and buffer
6
304
in the digestive enzyme lab trypsin and buffer
7
305
in the digestive enzyme lab trypsin and NaOh
14
306
in the digestive enzyme lab water and buffer pH
7
307
in the digestive enzyme lab Substrate is
The substance on which an enzyme acts.
308
in the digestive enzyme lab Product is
Something" manufactured by an enzyme from its substrate.
309
in the digestive enzyme lab Protein digestion results
(Trypsin and Pepsin)
Positive result - Protein digested (enzyme worked) when film turns clear.
Negative result - film opaque
310
in the digestive enzyme lab Lipid digestion results
(Lipase)
| Positive result - A change in color from purple to pink indicates digestion of lipids has occurred in Litmus cream.
311
in the digestive enzyme lab, Why were the enzyme tubes placed in a warm water bath (37*) instead of being kept at room temperature while enzyme activity was occurring?
To maintain enzymatic activity at an optimal rate.
312
in the digestive enzyme lab are pepsin and trypsin affected differently by pH
yes because enzymes like a specific pH and pepsin is more acidic and trypsin is more basic
313
in the digestive enzyme lab, How does temperature effect the rate of an enzyme catalyzed reaction?
As temperature increases, the rate of the enzyme catalyzed reaction also increases because the molecules are moving faster and colliding more frequently. After a certain temperature, the reaction rate decreases because the heat starts to denature the enzyme so that it no longer can function.
314
phagocytic; first to arrive at an injury site; specialize in killing bacteria but also kill fungi and neutralize some viruses; die after feeding once and can form pus
Neutrophils:
315
help to prevent allergic reactions from becoming dangerously out of control, and defend against parasitic worms
Eosinophils:
316
increase blood flow to injured tissues for the healing process; secrete histamine (increase inflammation) and heparin (decrease clotting)
Basophil
317
(do not contain granules that are visible under a light microscope)
Agranulocytes (ending in cytes)
318
(contain granules that are visible under a light microscope)
Granulocytes (ending in phils)
319
leave the bloodstream to become macrophages that destroy unwanted cells and invading pathogens; they can feed many times and still remain alive
Monocytes
320
B, T & NK cells
Lymphocytes
321
produce antibodies to attack foreign invaders
B cells
322
manage the immune system, and directly attack microorganisms, cancer cells and transplanted cells
T cells
323
are special granulated lymphocytes that destroy unwanted cells
NK (natural killer) cells
324
The valsalva maneuver (forced exhalation against a closed airway) creates increased ________
thoracic pressure
325
The cardiac control center is in the
medulla oblongata
326
cranial nerve __ the _______nerve, is the parasympathetic pathway to the heart
X, vagus
327
in the cardiac lab The neurotransmitter in the
| autonomic ganglion of both sympathetic and parasympathetic pathways is _________ (the preganglionic neurotransmitter).
acetylcholine
328
in the blood pressure lab When cuff pressure is greater than ____ mm Hg and exceeds blood pressure throughout the cardiac cycle:No blood flows through the vessel. No sound is herd
120
329
in the blood pressure lab When cuff pressure is between
___&___ mm Hg:Blood flow through the vessel is turbulent
whenever blood pressure exceeds cuff pressure.
2 The first sound is heard at peak systolic pressure.
3 Intermittent sounds are produced
by turbulent spurts of flow as blood
pressure cyclically exceeds cuff pressure
120 and 80
330
in the blood pressure lab When cuff pressure is less than ___ mm Hg and is below blood pressure throughout the cardiac cycle: Blood flows through the vessel in smooth, laminar fashion.The last sound is heard at minimum
diastolic pressure. No sound is heard thereafter because
80
331
growth hormone (GH) comes from the_________ gland
Anterior Pituitary
332
```
growth hormone (GH) Stimulusis is releasing hormones of
___________
```
hypothalamus
333
growth hormone (GH ) Function is to stimulates growth of _____ organs in body; mobilizes _______ molecules, ______________ blood glucose level
all, food ,increasing
334
growth hormone (GH) Dysfunction/Disorders hypersecretion causes_______ & __________
giantism and acromegaly
335
melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH) comes from ______________ Gland
Anterior Pituitary
336
melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH) Stimulus is releasing hormones of ___________
hypothalamus
337
melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH) Function is stimulating synthesis & dispersion of ___________ in the skin
melanin pigment
338
melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH) Dysfunction/Disorders hypersecretion results in the ______ of the skin
darkening
339
adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH comes from the __________ )Gland
Anterior Pituitary
340
adrenocorticotropic hormone(ACTH) Stimulus is releasing hormones of _________
hypothalamus
341
adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) Function stimulates secretion of ______ hormones
adrenal cortex
342
adrenocorticotropic hormone(ACTH) Dysfunction/Disorders hypersecretion or hyposecretion of _______
adrenal cortex
343
follicle-stimulating hormone(FSH) Gland
Anterior Pituitary
344
follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)Stimulus is releasing hormones of ________
hypothalamus
345
follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) Function: males stimulates production and growth of ______ in seminiferous tubules of ____
females: stimulates development of follicles in ____ and secretion of____
sperm, testes
ovaries, estrogen
346
follicle-stimulating hormone(FSH) Dysfunction/Disorders hyposecretion inhibits _________ and causes sterility
sexual development
347
luteinizing hormone (LH) comes from the ________ gland
Anterior Pituitary
348
luteinizing hormone (LH) Stimulus is releasing hormones of _______
hypothalamus
349
luteinizing hormone (LH) Function is males: stimulates secretion of________ by the_______ cells of the testes
females: stimulates the secretion of ________, stimulates maturation of _____________, triggers ovulation, and stimulates development of the _____
testosterone, interstitial
estrogen, ovarian follicle and ovum, corpus luteum
350
luteinizing hormone (LH) Dysfunction/Disorders hyposecretion inhibits _______ and causes sterility
sexual development
351
prolactin (PRL) comes from the _______ gland
Anterior Pituitary
352
prolactin (PRL) Stimulus is releasing hormones of
| __________
hypothalamus
353
prolactin (PRL) Function is stimulates_____development during pregnancy and _____ development after pregnancy
breast , milk
354
prolactin (PRL) Dysfunction/Disorders hypersecretion causes________ lactation in nonnursing women and in men; hyposecretion causes________ lactation in nursing women
inappropriate, insufficient
355
thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) comes from the _____ gland
Anterior Pituitary
356
thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) Stimulus is releasing hormones of__________
hypothalamus
357
thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) Function is stimulates release of ______ hormone by the ____ gland
thyroid
358
thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) Dysfunction/Disorders hypersecretion causes _______; hyposecretion causes ________ in children and _______ in adults
hyperthyroidism, cretinis, myxedema
359
antidiuretic hormone (ADH) comes from the ________ gland
Posterior Pituitary
360
antidiuretic hormone (ADH) stimulus is
hypothalamus
361
antidiuretic hormone (ADH) function is stimulates __________ by the kidneys
water retention
362
antidiuretic hormone (ADH) Dysfunction/Disorder is hypersecretion results in abnormal ___________; hyposecretion causes _________
water retention, diabetes insipidus
363
oxytocin comes from the _______ gland
Posterior Pituitary
364
oxytocin stimulus is
hypothalamus
365
oxytocin function is stimulates _______ contractions at the end of pregnancy and the release of_____ into the ducts of the breast
uterine, milk
366
oxytocin Dysfunction/Disorder hypersecretion causes inappropriate ejection of ______ in lactating women; hyposecretion may cause prolonged or difficult____&_____
milk, labor and delivery
