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Bio 40A > Lecture Exam 2 Study Guide > Flashcards

Lecture Exam 2 Study Guide Flashcards

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1
Q

What is the largest organ in the body?

A

The Skin. Approx 2 sq. meters

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2
Q

What is another term for the skin?

A

The cutaneous membrane.

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3
Q

What is the cutaneous membrane?

A

The skin

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4
Q

Skin represents 16% of the total body weight and varies in thickness depending on the proctective functions needed in the particular location. What is the thinnest and thickest area?

A

Thinnest: eyelids, about 0.5mm thick Thickest: heel, about 4mm thick

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5
Q

Define Term: Epidermis

A

Epithelial Layer of skin

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6
Q

Define Term: Dermis

A

connective tissue layer containing blood vessels, beneath dermis

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7
Q

What are the accessory structures for the skin?

A

hair, nails, exocrine glands (sweat glands, sebaceous glands) , associated muscle and nerves

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8
Q

Define and give relative proportion in the skin: Keratinocyte

A

Most common skin cell - 90% of the cells in skin. Name comes from the type of intermediate filaments they contain. keratin.

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9
Q

Define and give relative proportion in the skin: Melanocytes

A

About 8% of the skin. Located in basal layer. Produce the pigment melanin that provides skin color. (Melanin absorbs UV light and helps protect skin from damaging effects of the sun)

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10
Q

Define and give relative proportion in the skin: Langheran’s cells

A

<2% of the skin. immune cells that migrate into skin from blood. Involved in defense. A type of resident dendritic cell – most tissues have a specialized type fo dendritic cell.

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11
Q

Define and give relative proportion in the skin: Merkel cells

A

Least numerous cell type in skin. Located in basal layer of skin in contact with sensory neurons. Involved in sense of touch (tactile response)

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12
Q

What is the function of Keratin and where would you find it? What is Keratin?

A

Keratin is a tough, fibrous protein that helps protect the skin and underlying tissues from abrasions, heat, microbes, and chemicals. Keratin is found in Keratinocytes in the epidermis, hair, and nails.

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13
Q

What are the layers of the epidermis and their locations:

A

Stratum Corneum, Stratum Lucidum, Stratum Granulosum, Stratum Spinosum, Stratum Basale

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14
Q

Put the layers of the epidermis in layer from apical to basal:

A

Stratum Corneum, Stratum Lucidum, Stratum Granulosum, Stratum Spinosum, Stratum Basale

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15
Q

Where are dividing cells located in the epidermis?

A

The basal layer of cells

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16
Q

What direction to keratinocytes migrate in the epidermis?

A

From the basal layer to the superficial zones.

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17
Q

What is the difference between thin and thick skin?

A

Thin skin has four layers (stratum basale, stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, and a thin stratum corneum). Thick skin has five layers in the epidermis (stratum basale, stratum spinosum, statum granulosum, stratum lucidum, and a thick stratum corneum). Thick skin is found where exposure to friction is greatest, e.g. fingertips, pals, soles, etc.

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18
Q

Know the major features of the pathology of Psoriasis

A

Keratinocytes divide more quickly and migrate more quickly from stratum basale to stratum corneum. The Keratinized layer is abonormal (flaky and sore)

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19
Q

What are the three pigments that contribute to skin color?

A

Melanin, Hemoglobin, and Carotene

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20
Q

How is hair color determined?

A

Two forms of melanin, pheomelanin (yellow to red) and eumelanin (brown to black)

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21
Q

Why do we vary in skin color?

A

The number of melanocytes in similar in all people. It is the amount of melanin that the melanocytes can synthesize and the amount that can be transferred to keratinocytes that varies to alter skin color.

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22
Q

What happens when melanin in unevenly distributed?

A

moles, freckles, aging spots

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23
Q

What is an albino?

A

someone with the inherited inability to produce melanin.

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24
Q

Define the area we call the dermis. How would you classify the connective tissue fo the dermis?

A

The dermis is the connective tissue underlying the epidermis and the specialized structures found there. Dense irricular connective tissue - contains collagens, proteoglycans and glycosaminoglycans, cells, blood vessels, nerves, and exocrine glands.

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25
Q

What are the differences between the papillary and the reticular regions of the dermis?

A

Papillary region: Superficial portion of dermis (about one-fifth); consists of dense irregular connective tissue with thin collagen and fine elastic fibers; contains dermal ridges that house capillaries, Meissner corpuscles, and free nerve endings. Reticular region: Deeper portion of dermis (about four-fifths); consists of dense irregular connective tissue with thick collagen and some coarse elastic fibers. Spaces between fibers contain some adipose cells, hair follicles, nerves, sebaceous glands, and sudoriferous glands.

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26
Q

Know the structural features of a hair and hair follicle

A

Hair shaft, most of which is superficial to the surface, and a root that penetrates the dermis and sometimes the subcutaneous layer, and a hair follicle. Associated with eat hair follicle is a sebacious (oil) gland, an arrector pili muscle, and a hair root plexus.

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27
Q

With respect to hair, know the meaning of the term: Bulb

A

The base of each hair follicle and its surrounding dermal root sheath, and onion-shaped structure

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28
Q

With respect to hair, know the meaning of the term: papilla of hair

A

within the bulb, nipple shaped indentation which contains areolar connective tissue and many blood vessels that nourish the growing hair follicle.

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29
Q

With respect to hair, know the meaning of the term: Cuticle of hair

A

the outermost layer of the hair, consists of a single layer of thin, flat cells that are most heavily keratinized.

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30
Q

With respect to hair, know the meaning of the term: Matrix

A

In the bulb, germinal layer of cells. The hair matrix cells arise from the stratum basale, and give rise to the cells of the internal root sheath.

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31
Q

With respect to hair, know the meaning of the term: Arrector pili

A

smooth muscle that extends from the superficial dermis of the skin to the dermal root sheath around the side of the hair follicle. Pull the hair perpendicular to the skin surface under physiological or emotional stress (e.g. cold or fright)

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32
Q

With respect to hair, know the meaning of the term: shaft and root

A

the shaft is the superficial portion of the hair which projects above the surface of the skin. The root is the portion of the hair deep to the shaft that penetrates into the dermis and sometimes into the subcutaneous layer.

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33
Q

Where do you find sebaceous glands? what do they secrete? How do they secrete? Where do they secrete?

A

-oil glands -simple, branched acinar glands -connected to hair follicles (with few exceptions) -secreting portion is in the dermis, and opens into the neck of a hair follicle. -secrete sebum, an oily mixture of triglycerides, cholesterol, proteins, and inorganic salts. Holocrine secretion.

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34
Q

What are the two types of sweat glands?

A

Eccrine (merocrine) and apocrine

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35
Q

What is a sudiferous gland?

A

A sweat gland

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36
Q

What do ceruminous glands do?

A

Secrete ear wax

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37
Q

Know the terms in the textbook diagram for a nail

A

Nail body = plate Lunula = lighter half moon at base of nail Nail root = root of nail beneath cuticle. Eponychium = cuticle Hyponychium = nail bed Nail Matrix = portion of the epithelium deep to the nail root, cells divide mitotically to produce new nail cells

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38
Q

What is the hard part of the nail made of?

A

tightly packed, dead, keratinized epidermal cells

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39
Q

Describe how the skin performs the following function: thermoregulation

A

-liberating sweat -raising/lowering hairs -dilating or constricting the capillaries to regulate blood flow to the surface of the body

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40
Q

Describe how the skin performs the following function: Blood reservoir

A

The dermis has an extensive capillary netword. Can hold as much as 10% of the total blood volume

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41
Q

Describe how the skin performs the following function: Protection

A

physical protection - against heat, drying out, UV immune protection - against bacteria, viruses, chemicals

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42
Q

Describe how the skin performs the following function: Cutaneous sensations

A

Contact with the outside world by sensing touch, vibrations, heat, cold, tickling, pain

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43
Q

Describe how the skin performs the following function: Excretion and Absorption

A

-water evaporation in form of sweat -some lipid soluble substances can be absorbed by skin (useful in drug delivery)

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44
Q

Describe how the skin performs the following function: Synthesis of Vitamin D

A

An inactive precurser of vitamin D is activated in skin by UV light and then converted to active Vit. D by enzymes in the liver and kidney

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45
Q

What are the differences in how a superficial epidermal wound and a deep wound would heal?

A

superficial wound - does not extend into the dermis. repaired by enlargement and migration of basal epidermal cells, stopping upon meeting cells from the oposite side of the wound due to contact inhibition. deep wound - injury extends to the dermis and subcutaneous layer. Inflammatory phase (blood clot forms in the wound and loosely unites the wound edges), a migratory phase, and proliferatuve phase and a maturation phase. fibrosis occurs (scar tisue is created to fill the wound).

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46
Q

How does the skin contribute to the homeostatic control of the following organ system: Skeletal System

A

Skin helps activate Vitamin D, needed for proper absorption of dietary calcium and phosphorus to build and maintain bones.

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47
Q

How does the skin contribute to the homeostatic control of the following organ system: Muscular System

A

Skin helps provide calcium ions, needed for muscle contraction

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48
Q

How does the skin contribute to the homeostatic control of the following organ system: Nervous System

A

Nerve endings in skin and subcutaneous tissue provide input to brain for touch, pressure, therman, and pain sensations

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49
Q

How does the skin contribute to the homeostatic control of the following organ system: Endocrine System

A

Keratinocytes in skin help active vitamin D to calcitriol, a hormone that aids absorption of dietary calcium and phosphorus

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50
Q

How does the skin contribute to the homeostatic control of the following organ system: Cardiovascular System

A

Local chemical changes in dermis cause widening and narrowing of skin of blood vessels, which help adjust blood flow to skin.

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51
Q

How does the skin contribute to the homeostatic control of the following organ system: Lymphatic System and immunity

A

“first line of defense” in immunity, providing mechanical barriers and chemical secretions that discourage penetration and growth of microbes; Langerhans cells in epidermis participate in immune responses by recognizing and processing foreign antigens; macrophages in dermis phagocytize microbes that penetrate skin surface.

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52
Q

How does the skin contribute to the homeostatic control of the following organ system: Respiratory System

A

Hairs in nose filter dust particles from inhaled air; stimulation of pain nerve endings in skin may alter breathing rate

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53
Q

How does the skin contribute to the homeostatic control of the following organ system: Urinary System

A

Kidney cells receive partially activated vitamin D hormone from skin and convert it to calcitriol; some waste products are excreted from body in sweat, contributing to excretion by urinary system.

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54
Q

How does the skin contribute to the homeostatic control of the following organ system: Reproductive system

A

Nerve endings in skin and subcutaneous tissue respond to erotic stimuli, thereby contributing to sexual pleasure; suckling of a baby stimulates nerve endings in skin, leading to milk ejection, mammary glands (modified sweat glands) produce milk; skin stretches during pregnancy as fetus enlarges.

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55
Q

Note that the protective and thermoregulatory roles of skin are important for the homeostatic control of all body systems.

A

This is just a note.

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56
Q

Understand how bone achieves each of the following functions: Support

A

-structural framework -supports tissues and provides attachment points for tendons of skeletal muscles

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57
Q

Understand how bone achieves each of the following functions: Protection

A

-protects internal organs (cranial bones protect skull, rub cage protects heart and lungs. lower ribs protect kidneys)

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58
Q

Understand how bone achieves each of the following functions: Assistance in Movement

A

skeletal muscles attach to bones as structure framework, enabling movement.

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59
Q

Understand how bone achieves each of the following functions: Mineral Homeostatis

A

-stores calcium and phosphorus in bone mineral -maintains homeostatic control of blood concentration of calcium and phosphorus under the control of hormones.

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60
Q

Understand how bone achieves each of the following functions: Blood Cell Production

A

Red bone marrow produces blood cells

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61
Q

Understand how bone achieves each of the following functions: Triglyceride Storage

A

bone stores energy in the form of triglycerides in yellow bone marrow

62
Q

Describe the structure of a longbone: Find and define the Diaphysis

A

the bone’s body/shaft

63
Q

Describe the structure of a longbone: Find and define the Epiphysis

A

the proximal and distal ends of the bone

64
Q

Describe the structure of a longbone: Find and define the Metaphysis

A

regions between the diaphysis and the epiphyses, contains the epiphyseal plate or line.

65
Q

Describe the structure of a longbone: Find and define the Articular Cartilage

A

thin layer of hyaline cartilage covering the part of the epiphysis where the bone forms an articulation with another bone.

66
Q

Describe the structure of a longbone: Find and define the Periosteum

A

tough connective tissue sheath and its associated blood supply that surrounds the bone surface wherever it is not overed by articular cartilage. Outer fibrous layer of dense connective tissue and inner osteogenic layer that consits of cells.

67
Q

Describe the structure of a longbone: Find and define the Endosteum

A

thin membrane that lines the medullary cavity. Contains a single layer of bone-forming cells and a small amount of connective tissue.

68
Q

Describe the structure of a longbone: Find and define the Medullary Cavity

A

hollow, cylinderical space within the diaphysis that contains the fatty yellow bone marrow and numberous blood vessels in adults.

69
Q

Know the specialized methods for preparting histological specimens of bone and how they differ from methods used for soft tissue

A

Harder and thicker than soft tissue: Ground bone: A ground section of bone refers to a microscope slide of bone that is prepared by taking a larger piece of the bone and placing it between two pieces of abrasive material–such as carbide paper. These are rotated and “grind” the section down until the bone is adequately thin to transmit incident light in a light microscope, allowing for observation of the bone structure Decalcified Bone: Bone decalcification is the removal of calcium ions from the bone through histological process thereby making the bone flexible and easy for pathological investigation.

70
Q

Know the difference between compact bone and spongy bone

A

Compact bone - organixed into osteons spongy bone - thin columns of bone called trabeculae

71
Q

Know the location, function, and origin of bone cells: Define osteogenic cells

A

osteoprogenitor cells, from which other bone cells diffrentiate. -Derived from mesenchyme, the tissue from which all connective tissue is derives. -Found in periosteum -undergo division until they become more differentiated to form osteoblasts.

72
Q

Know the location, function, and origin of bone cells: Define Osteoblasts

A

bone forming cells. -produce osteoid (unmineralized bone matrix) -once the osteoid becomes mineralized the cells become encased and differentiate to osteocytes -produce alkaline phosphatase - an enzyme that intiates mineralization. -Found in periosteum

73
Q

Know the location, function, and origin of bone cells: Define Osteocytes

A

mature bone cells - Lose the high secretory activity of osteoblasts - Require close proximity to blood vessels - Reside in Lacunae, encased by mineralized bone - Communicate bia gap junctions. Cells connect via processes that run through canaliculi.

74
Q

Know the location, function, and origin of bone cells: Define Osteoclasts

A

bone resorbing cells. -Large, multi-nucleate cells - Derived from bone marrow cells called monocytes - secrete acidic hydrolytic enzymes to break down (resorb) bone - Form depressions called Howship’s lacunae or resorption bays

75
Q

Understand the pathways that give rise to Osteocytes

A

Mesenchymal cells form osteogenic cells which form osteoblasts. These osteoblasts become encased in mineralized matrix and form osteocytese. These osteocytes connect to one another via cytoplasmic processes that run through canaliculi. The processes connect together via gap junctions.

76
Q

Understand the pathways that give rise to Osteoclasts

A

Monocytes from blood fuse together to form osteoclasts. Osteoclasts are big multinucleate cells that break down bone.

77
Q

Define Term: Osteoid

A

Bone matrix before is has become mineralized - consists of collagen (mostly type I, some type V) ad a small amount of proteoglycan and GAGs - becomes rigid once mineralized (as hydroxyapatite) to form bone.

78
Q

Know how compact bone is organized into osteons

A

Organized into structural units - haversian systems or osteons

79
Q

Name all the components of an osteon and know their functions:

A

Each osteon consists of concentric lamellae arranged around a central canal. Resembling the growth rings of a tree, the concentric lamellae are circular plates of mineralized extracellular matrix of increasing diameter, surrounding a small netword of blood vessels, lymphatics, and nerves located in the central canal. Osteons rest in lacunas and speak to one another via cap junctions through the canaliculi, little spaces filled in extracellular fluid.

80
Q

Understand how the blood supply is organized to compact bone.

A

Blood vessels run through each osteon.

81
Q

Why is it necessary for compact bone to be organized into osteons?

A

osteocytes need access to materials which cannot easily diffuse through the calified layers, so they need to be close to a blood vessel.

82
Q

Define: Intramembranous ossification

A

bone forms directly within mesenchyme, which is arranged in sheetlike layers that resemble membranes.

83
Q

Define: Endochondral ossification

A

bone forms within hyaline cartilage that develops from mesenchyme.

84
Q

Know, in detail, the steps of Intramembranous ossification.

A
  1. Development of the ossification center - Chemical messages cause the mesenchymal cells to cluster at the site where bones will delvelop, and differentiate into osteogenic cells and then into osteoblasts. -Osteoblasts secrete osteoid (unmineralixed matrix) 2. Calcification - As the osteoid becomes mineralized the osteoblasts differentiate into osteocytes, which become surrounded by matrix. they put out cytoplasmic extensions (processes) through thin channels in the matrix called cannaliculi. The matrix becomes hardened (calcified) 3. Formation of trabeculae -As the bone becomes hardened it develops into thin strips called trabeculae. Blood vessels grow into the spaces between trabeculae. Bone marrow develops in those spaces. 4. Formation of a periosteum: -periosteum develops at the periphery that is capable of developing new bone. Eventually, a layer of compact bone develops. Osteoclasts work together with osteoblasts to reform the bone into an adult shape.
85
Q

Know, in detail, the steps of endochondral ossification.

A
  1. Development of a cartilage template -hyaline cartilage is formed in the shape of a young bone. 2. Cartilage template begins to calcify -and the connective tissue around the template befins to contain osteogenic cells 3. Development of a primary center of ossification -An artery enters the center of the template through an opening called the nutrient foramen. Cartilage is broken down into spicules and osteogenic cells from the blood develop into osteoblasts that start to lay down bone. 4. Development of a medullary cavity -the bone in the center forms a medullary cavity and the bone on the outside begins to model to form compact bone. 5. Development of a secondary center of ossification -the same process occures at the ends (epiphysis) of the structure. An epiphyseal artery enters and starts to lay down bone. 6. Formation of articular cartilage and an epiphseal plate. -center of epiphysis fills with spongy bone. Cartilage is left at the surface to become articular cartilage and left at the site of the epiphyseal plate.
86
Q

How does a longbone grow in length?

A

growth up from the diaphasis through the growth plate. Epiphyseal plate consists of four zones: zone of resting cartilage, zone of proliferating cartilage, zone of hypertrophic cartilage, and zone of calcified cartilage (in order down epiphysis to diaphysis). 2 parts -Interstitial growth of cartilage on the epiphyseal side of the epiphyseal plate - Replacement of cartilage on the diaphyseal side of the epiphyseal plate with bone by endochondrial ossification

87
Q

How does a longbone grow in width?

A

Appositional growth -Periostial cells differentiate into osteoblasts which secrete collagen fibers and organic molecules to form the matrix -Ridges fuse and the periosteum becomes the endosteum -new concentric lamellae are formed -osteoblasts under the periostium form new circumferential lamellae

88
Q

What are the nutritional and hormonal factors that influence bone growth?

A

Nutrition - Adequate levels of minerals and vitamins (calcium and phosphorus for bone growth, Vit C for collagen formation, Vit K and B12 for protein synthesis) Sufficient levels of specific horomones -needs insulin-like growth factor (IGF1) to promote cell division at epiphyseal plate. Also need human growth horomore, thyroid horomore, and insulin. -Sex steroids needed at puberty. Estrogen and testosterone stimulate suddent growth and modifications of the skeleten to create the male and female forms. -estrogen initiates closure of epiphyseal plate

89
Q

What happens if too much human growth horomone is secreted in children?

A

gigantism

90
Q

What happens to the skeleton if too little human growth horomore or thyroid horomore is secreted during childhood?

A

Short stature

91
Q

What is responsible for closure of the epiphyseal plate at puberty?

A

-estrogen

92
Q

Understand the steps in bone remodeling and the cells involved.

A

remodeling: osteons are replaced one by one by removing old bone and laying down new bone in the same location. -Old bone constantly destroyed by osteoclasts, new bone constructed by osteoblasts -Osteoclasts care out small tunnels and osteoblasts rebuild osteons –osteoclasts form leak-proof seal around cell edges, secrete enxymes and acids onto the surface of bone, releasing calcium and phosphorus into interstitial fluid. Osteoblasts than take over by rebuilding bone.

93
Q

Define: Bone modeling

A

bone is removed from one place and laid down in another

94
Q

Define: Bone remodeling

A

bone is removed from one place and new bone is laid down int he same place

95
Q

How does bone contribute to the homeostatic control of all other organ systems?

A

For all body systems: Bones provide support and proctection, store and release calcium which is needed for proper functioning of most body tissues.

96
Q

Know the term hematoma and how it applies to fracture healing.

A

Fracture hematoma = the blod clot formed in the fracture. building fracture hematomy is the first step in fracture repair.

97
Q

Know the term bone callus and how it applies to fracture healing.

A

second step – organization of the fracture hematoma into granulation tissue called a procallus that is subsequently transformed into a fibrocartilaginous callus. Third step – conversaion of the fibrocartilaginous callus into the spongy bone of a bony callus, and finally remodeling of the callus to nearly original form.

98
Q

How the terminology for different types of fractures: Open fracture

A

compound fracture, bone has punctured through the skin

99
Q

How the terminology for different types of fractures: Closed fracture

A

broken bone where the bone has not punctured through the skin

100
Q

How the terminology for different types of fractures: Comminuted fracture

A

A fracture in which the bone has broken into several pieces.

101
Q

How the terminology for different types of fractures: Greenstick fracture

A

A greenstick fracture is a fracture in a young, soft bone in which the bone bends and partially breaks. This is owing in large part to the thick fiborous periosteum of immature bone.

102
Q

How the terminology for different types of fractures: Impacted fracture

A

A fracture caused when bone fragments are driven into each other.

103
Q

How the terminology for different types of fractures: Pott’s fracture

A

a fracture of the lower part of the fibula often accompanied with injury to the tibial articulation so that the foot is dislocated outward

104
Q

How the terminology for different types of fractures: Colle’s fracture

A

a distal fracture of the radius with dorsal (posterior) displacement of the wrist and hand

105
Q

What are the advantages of a bone scan over an X-ray for detecting bone abnormalities?

A

A bone scan detects abnormalities 3 to 6 months sooner than standard x-ray procedures and exposes the patient to less radiation. A bone scan is uses a small amount of a radioactive tracer compound that is readily absorbed by bone.

106
Q

What horomores and vitamins are responsible for regulating calcium homeostatis?

A

parathyroid horomone regulates calcium homestais -conservation of calcium by kidney -release of calcium from bone -enhanced absorption of calcium from gut (indirect via Vit D) -Reduction in plasma phosphate

107
Q

What is the influence of exercise and exercise withdrawal on bone strength?

A

exercise strengthens bones, severe lack of exercise causes bone loss

108
Q

What are the influences of aging on bone tissue?

A

dimineralization, a loss of calcium from bones, which is due to reduced osteoblast activity. Also, decreased production of extracellular matrix proteins (mostly collagen fibers), which makes ones more brittle and thus more susceptible to fracture

109
Q

Know the main features of the following disease: Osteoporosis

A

balance between new bon formation and bone breakdown in disrupted => bone loss occurs

110
Q

Know the main features of the following disease: Osteoarthritis

A

articular cartilage is lost – caused by injury, aging, and inflammation. Results in pain and immobility.

111
Q

Know the main features of the following disease: Osteogenic Sarcoma

A

Bone cancer due to abnormal growth of osteoblasts – most common in teenagers in femur, tibia, or humerous –metastases (spread of tumor) most commonly to lungs

112
Q

Know the main features of the following disease: Rheumatoid Arthritis

A

An auto-immune form of arthritis, like osteoarthritis, primary symptom is articular cartilage loss. Synovial membrane proliferates much more than in Osteoarthrisi. Ingaves bone and causes bone damange.

113
Q

Know the main features of the following disease: Osteomyelitis

A

infection of bone, often caused by staphlylococcus aureus infection (from sugery, tissue damage, or systemic infection)

114
Q

Know the main features of the following disease: Osteopenia

A

a generalized term meaning bone loss, can be due to osteoporosis, malnutrition, or severe lack of exercise

115
Q

Know the main features of the following disease: Gouty Arthritis

A

particularly influences big toe -due to build up of uric acid crystals in joint -traditionally thought to be due to too much rich food -now known to have a strong genetic component

116
Q

Know the main features of the following disease: Lyme Disease

A

Due to a bacteria transmitted to humans by ticks. Initial fever, rash, stiffness, headache, nausea. most common longterm sympton is arthritis

117
Q

Know the main features of the following disease: Ankylosing Spondylitis

A

Affects intervertebral discs -characterized by pain and stiffness of hips and lower back

118
Q

Know the main features of the following disease: Rickets

A

Osteomalacia in children is known as rickets, and because of this, use of the term osteomalacia is often restricted to the milder, adult form of the disease. Osteomalacia is the softening of the bones.

119
Q

Know the main features of the following disease: Osteomalacia

A

Osteomalacia refers to a softening of your bones, often caused by a vitamin D deficiency. In children, this condition is called rickets. Soft bones are more likely to bow and fracture than are harder, healthy bones.

120
Q

Define Term: Joint

A

joins hold bones together but permit movement, structural classification is based on the presence or absense of a synovial (joint) cavity and type of connective tissue, classified as fibrous, cartilaginous, or synovial

121
Q

Define Term: Articulation

A

-a joint or juncture between bones or cartilages in the skeleton of a vertebrate -a movable joint between rigid parts of an animal

122
Q

Define Term: Arthrology

A

study of joints

123
Q

Define Term: Kinesiology

A

study of motion

124
Q

Define and give examples: Fibrous Joints

A

-lack a synovial cavity -bones held closely together by fibrous connective tissue -little of no movement (synarthroses or amphiarthroses) -3 structure types: sutures in the skull, syndesmoses like tibifibular joint and interosseous membrane, gomphoses like teeth in alveolar processes

125
Q

Define and give examples: Cartilagenous Joints

A

-Lacks a synovial cavity -Allows little or no movement -Bones tightly connected by fibrocartilage or hyaline cartilage -2 types: synchondroses (epiphyseal plate or joins between ribs and sternum) and smyphyses (intervertebral discs and pubic symphysis

126
Q

Define and give examples: Synovial Joints

A

-Synovial cavity separates articulating bones -Freely moveable (diarthrosis) -Articular cartilage reduces friction and absorbs shock -Articular capsule surrounds joint, thickenings in firbrous capsule called ligaments -Synovial membrane at inner lining of capsule e.g. knees

127
Q

Functional classification of joints. Define: Synarthoses

A

Immoveable joint

128
Q

Functional classification of joints. Define: Amphiarthrosis

A

Slightly moveable joint

129
Q

Functional classification of joints. Define: Diarthrosis

A

Freely moveable (this class represents about 90% of the joints in the body) joint

130
Q

Know the basic components of a synovial joint. Use the diagram given in lecture as an example.

A

joint space is synovial joint cavity (synovial fluid is viscous b/c of hyaluronic acid)

Articular cartilage covering ends of bones

-articular capsule surrounds the diarthrosis, encloses the synovial cavity and unites the articualting bones.

The articular capsule is composed as two layers – the outer fibrous capsuel and the inner synovial membrane.

131
Q

Know the difference between a joint sprain and a joint strain

A

sprain: -twisting of joint that stretches or tears ligaments -no dislocation of the bones -may damage nearby blood vessels, muscles or tendons -swelling & hemorrhage from blood vessels often occurs in ankle if frequently sprained Strain: -generally less serious injury -overstretched or partially torm muscle

132
Q

What is a bursa?

A

-fluid-filled saclike extensions of the join capsule -reduce friction between movign structures (skin rubs over bone, tendon rubs over bone)

133
Q

What is bursitis?

A

chronic inflamation of a bursa (very painful)

134
Q

Be capable of describing the meaning fo the following terms with respect to join movement: Flexion

A

Flexion results in a decrease in the angle between articulating bones. Lateral flexion involved the movement of the trunk sideways to the right or left at the waist.

135
Q

Be capable of describing the meaning fo the following terms with respect to join movement: Extension

A

results in the increase in the angle between articulating bones

136
Q

Be capable of describing the meaning fo the following terms with respect to join movement: Hyperextension

A

is a continuation of the extension beyond the anatomical position and is usually prevented by the arrangement of ligaments and the anatomical alignment of bones

137
Q

Be capable of describing the meaning fo the following terms with respect to join movement: Abduction

A

Abduction refers to the movement of a bone away from the midline

138
Q

Be capable of describing the meaning fo the following terms with respect to join movement: Adduction

A

adduction refers to the movement of a bone toward the midline

139
Q

Be capable of describing the meaning fo the following terms with respect to join movement: Rotation

A

in rotation, a bone revolves around its own longitudinal axis

140
Q

Be capable of describing the meaning fo the following terms with respect to join movement: Pronation

A

is a movement of the forearm at the proximal and distal radioulnar joints in which the distal end fo the radius corsses over the distal end of the ulna and the palm is turned posteriorly or inferiorly

141
Q

Be capable of describing the meaning fo the following terms with respect to joint movement: Supination

A

is a movement of the forearm at the proximal and sital radiulnal joins in which the palm is turned anteriorly or superiorly

142
Q

Be capable of describing the meaning fo the following terms with respect to join movement: Circumduction

A

Movement of a distan of of a body part in a circle (combination of flexion, extension, adduction, and abduction. Occurs at ball and socket, saddle, and condyloid joints.

143
Q

How does bone contribute to the homeostatic control of Integumentary System:

A

Bones provide strong support for overlying muscles and skin.

144
Q

How does bone contribute to the homeostatic control of Muscular System:

A

Bones provide attachment points for muscles and leverage for muscles to bring about body movements; contraction of skeletal muscle requires calcium ions

145
Q

How does bone contribute to the homeostatic control of Nervous system:

A

Skull and vertebrae protect brain and spinal cord; normal blood level of calcium is needed for normal functioning of neuros and neuroglia

146
Q

How does bone contribute to the homeostatic control of Endocrine System:

A

Bones store and release calcium, needed during exocytosis of hormone-filled vesicles and for normal actions of many hormones

147
Q

How does bone contribute to the homeostatic control of Cardiovascular System:

A

Red bone marrow carries out hemopoiesis (blood cell formation); rhythmic beating of the heart requires calcium ions

148
Q

How does bone contribute to the homeostatic control of Lymphatic system and immunity

A

red bone marrow produces lymphocytes, white blood cells that are involved in immune response

149
Q

How does bone contribute to the homeostatic control of respiratory system

A

Axial skeleton of thorax protects lungs; rib movements assist in breathing; some muscles used for breathing attach to bones via tendons

150
Q

How does bone contribute to the homeostatic control of Digestive System

A

Teeth masticate (chew) food; rib cage protects esophagus, stomach, and liver; pelvis protects portions of the intestines

151
Q

How does bone contribute to the homeostatic control of Urinary System

A

Ribs partially protect kidneys; pelvis protects urinary bladder and urethra

152
Q

How does bone contribute to the homeostatic control of Reproductive Systems

A

Pelvis protects ovaries, uterine (fallopian) tubes, and uterus in females and part of ductus (vas) deferens and accessory glands in males; bones are an important source of calcium needed for milk synthesis during lactation

Bio 40A (23 decks)

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