Lecture 3 (9-16) Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 3 reasons AROM could be limited

A
  1. Active muscle dysfunction
  2. Passive motion restriction
  3. Joint stability
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is active muscle dysfunction

A

Problem with the muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Examples of active muscle dysfunction

A

Organic weakness, reflex, inhibition due to pain or effusion, or abnormal motor recruitment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What falls under abnormal motor recruitment (3)

A
  1. Antagonists: guarding or splinting
  2. Synergists: Substitutions
  3. Abnormal temporal characteristics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is passive motion restriction

A

Something is blocking the joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is joint stability

A

The person doesn’t want to do the same action that caused the injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the 3 reasons PROM can be limited

A
  1. Passive insufficiency
  2. Intraarticular obstruction
  3. Muscle guarding or splinting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What structures is passive insufficiency due to

A

Capsule, ligament, or muscle that crosses 2 joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is intraarticular obstruction due to

A

Loose body, cartilage, or tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Can the amount of motion change with intraarticular obstruction

A

Yes, because loose body moves around

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is muscle guarding or splinting due to

A

Apprehension or pain from tissue reactivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Who designed the contractile inert test (screen exam)

A

James Cyriax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When did Cyriax develop the contractile inert test

A

1930s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What does the contractile inert test examine

A

AROM, PROM, and resisted isometric testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What end feel is bone on bone

A

Hard end feel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What end feel is springy rebound

A

Firm end feel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What end feel is soft tissue approximation

A

Soft end feel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What end feel occurs anytime a patient has pain or excessive ROM

A

Empty end feel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the 4 scores of the resisted isometric test

A
  1. Strong painless
  2. Strong painful
  3. Weak painful
  4. Weak painless
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is abnormal end feel

A

Limited ROM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How do you find the percentage of loss for pattern limitations

A

Take measured value and divide by normal value and multiple times 100 (% formula)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

If pain you should ask what

A

Is it compression load intolerance or tensile load intolerance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What tissues experience compression load intolerance (6)

A
  1. Articular cartilage
  2. Periosteum
  3. Bursa/fat pad
  4. Tendon and/or tendon sheath
  5. meniscus or articular disc
  6. Neural tissue
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What tissues experience tensile load intolerance (4)

A
  1. Capsule
  2. Ligament
  3. Tendon or muscle
  4. Neural tissue
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Tendons resist what 99.9% of the time

A

Tensile load

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

True or False:

If AROM is full and pain free you can choose not to perform PROM

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What might cause AROM to be less than PROM

A
  1. Active muscle dysfunction
  2. Tensile load intolerance
  3. Patient reluctance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What might cause AROM limitation = PROM limitation (3)

A
  1. Passive insufficiency
  2. Intra-articular obstruction
  3. Muscle guarding or splinting
29
Q

What might cause AROM>PROM

A

Patient won’t let you move them because they don’t trust you not to hurt them

30
Q

What are the 3 aspects of muscle performance and testing

A
  1. Strength
  2. Power
  3. Endurance
31
Q

What is strength

A

10 rep max

32
Q

What is power

A

1 rep max

33
Q

What is endurance

A

Time component

34
Q

What is a concentric contraction

A

Muscle shortening

35
Q

What is an eccentric contraction

A

Muscle lengthening

36
Q

What is an isometric contraction

A

Muscle doesn’t change length

37
Q

What are the types of muscle performance examination (2)

A

Resisted isometric tests and strength/endurance tests

38
Q

What are the types of resisted isometric tests (2)

A
  1. Cyriax classification

2. Force to pain on set (FTPO)

39
Q

What are the types of strength/endurace tests (4)

A
  1. Manual muscle testing (MMT)
  2. Isotonic “x” RM testing
  3. Isokinetic testing
  4. Functional task testing
40
Q

If a patient has pain what can’t you do

A

Manual muscle testing

41
Q

What are the 3 things resisted isometric testing looks for

A
  1. Testing the abilities of the contractile unit
  2. Examining gross strength in a static position
  3. Possible reactivity (pain production)
42
Q

What is another name for resisted isometric testing

A

Break testing

43
Q

What things are test when testing the abilities of the contractile unit (5)

A
  1. innervation
  2. Muscle
  3. Myotendinous junction
  4. Tendon
  5. Tendoperiosteal junction
44
Q

What are 3 observations an examiner should make during resisted isometric movement

A
  1. Whether the contraction causes pain
  2. Strength of contraction
  3. Type of contraction causing problem
45
Q

What is indicative or strong and painless

A

Normal contractile unit

46
Q

What is indicative of strong and painful

A

“Minor” involvement in muscle or tendon

47
Q

What is indicative of weak and painful

A

More severe muscle or tendon lesion

48
Q

What is indicative of weak and painless

A

Complete muscle or tendon rupture or neurological problem

49
Q

What grade is strong and painful

A

Grade 1

50
Q

What grade is weak and painful

A

Grade 2

51
Q

What grade is weak and painless

A

Grade 3

52
Q

What is the only difference between FTPO testing and resisted isometric testing

A

Use of a dynamometer

53
Q

What is the MMT grading scale

A

0-5

54
Q

What does 0 indicate

A

No contraction

55
Q

What does 5 indicate

A

Full strength

56
Q

What does + mean

A

Less than half the expected range

57
Q

What does - mean

A

More than half the expected range just not full

58
Q

True or False:

There is a significant function difference between 3+, 3, 3-, and 2-

A

True

59
Q

What are the aspects of joint integrity and mobility testing (6)

A
  1. Examination of accessory motion
  2. Testing performed by PT
  3. Normally equal to or less than 4mm
  4. Assess patient in resting or loose pack position
  5. Typically assess motion parallel or perpendicular to the joint plane
  6. Compare bilaterally
60
Q

What is component motion

A

Motion that accompanies active motion, but not under voluntary control

61
Q

What is joint play

A

Motion that occurs between the joint surfaces

62
Q

What is loose pack

A

Position where there is the most joint play

63
Q

What is closed pack

A

No joint play, flexion or extension

64
Q

What happens to sympathetic activity if you increase inflammation

A

Increase

65
Q

What happens to sympathetic activity if you decrease vascularity

A

Decrease

66
Q

Moist and smooth represents increased or decreased sympathetic activity

A

Increased

67
Q

Dry and scaly represents increased or decreased sympathetic activity

A

Decreased

68
Q

Is pitting or not pitting bad

A

Pitting

69
Q

What does pitting indicate

A

Vasculature issues