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Basic > Law > Flashcards

Law Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three mayor European aviation authorities?

A

EASA - European Aviation Safety Agency
ECAC - European Civil Aviation Conference
Eurocontrol - European organisation for the Safety of Air Navigation

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2
Q

Name 5 ICAO Annexes

A 
Personal Licensing
Rules of the Air
Met
Air Traffic Services
Search and Rescue
Aerodromes
Aeronautical Telecommunications
Aeronautical Information Services
Security
Facilitation
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3
Q

What are SARPs?

A

Standards and Recommended Practices

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4
Q

Define Standards

A

A specification, the uniform application of which is necessary for the safety or regularity of international air navigation.

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5
Q

Define Recommended

A

A specification, the uniform application of which is desirable in the interest of safety, regularity or efficiency.

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6
Q

What is PANS?

A

Procedures for Air Navigation Services

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7
Q

What are SUPPS?

A

Regional Supplementary Procedures

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8
Q

What are PANS used for?

A

Details of operating practices and material too detailed for SARPs
Recommended for worldwide application.

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9
Q

What are SUPPS used for?

A

Special procedures that are considered necessary to supplement PANS

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10
Q

What are the 9 ICAO geographical regions?

A 
African-Indian Oceon
Asia
Caribbean
European
Middle East
North American
North Atlantic
Pacific
South American
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11
Q

What is SARG?

A

Safety and Airspace Regulatory Group

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12
Q

What are the responsibilities of the CAA?

A 
Air Safety
Economic Regulation
Airspace Regulation
Consumer Protection
Environmental Research and Consultancy
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13
Q

Name 5 aviation organisations

A 
Canso
IATA
AIRE
IFALPA
IFATCA
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14
Q

What is required to hold a student ATC licence?

A

18+
Successful completion of initial training
Valid medical certificate
English level 4+

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15
Q

Initial training comprises:

A 
Air law
ATC equipment
General knowledge
Human performance
Meteorology
Navigation
Operational procedures
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16
Q

When is a medical certificate renewed?

A

After expiration. 1 year from date of issue if under 40, otherwise 2 years.

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17
Q

When is a medical certificate revalidated?

A

Within 45 days prior to expiry of current certificate.

Special tests should be completed within 60 days prior.

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18
Q

List the 6 control ratings:

A

Aerodrome Control Visual Rating (ADV)
Aerodrome Control Instrument Rating (ADI)
Área Control Procedural Rating (ACP)
Área Control Surveillance Rating (ACS)
Approach Control Procedural Rating (APP)
Approach Control Surveillance Rating (APS)

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19
Q

What is required to hold a Full ATC license?

A 
Completed unit endorsement
Pass rating assessment
Valid medical
English lv +4
Privileges exercised within 1 year
Student ATC licence
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20
Q

What is contained within a unit endorsement?

A 
License number
Rating and endorsement
Place
Radar equipment if relevant
Date of test
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21
Q

When is an aircraft said to be in flight?

A

From the first movement under its own power, after embarkation, for the purpose of taking off, until the moment when it next comes to rest after landing.

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22
Q

Define Commercial Air Transport (CAT)

A

An aircraft operation to transport passengers, cargo or mail for remuneration or other valuable consideration.
Must hold EU-OPS air operator certificate.

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23
Q

What is classed as public transport?

A

None CAT flights where there is payment for the carriage to a non-crew member.

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24
Q

Who does SERA apply to?

A

Airspace users and aircraft engaged in General Air Traffic (GAT)
Operating into, within or out of the EU.
Bearing the nationality and registration of a member state and operating without conflicting the rules published by the country having jurisdiction of the territory overflown.

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25
Q

To whom can exemptions from SERA be given?

A 
Police and customs missions
Traffic surveillance and pursuit missions
Environmental control missions
Search and rescue
Medical flights
Evacuations 
Fire fighting
26
Q

When can the pilot depart from SESAR regulations?

A

When absolutely necessary in interest of safety.

27
Q

Define uncertainty phase

A

A situation wherein uncertainty exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants.

28
Q

Define alert phase

A

A situation wherein apprehension exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its occupants

29
Q

Define distress phase

A

A situation wherein there is a reasonable certainty that an aircraft and its occupants are threatened by grave and imminent danger or require immediate assistance

30
Q

List light signals used by aircraft in flight to Aerodrome

A

Red - immediate assistance is requested
Green - (Night) May I land. (Day) May I land in a different direction from T
White/navigation lights - I am compelled to land.

31
Q

List light signals used by aerodromes to aircraft in flight

A

Continuous red - give way to other aircraft and continue circling.
Flashing red - do not land, aerodrome not available for landing.
Continuous green - you may land.
Flashing green - return to aerodrome, wait for permission to land.

32
Q

How are non RTF acknowledgments given?

A

In flight: (day) rocking aircraft wings, (night) flashing twice landing/nav lights.
On ground: (day) moving aileron and rudder, (Night) flashing twice landing/nav lights.

33
Q

What lights must displayed by aircraft in flight?

A

By day: anti-collision light.

By night: anti-collision light and navigation lights.

34
Q

What lights must be displayed by aircraft on the ground?

A

At night:
Navigation lights when moving on the movement area (taxi and tow)
Display lights on extremities where not adequately lit.
At day:
Anti-collision when taxiing, towed or when engine is running.

35
Q

Who has right of way when aircrafts approach head on?

A

Neither. Both shall stop (if on ground) or alter course to the right where practical

36
Q

Who has right of way when aircrafts converge?

A

The aircraft approaching on the right.

Roundabout rules.

37
Q

Who has right of way when aircraft are overtaking?

A

The aircraft being overtaken.

Overtake to the right.

38
Q

When do emergency vehicles have priority?

A

When preceding to assist aircraft in distress.

Blue lights.

39
Q

When can aircraft be flown in formation?

A

By pre-arrangement by the pilots in command.

In controlled airspace must be in accordance with conditions prescribed by the competent authority.

40
Q

When entering aerodrome vicinity what must be done?

A

Conform to traffic pattern or keep clear.

Make all turns to left unless ground signals indicate otherwise or authorized by ATC

41
Q

Who has right of way on final approach?

A

The aircraft at lower altitude, unless emergency or permission given by ATC for overtake.

42
Q

What are minimum height rules for VFR?

A

Over congested areas or assembly of persons at least 1000 feet above highest obstacle within 600m
Elsewhere, at least 500 feet above ground or water, or highest obstacle within 150m
Same as IFR at night

43
Q

What are minimum height rules IFR?

A

Over high terrain or mountainous areas at least 2000 feet above highest obstacle within 8km.
Elsewhere, at least 1000 feet above highest obstacle within 8km.

44
Q

What special flights can be conducted in accordance with Union or National legislation?

A

Dropping or Spraying
Towing
Parachute Descents
Aerobatic flight

45
Q

What light signals are used by an aerodrome to communicate ground movements?

A 
Continuous red - stop
Flashing red - clear runway.
Continuous green - clear to take-off
Flashing green - clear to move on the manoeuvring area.
Flashi white - return to start point
46
Q

Define night

A

The hours between the end of civil evening twilight and the beginning of morning civil morning twilight.

47
Q

Define flight visibility

A

The visibility forward from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight

48
Q

Define ground visibility

A

The visibility at an aerodrome as reported by an accredited observer or by automatic systems.

49
Q

Define VMC

A

Meteorological conditions expressed in terms of visibility, distance from cloud, and ceiling, equal to or better than specified minima.

50
Q

Define IMC

A

Meteorological less than the mínima specified for VMC

51
Q

List the VMC mínima requirements:

A 
At or above FL100 - visibility 8km
3000ft amsl - visibility 5km
1000ft vertical cloud separation 
1500m horizontal cloud seperation
In F and G Surface must be in sight
52
Q

What are the VMC exceptions for in F and G airspace?

A 
When prescribed by the competent authority
140kts
Clear of cloud
WSIS
Visibility 1500m
53
Q

What are the VMC exceptions for helicopters in F and G airspace?

A

Clear of cloud
WSIS
Speed compatible with visibility
800m visibility

54
Q

What are the VFR flight levels above 3000ft?

A

Westbound even +500ft
Eastbound odd +500ft
Up to FL285

55
Q

What must VFR be authorised by a competent authority to do?

A

Fly above FL195

Reach transonic and supersonic speeds.

56
Q

Define SVFR

A

A VFR flight cleared by ATC to operate in a control zone in conditions below VMC

57
Q

What conditions must be applied for SVFR?

A 
Clear of cloud and WSIS
Flight visibility 1500m
IAS of 140kts or les during the day
Ground visibility of 1500m
Ceiling is not less than 600ft.
58
Q

When can IFR change to VFR?

A

When VMC conditions are anticipated to continue uninterrupted for a reasonable period.
ATSU must be notified.

59
Q

What are the IFR cruising levels?

A

Westbound fly even levels above 1000ft amsl up to FL400
Eastbound fly off levels above 1000ft amsl up to FL410
Above FL410 all odd seperated by 2000ft

60
Q

When must IFR outside of controlled airspace report position?

A

When passing compulsory reporting points
As requested by ATCU
When in risk areas

61
Q

What is the speed limit below FL100 and its exceptions?

A

Below FL100 must fly 250kts or less, except:
In class A and B
IFR in class C
VFR in class C when approved in Mats pt2 and authorised by ATC
Flights in class D airspace when approved in MATS pt2 and authorised by ATC
Flying displays
Test flying
Military
With written permission granted by competent authority.

Basic (16 decks)

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