lab two: osteology - the axial skeleton Flashcards

1
Q

how many bones do humans have at birth?

A

300 bones

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2
Q

how many bones do we have as adults?

A

206-213 bones

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3
Q

what are the two major categories of the skeletal system?

A

axial skeleton and appendicular skeleton

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4
Q

axial skeleton

A

consists of 80 bones

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5
Q

appendicular skeleton

A

consists of 126 bones

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6
Q

what are the five major functions of the skeletal system?

A

support, movement, protection, storage of minerals, and production of blood cells

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7
Q

what are the major bones of the cranium?

A

frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital, sphenoid, ethmoid, maxilla, and mandible

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8
Q

bones of the adult skeleton are compromised of what two basic kinds of osseous tissue that differ in their texture?

A

compact bone and spongy bone

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9
Q

compact bone

A

looks smooth and homogeneous

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10
Q

spongy bone

A

composed of small trabeculae (tiny beams and struts) of bone and lots of open spaces

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11
Q

what are the different classifications of bone based on their gross anatomy?

A

long, short, flat, sesamoid, and irregular

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12
Q

long bones

A

longer than they are wide and generally consist of a shaft with heads at either end

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13
Q

long bones are primarily composed of _____

A

compact bone

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14
Q

short bones

A

roughly cube-shaped and contain more spongy bone than compact bone

ex: carpals

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15
Q

flat bones

A

generally flattened along a major aspect of their geometry, but can be curved with two wafer-like layers of compact bone between a layer of spongy bone

ex: sternum

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16
Q

examples of flat bone that are curved

A

ribs and occipital bone

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17
Q

irregular bones

A

do not fit into the other categories due to their irregular morphology

ex: vertebra

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18
Q

bones are encapsulated in a _____

A

periosteum

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19
Q

periosteum

A

tough, fibrous membrane that covers the compact bone surface and appears shiny and glossy

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20
Q

the periosteum is made up of what two layers?

A

an outer fibrous layer and an inner cellular layer

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21
Q

outer fibrous layer of periosteum

A

layer where muscle tendons and bone ligaments attach

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22
Q

inner cellular layer of periosteum

A

layer that produces the osteoblasts

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23
Q

osteoblasts

A

needed for bone growth; are eventually embedded in the bone matrix they produce and become osteocytes

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24
Q

osteocytes

A

maintain bone tissue

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25
Q

diaphysis

A

a long, central shaft found in long bones

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26
Q

proximal epiphysis

A

on the end of the long bone closest to the trunk of the body

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27
Q

distal epiphysis

A

on the end of the long bone furthest away from the trunk of the body

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27
Q

wherever an epiphysis articulates with another bone, a layer of _____ covers the epiphysis

A

hyaline cartilage (articular cartilage)

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28
Q

the wall of the diaphysis is made of what?

A

compact bone

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29
Q

the interior of the diaphysis is hollow, forming a space called the _____

A

marrow (medullary) cavity

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30
Q

the vast majority of the medullary cavities in the long bone of adults contains a high concentration of lipids called _____

A

yellow marrow

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31
Q

endosteum

A

a membrane that lines the marrow cavity

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32
Q

metaphysis

A

located between the diaphysis and either epiphysis

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33
Q

the epiphyseal line forms in place of the _____

A

epiphyseal plate

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34
Q

what does the formation of the epiphyseal line indicate?

A

bone has transitioned from the juvenile stage to the adult stage

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35
Q

when does bone growth stop?

A

when cartilage of the epiphyseal plate disappears and is replaced by the bone (epiphyseal line)

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36
Q

epiphyseal line

A

bony remnant of the growth plate

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37
Q

flat bones are thin bones with no _____

A

marrow cavity

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38
Q

flat bones are made of a layer of _____ bone between superficial layers of _____ bone

A

spongy; compact

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39
Q

the compact bone layers collectively called the _____ of the bone and individually called the external and internal _____ are thick in order to provide strength for the bone

A

cortex; tables

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40
Q

the spongy bone between the tables is called the _____

A

diploe

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41
Q

the diploe is filled with _____

A

red marrow

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42
Q

red marrow

A

a type of loose connective tissue made up of stem cells from which all blood cells arise

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43
Q

bone markings

A

reveal where bones form joints with other bones, where muscles, tendons, and ligaments were attached, and where blood vessels and nerves pass

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44
Q

what are the two categories of bone markings?

A

projections and depression

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45
Q

projections

A

processes that grow out from the bone and serve as sites of muscle attachment or help form joints

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46
Q

depressions

A

indentations or openings in the bone that often serve as conduits for nerves and blood vessels

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47
Q

projections that are sites of muscle and ligament attachment

A

tuberosity, crest, trochanter, line, tubercle, epicondyle, spine, process

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48
Q

surfaces that form joints

A

head, facet, condyle, ramus

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49
Q

depressions and openings

A

foramen, groove, fissure, notch, fossa, meatus, sinus

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50
Q

tuberosity

A

large rounded projection

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51
Q

crest

A

narrow ridge of a bone; usually prominent

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52
Q

trochanter

A

very large, blunt, irregularly shaped process

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53
Q

line

A

narrow ridge of bone; less prominent than a crest

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54
Q

tubercle

A

small rounded projection or process

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55
Q

epicondyle

A

raised area on or above a condyle

56
Q

spine

A

sharp, slender, often pointed projection

57
Q

process

A

any bony prominence

58
Q

head

A

body expansion carried on a narrow neck

59
Q

facet

A

smooth, nearly flat articular surface

60
Q

condyle

A

rounded articular projection, often articulates with a corresponding fossa

61
Q

ramus

A

arm-like bar of bone

62
Q

foramen

A

round or oval opening through a bone

63
Q

groove

A

furrow

64
Q

fissure

A

narrow, slit-like opening

65
Q

notch

A

indentation at the edge of a structure

66
Q

fossa

A

shallow basin-like depression in a bone, often serving as an articular surface

67
Q

meatus

A

canal-like passageway

68
Q

sinus

A

bone cavity, filled with air and lined with mucous membrane

69
Q

what passes through the olfactory foramina of the cribriform plate?

A

olfactory nerve I

70
Q

what passes through the optic canal?

A

optic nerve II

71
Q

what passes through the superior orbital fissure?

A

oculomotor nerve III, trochlear nerve IV, trigeminal nerve I, and abducens nerve VI

72
Q

what passes through the foramen rotundum?

A

trigeminal nerve V

73
Q

what passes through the foramen ovale?

A

trigeminal nerve V

74
Q

what passes through the foramen lacerum?

A

no structure passes through because it is covered by a membrane in adults

75
Q

what passes through the foramen spinosum?

A

middle meningeal artery

76
Q

what passes through the carotid canal?

A

internal carotid artery

77
Q

what passes through the internal auditory meatus?

A

facial nerve VII, vestibulocochlear nerve VIII

78
Q

what passes through the jugular foramen?

A

internal jugular vein, glossopharyngeal nerve IX, vagus nerve X, and spinal accessory nerve XI

79
Q

what passes through the hypoglossal canal?

A

hypoglossal nerve XII

80
Q

what passes through the supraorbital foramen?

A

supraorbital artery and nerve

81
Q

what passes through the inferior orbital fissure?

A

zygomatic nerve and blood vessels

82
Q

what passes through the infraorbital foramen?

A

infraorbital nerve

83
Q

what passes through the mental foramen?

A

blood vessels and trigeminal nerve V

84
Q

what passes through the foramen magnum?

A

spinal cord

85
Q

what passes through the stylomastoid foramen?

A

facial nerve VII

86
Q

what passes through the mandibular foramen?

A

alveolar nerve

87
Q

what passes through the transverse foramen of cervical vertebrae?

A

vertebral arteries

88
Q

what passes through the costal groove

A

neurovascular bundle

89
Q

mnemonic for cranial nerves:
Oh, Oh, Oh, To Touch And Feel Very Good Velvet AH

A

I. olfactory nerve
II. optic nerve
III. oculomotor nerve
IV. trochlear nerve
V. trigeminal nerve
VI. abducens nerve
VII. facial nerve
VIII. vestibulocochlear nerve
IX. glossopharyngeal nerve
X. vagus nerve
XI. spinal accessory nerve
XII. hypoglossal nerve

90
Q

hyoid bone

A

unique in that it does not articulate with any other bone; rather, many muscles originate or insert into it

91
Q

what are the five types of vertebrae?

A

cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal

92
Q

how many vertebrae are cervical?

A

seven

93
Q

how many vertebrae are thoracic?

A

twelve

94
Q

how many vertebrae are lumbar?

A

five

95
Q

cervical, thoracic, and lumbar vertebrae are all _____

A

unfused

96
Q

cervical vertebrae

A

articulations are not as confined, allowing for a wide range of motion in the head and neck

97
Q

cervical vertebrae have a _____ spinous process and a _____ foramen

A

bifid; transverse

98
Q

the transverse foramina in cervical vertebrae transmit the vertebral arteries, do what?

A

form the basilar artery and deliver blood to the brain

99
Q

thoracic vertebrae

A

articulate with the ribs, limiting flexion in the thorax

100
Q

the articular processes of thoracic vertebrae are directed anterior and posterior, causing what?

A

decreased flexion and extension of the thorax

101
Q

lumbar vertebrae

A

articular processes are directed medially and laterally, limiting rotation in the lower spine

102
Q

cauda equina

A

at L1, the spinal cord proper stops and becomes hanging “roots”

103
Q

where is a spinal tap performed?

A

between L3 and L4 in order to avoid hitting the spinal cord

104
Q

sacrum

A

made up of five fused vertebrae

105
Q

sacral foramina

A

transmit blood vessels and spinal nerves to the lower body

106
Q

coccyx

A

the tail bone; made up of four fused vertebrae

107
Q

what are the four natural curvatures of the spinal cord?

A

cervical, thoracic, lumbar, and sacral

108
Q

when determining which articular process is superior and which is inferior, it is based on their position on the _____, NOT their position in the _____

A

vertebra; joint

109
Q

cervical vertebrae key features

A

kidney bean shaped body and horizontal spinous process with a bifid spine in cervical vertebrae 3-6

110
Q

the hyoid bone does not actually articulate with the _____

A

cervical vertebrae

111
Q

atlas

A

the first cervical vertebra (C1)

112
Q

what makes the atlas different from other cervical vertebrae?

A

it has no body, a large vertebral foramen, it articulates with the skull, and has no spinous process

113
Q

axis

A

the second cervical vertebra (C2); articulates with the atlas

114
Q

what is the primary function of the axis?

A

to provide the atlas with a pivot point for when the head is turned laterally and medially

115
Q

dens

A

fits up inside the atlas to form the atlanto-axial joint, which allows rotation of the head

116
Q

_____ vertebrae are the largest vertebrae in the human body

A

lumbar

117
Q

sacrum

A

is specialized to provide a stable anchoring point for the bones of the pelvic girdle

118
Q

coccyx

A

serves as an attachment point for several ligaments and muscles of the pelvic floor

119
Q

thoracic cage

A

compromised of the sternum and twelve pairs of ribs

120
Q

the twelve pairs of ribs articulate with the thoracic vertebrae _____

A

posteriorly

121
Q

ten of the pairs of ribs connect to the sternum _____ to enclose the thoracic organs in a protective cage

A

anteriorly

122
Q

sternum

A

flat bone

123
Q

what three bony elements make up the sternum?

A

manubrium, sternal body, xiphoid process

124
Q

manubrium

A

articulates with the sternal body at the sternal angle and articulates with the clavicle at the clavicular notch

125
Q

xiphoid process

A

the attachment site for several muscles and is made up of hyaline cartilage until late adulthood, when it completely ossifies

126
Q

why are people advised not to perform CPR without proper training?

A

poor technique could lead to snapping off the xiphoid process and thus puncturing a lung

127
Q

costal cartilage

A

attaches the ribs to the sternum and is somewhat flexible allowing for expansion of the rib cage during inhalation

128
Q

ribs are classified according to how they articulate with the _____

A

sternum

129
Q

true ribs

A

first seven pairs; their costal cartilage attaches directly to the sternum

130
Q

false ribs

A

rib pairs 8-12; their costal cartilage does not connect to the sternum directly

131
Q

floating ribs

A

rib pairs 11 and 12; a subset of false ribs that do not articulate with the sternum and serve little use other than protection of the kidneys

132
Q

each rib has a _____ with two articular facets for articulating with the costal facets of the thoracic vertebrae

A

head

133
Q

tubercle of rib

A

articulates with the transverse costal facet of the corresponding vertebra

134
Q

costal groove

A

runs on the inferior border of the inner face of all ribs and carries a neurovascular bundle

135
Q

neurovascular bundle

A

vein, artery, and nerve

136
Q

where are injections or intrusions made between ribs?

A

on the superior border of the inferior rib

137
Q

what should doctors or nurses avoid hitting when making injections?

A

the neurovascular bundle: hitting this area would cause tremendous pain for the patient