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Anatomy and Physiology I > anatomy and physiology exam four > Flashcards

anatomy and physiology exam four Flashcards

1
Q

neuron

A

single (one) cell of the nervous system

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2
Q

nerve

A

bundle of axons; multiple neurons

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3
Q

nervous tissue

A

is excitable (allows signals to transmit fast; an immediate response to stimuli, etc.); generates an action potential from a resting membrane potential

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4
Q

cytokines

A

cell moving

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5
Q

interferons

A

cytokines that amplify our immune defense system against viruses (first line of defense)

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6
Q

what are the types of interferons?

A

I, II, III

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7
Q

what are the sources of interferons?

A

monocytes (macrophages), fibroblasts, T-cells/T-lymphocytes, virus-infected cell

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8
Q

cancers

A

uncontrolled mitotic division

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9
Q

ABCDE of moles

A

asymmetry, borders, color, diameter, evolution

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10
Q

why are cancers so deadly?

A
  1. “nutrition bullies” that steal nutrition from cells that are ok
  2. change in form = change in function
  3. non-muscle reference to actin = cancer can move, therefore it can METASTASIZE and get into the blood vessels
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11
Q

what occurs when cancer metastasizes and moves into blood vessels?

A

weakens blood vessels causing bleeding and ultimately resulting in internal hemorrhaging

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12
Q

anterior vs posterior pituitary

A

anterior: hypothalamic hypophyseal portal system, FLATPEG (hormones)

posterior: oxytocin and vasopressin (hormones)

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13
Q

portal system

A

when blood hits two capillary beds before going back to the heart

ex: hypothalamic hypophyseal portal system in anterior pituitary

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14
Q

anterior pituitary hormones

A

made and released at the anterior pituitary level

FLATPEG

Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
Luteinizing hormone (LH)
Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
Prolactin
Endorphins
Growth Hormone (GH)

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15
Q

adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

A

acts on adrenal cortex to increase cortisol (stress hormone)

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16
Q

short-term stress

A

okay :)

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17
Q

long-term stress

A

bad :( cortisol levels increase, and when they stay high they inhibit white blood cells (immune system) making us sick

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18
Q

growth hormone (GH)

A

makes its way down the liver and up-regulates insulin-like growth factor 1 (used for growth and tissue repair)

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19
Q

stimulated systemic body growth where growth promoting effects on cells of what parts of the body?

A

skeletal muscle, bone, liver, kidney, nerve, skin, hematopoietic cells, lung, DNA synthesis

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20
Q

posterior pituitary hormones

A

made in the hypothalamus and released at the posterior pituitary level

oxytocin
antidiuretic hormone - ADH (vasopressin)

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21
Q

antidiuretic hormone - ADH/vasopressin

A

hormone that is against urine formation: ADH levels go up so urine volume goes down

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22
Q

what is an aquaporin?

A

a channel protein that transports water

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23
Q

how are aquaporins related to vasopressin (ADH)?

A

when dehydrated, aquaporins increase, meaning ADH (vasopressin) increases, which causes urine formation and volume to decrease

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24
Q

what inhibits vasopressin (ADH)?

A

ethanol (C2H5OH) and caffeine: allows for urine production to increase

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25
Q

-tropic and -tropin

A

hormone that affects another hormone

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26
Q

type II muscle soreness

A

24-48 hour muscle soreness after heavy lifting; leads to tiny micro-tears in the actin and myosin in muscles that need to be repaired by testosterone levels going up (in BOTH genders)

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27
Q

testosterone “T”

A

increase in testosterone turns on genes to promote tissue repair

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28
Q

-one and -ol

A

steroid hormone that turns on genes to repair tissues

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29
Q

what is the true muscle repair (muscle building) for type II muscle soreness?

A

stem cell recruitment

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30
Q

stem cell recruitment

A

adding nuclei from satellite stem cells that donate its nucleus in order for more genes for actin and myosin for transcription and translation to increase - proteins yay

testosterone and genetics

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31
Q

venoms, toxins, poisons

A

necrosis (tissue death); keeps the voltage-gated calcium channel open allowing acetylcholine to be released in synaptic cleft, resulting in increased skeletal muscle contraction that leads to tetany: paralysis

*venoms are vasodilators resulting in decreased resistance (low blood pressure)

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32
Q

snake bites

A

leads to necrosis (tissue death)

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33
Q

varicose veins

A

occur when veins and valves give out or are blown out; leads to back flow

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34
Q

what acetylcholine receptor is involved when encountering venoms, toxins, poisons?

A

nicotinic acetylcholine receptor

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35
Q

what are the two types of hormones (for this exam)?

A

peptide and steroid hormones

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36
Q

peptide hormones

A

hydrophilic; go through rough endoplasmic reticulum to golgi to be vesicalized; it is stored and then released when needed

bind to cell surface receptors (2nd messenger) and has fast effects (seconds to minutes)

ex: adrenaline/epinephrine

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37
Q

steroid hormones

A

from cholesterol, so they are hydrophobic; made and released in the smooth endoplasmic reticulum

THINK “-one” and “-ol”

bind to intracytoplasmic receptors; affects transcription by turning genes on or off and has slow effects (hours to days)

ex: testosterone

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38
Q

release of neurotransmitters

A

vesicle neurotransmitter is made in the soma (body) of a neuron; rotary proteins move the vesicles from the soma to the pre-synaptic membrane; action potential travels down the axon to the pre-synaptic terminal, causing a depolarization of the membrane; depolarization causes the opening of the voltage-gated calcium channels, allowing calcium in; calcium forces the vesicle to fuse with the synaptic terminal, further releasing acetylcholine into the synaptic cleft through exocytosis

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39
Q

dendrites

A

increase surface area

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40
Q

soma

A

site of all biosynthesis

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41
Q

rotary proteins

A

main function is to transport

Dynein and Kinesin

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42
Q

depolarization

A

action potential starts at threshold; then sodium coming in through voltage-gated sodium channel opened at threshold starts making the cell more positive BUT the channel closes at +35 millivolts

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43
Q

repolarization

A

potassium comes out through voltage-gated potassium channel opened at +35 millivolts making the cell more negative BUT begins to close around the RMP but ACTUALLY closes at -90 millivolts

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44
Q

hyperpolarization

A

goes below resting membrane potential so the inside of the cell is even more negative; less active because we are further from threshold

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45
Q

what occurs when we are farther away from threshold (hyperpolarized)?

A

1) we need a stronger stimulus to get back to threshold or 2) we are so hyperpolarized that it no longer functions

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46
Q

what is the relationship between the medulla oblongata and narcotics/opiotes?

A

it is okay when it only hyperpolarizes the pain centers

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47
Q

right hemisphere of brain

A

controls left side of body

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48
Q

left hemisphere of brain

A

controls right side of body

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49
Q

where do we see an increase in surface area in the brain?

A

wrinkles of brain and branching dendrites

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50
Q

what are the three major sections of the brain?

A

forebrain, midbrain, hindbrain

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51
Q

forebrain (prosencephalon)

A

consists of the diencephalon and telencephalon

diencephalon: consists of the thalamus, hypothalamus, epithalamus (contains pineal gland that produces melatonin which regulates our sleep-wake cycle)

telencephalon: consists of cerebral hemispheres (cortex), basal nuclei, limbic system

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52
Q

midbrain (mesencephalon)

A

alertness, awakeness, consciousness

contains reticular activating centers: wakefulness (caffeine hits receptors here)

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53
Q

reticular activating center

A

functions as a network of neurons that regulate sleep-wake transition and arousal; located in the brainstem above the spinal cord as well as the midbrain; acetylcholine, serotonin, dopamine, and histamine are the neurotransmitters involved

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54
Q

what substance is the adenosine receptor antagonist of the midbrain?

A

caffeine

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55
Q

hindbrain (rhombencephalon)

A

consists of the medulla oblongata, pons, cerebellum

medulla oblongata: blood pressure, heart rate, respiration, blood flow, swallowing, vommitting

pons: balance and posture

cerebellum: *coordination (spatial equilibrium), muscle tone, intricate movements, balance and posture

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56
Q

what three parts makes up the brain stem?

A

midbrain, pons, medulla oblongata

brain stem connects the brain to the spinal cord

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57
Q

pons

A

balance and posture

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58
Q

medulla oblongata

A

controls blood pressure, heart rate, respiration rate, blood flow, swallowing, vommitting

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59
Q

frontal lobe

A

voluntary movements and thoughts, *cognition (ability to think, reason, cause and effect), *long-term memory

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60
Q

parietal lobe

A

taste (gustation), temperature, touch, pressure, vibration

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61
Q

temporal lobe

A

emotions, speech, *smell (olfaction), *auditory stimuli, *short-term memory

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62
Q

occipital lobe

A

vision

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63
Q

where in the brain are the five senses found?

A

taste and touch are found in the parietal lobe, hearing and smell are found in the temporal lobe, vision is found in the occipital lobe

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64
Q

cerebellum

A

*coordination (spatial equilibrium), muscle tone, intricate movements, balance and posture

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65
Q

spinal cord

A

conveys information to and from the brain and generates basic patterns of locomotion

produces reflexes: walking, urination, sex organ function

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66
Q

reflex

A

body’s automatic response to a stimulus

example: knee-jerk reflex

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67
Q

what are the different types of pancreatic function?

A

endocrine, exocrine, paracrine, artocrine

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68
Q

endocrine (pancreas)

A

secretes hormones into the blood; islets of langerhans

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69
Q

what are the cell types of the endocrine function of pancreas?

A

alpha, *beta, delta

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70
Q

alpha cells

A

produces glucagon elevates blood sugar

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71
Q

beta cells

A

produce insulin lowers blood sugar

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72
Q

delta cells

A

produce somatostatin inhibiting gastrointestinal tract function

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73
Q

exocrine (pancreas)

A

secretes into the gastrointestinal tract; usually enzymes

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74
Q

paracrine (pancreas)

A

affects tissue “near” the pancreas

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75
Q

artocrine (pancreas)

A

affects itself

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76
Q

what cells are associated with blood sugar?

A

glucagon: elevates blood sugar
insulin: lowers blood sugar

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77
Q

insulin

A

beta cells in the islets of langerhans

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78
Q

GLUT-4

A

regulates glucose levels by transporting glucose into muscle and fat cells; GLUT-4 in the cell membrane lowers blood sugar

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79
Q

hypoglycemia

A

low blood sugar

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80
Q

hyperglycemia

A

high blood sugar

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81
Q

when hyperglycemia persists for a long time, what occurs?

A

GLYCOSYLATION: untreated hyperglycemia will cause sugars to crystalize, blocking blood flow; further turns into “sweet urine” or diabetes

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82
Q

type I diabetes

A

congenital (born with it); we cannot produce insulin at all because beta cells, that makes insulin, in the pancreas are attacked by the immune system

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83
Q

type II diabetes

A

usually during 40s/50s/60s; weight increases while physical activity decreases; we can produce insulin BUT there is insulin resistance (we are not using it well)

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84
Q

issues with insulin

A

issues with 1) amount of insulin or 2) tyrosine kinase receptor

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85
Q

tyrosine kinase

A

receptor that adds phosphate

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86
Q

central nervous system

A

consists of brain and spinal cord; where information is processed

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87
Q

peripheral nervous system

A

consists of 31 pairs of spinal nerves and 12 pairs of cranial nerves; somatic and autonomic peripheral nervous system

transmits information to and from the central nervous system, regulates movement, and the internal environment

afferent neurons transmit information to the central nervous system and efferent neurons transmit information away from the central nervous system as a response

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88
Q

somatic peripheral nervous system

A

voluntary; afferent and efferent; carries signals to skeletal muscles

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89
Q

afferent

A

sensory; into the spinal cord; bipolar neuron

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90
Q

efferent

A

motor; away from the spinal cord; skeletal muscle

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91
Q

autonomic peripheral nervous system

A

involuntary; three divisions including sympathetic, parasympathetic, enteric; regulates smooth and cardiac muscles

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92
Q

sympathetic

A

fight or flight (regulates arousal and energy generation); not default; stronger and faster because hormones are from adrenal medulla; 1) sympathetic chain and 2) hormones such as adrenaline/epinephrine; thoracic-lumbar nervous system

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93
Q

sympathetic ganglia

A

short pre-ganglionic receptors of acetylcholine and long post-ganglionic receptors of norepinephrine

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94
Q

parasympathetic

A

rest and digest (antagonistic effects on target organs and promotes calming and a return to these “rest and digest” functions); default system; weaker; cranio-sacral nervous system

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95
Q

parasympathetic ganglia

A

long pre-ganglionic receptors of acetylcholine and short post-ganglionic receptors of acetylcholine

96
Q

sympathetic and parasympathetic

A

both systems have a pre-ganglia and a post-ganglia and a ganglion

97
Q

ganglion

A

a group of cell somas (body) outside the central nervous system

98
Q

dorsal root ganglia

A

sensory; cluster of neuronal cell bodies located outside the central nervous system

99
Q

enteric

A

gastrointestinal tract

100
Q

why can’t action potentials summate?

A

refractory period

101
Q

absolute refractory period

A

“absolutely” no new action potentials during this time; voltage-gated sodium channel “gates” are resetting

THINK during repolarization

102
Q

plateau phase

A

cardiac muscle action potential due to potassium out and calcium in counteracting each other

in cardiac muscle; means there is a longer absolute refractory period so that cardiac muscle cannot summate the twitches = no cardiac tetany but inhibiting the cardiac muscle summation

promotes ventricular emptying because of longer, sustained contraction of the heart

103
Q

relative refractory period

A

a new action potential can be generated but there would need to be a stronger stimulus to get back to threshold

THINK during hyperpolarization

104
Q

saltatory conduction

A

action potential jumps from node to node; myelin

105
Q

myelination

A

done by schwann cells in the peripheral nervous system and oligodendrocytes in the central nervous system

106
Q

action potential conduction velocity (APCV) + myelination

A

myelinated sheaths are faster sheaths (thicker)

length of axon does not matter but DIAMETER of axon does as thicker equals a faster nerve

107
Q

leak channel

A

ion channel that is always open, allowing ions and substances to pass through; passive channels or non-gated channels

108
Q

voltage-gated channel

A

transmembrane protein that opens and closes in response to changes in a cell’s electrical potential

109
Q

ligand-gated receptor to channel

A

protein embedded in a cell membrane that acts as a gate, allowing specific ions to pass through only when a signaling molecule (known as a ligand) binds to it

opening the channel by triggering a conformational change in the receptor protein

110
Q

carrier

A

membrane protein that moves molecules across a cell membrane

111
Q

pump

A

generates a membrane potential by creating an electrochemical gradient across the membrane (against the concentration gradient)

112
Q

Guillaini-Barre Syndrome (GBS)

A

is sudden (hour to days) and progressive, causing muscle weakness up to paralysis (skeletal)

113
Q

what occurs prior to the onset of GBS?

A

antecedent infections (no known cause)

114
Q

antecedent infections

A

first a virus (like mononucleosis), then a bacterial infection (like a tonsil infection), and finally a respiratory infection (like pneumonia)

  1. viruses
  2. bacterial infections
  3. respiratory infections
115
Q

what are the types of painkillers (neuro + pharmacology)?

A

local or systemic

116
Q

local painkillers (anesthesia)

A

“-caines” that block the source and usually block the voltage-gated sodium channel: local injection blocks and stops depolarization, stopping the transmission of pain signals from the site of injury to the brain

117
Q

systemic painkillers

A

block pain no matter the source; usually opiates/narcotics that reward pathways of the brain meaning they activate the brain’s pleasure pathways, reducing the perception of pain

hyperpolarization of the pain centers in the central nervous system are not processed

ex: endorphins (endogenous) from FLATPEG

118
Q

action potential

A

a wave of depolarization along or down a membrane (inside of the cell becomes more positive); all or nothing electrochemical response under normal circumstances - ions move! (once an AP starts it cannot be stopped!); only muscle and nervous tissue use RMPs to form APs

only occur in excitable cells; have a minimal stimulus (threshold potential); are “digital” or “all-or-none” responses; are self propagating chain reactions that occur without decrement

transmit signals over long distances; usually sodium and potassium; no summation

119
Q

graded potential

A

determine whether or not an action potential is generated

barrage of EPSPs of sodium and potassium + IPSPs of chlorine; summation

120
Q

summation

A

graded potentials between a resting membrane potential and threshold

121
Q

EPSP

A

excitatory post-synaptic potentials

122
Q

IPSP

A

inhibitory post-synaptic potentials

123
Q

threshold

A

asks if EPSP + IPSP reach threshold

124
Q

gap junctions (intercalated discs in cardiac muscle!)

A

PHYSICAL synapses; result in spontaneous depolarization due to cells being connected and sharing cytoplasms and ions

125
Q

neurotransmitters

A

small molecules that can be rapidly synthesized and rapidly destroyed or removed from the synapse

examples: acetylcholine

126
Q

process of release of neurotransmitters

A
  1. neurotransmitter is made in the soma of a neuron
  2. rotary proteins (dynein and kinesin) move vesicles from the soma to the pre-synaptic membrane
  3. action potential travels down the axon towards pre-synaptic terminal, causing a depolarization of the membrane
  4. depolarization causes the opening of voltage-gated calcium channels, allowing calcium in
  5. calcium forces the vesicle to fuse with the synaptic cleft, further releasing acetylcholine into the synaptic cleft through exocytosis
127
Q

fate of neurotransmitters (after release)

A
  1. neurotransmitters can be enzymatically degraded: acetylcholinesterase can be inhibited by sarin nerve gas - acetylcholine levels go WAY up resulting in intense skeletal muscle contraction
  2. part of or all of the neurotransmitter can be taken up by re-uptake proteins on the pre-synaptic side: selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitors (SSRI) - serotonin levels go up in the brain slowly and only in the brain = “happier”
  3. sometimes neurotransmitters escape from the synapse and are usually scavenged by astrocytes
128
Q

re-uptake inhibitors

A

selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitors (SSRI), serotonin re-uptake inhibitors (SRI), cocaine

129
Q

selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitors (SSRI)

A

LEGAL blocks in the brain; antidepressants; take a long time to be effective (2-4 weeks)

130
Q

serotonin re-uptake inhibitors (SRI)

A

methamphetamines that are ILLEGAL blocks all over the body; serotonin levels go up but production in the brain goes down (FEEDBACK INHIBITION); work very fast and is short term

131
Q

what are two major “feel good” neurotransmitters?

A

serotonin and dopamine

132
Q

cocaine

A

fast volted-gated channel blockers (local anesthetic) and a dopamine re-uptake inhibitor (dopamine levels in the brain go up)

133
Q

neuronal circuits and pathways

A

convergent, divergent, reverberating, parallel after discharge

134
Q

convergent neuronal circuits

A

input from many sources and/or nerves to a single source

example: it is time to get up in the morning

135
Q

divergent neuronal circuits

A

input to many sources and/or nerves originating from one source

example: you want to flex your right bicep

136
Q

reverberating neuronal circuits

A

repetitive

example: walking and breathing

137
Q

parallel after discharge neuronal circuits

A

most complicated; represents different cognitive elements of your brain; its training, its experiences, and your brain’s formal education and assessment

example: cognition and figuring out a physics problem

138
Q

vasoconstriction

A

narrowing of blood vessels, reduces blood flow and increases blood pressure

alpha-one adrenergic

resistance goes up

139
Q

vasodilation

A

widening of blood vessels, increases blood flow and decreases blood pressure

alpha-two adrenergic

resistance goes down

140
Q

SNAP and SNARES

A

allow for binding, fusion, and exocytosis of acetylcholine vesicles

141
Q

botox

A

interferes with SNAP and SNARES: 1) mild paralysis of facial muscles that get rid of wrinkles and make one look younger and 2) botox can be a migraine headache prevention

142
Q

where can we see areas of increased surface area in the brain?

A

dendrites and fissures

143
Q

pre-frontal cortices

A

cognition, long-term memory, and personality

144
Q

sulcus

A

depression that increases surface area; has a greater number of neurons that can be packed in the cerebral cortex

145
Q

fissure

A

deeper and more prominent than a sulcus; increases surface area

146
Q

corpus callosum

A

let’s hemispheres talk and communicate with each other

147
Q

substantia nigra

A

basal ganglia structure located in the midbrain; a modulator for the pyramidal tracts which are the main pathways for voluntary movement being sent to the spinal cord; produces dopamine which helps fine tune movement signals sent by pyramidal tracts

148
Q

parkinson’s disease and substantia nigra

A

a degeneration of dopamine producing neurons are lost in the substantia nigra which means pyramidal tracts can’t send out signals properly, resulting in impaired motor control (tremors + movement and balance are affected)

149
Q

pyramidal tracts

A

of the midbrain and look like pyramids

150
Q

limbic system

A

made up of the amygdala, mammillary bodies, the stria medullaris, and the ventral nuclei of gudden; interacts with the basal ganglia (if you see something scary)

known as the paleomammalian cortex

151
Q

amygdala

A

plays a role in memory, decision making, and emotional responses

152
Q

why is it important that we have an emotional response and brain rewiring when experiencing something scary?

A

displays our survival mechanism of fight or flight; it gets us ready to either face the threat or escape from it

153
Q

speech formation and speech comprehension

A

on the LEFT brain the broca’s area is associated with speech formation and execution while wernicke’s area is associated with speech language comprehension and interpretation

154
Q

hypothalamus

A

satiety centers (full) located in diencephalon (forebrain)

155
Q

how many brain ventricles do we have?

A

four

156
Q

cerebro-spinal fluid (CSF)

A

located in and around the brain and spinal cord as well as in the subarachnoid space between the arachnoid matter and pia matter within the ventricles of the brain; cushions the brain and provides nutrients; made by ependymal cells

157
Q

cranium protects the brain, but what happens when there is trauma to the brain such as meningitis or encephalitis?

A

swelling occurs, but the brain has no where to go because of the cranium holding it in place leading to an increase in pressure

158
Q

meninges

A

three layers that protect the brain and spinal cord: dura matter (outer layer), arachnoid matter (middle layer), and pia matter (inner layer); primary function is to protect the central nervous system (brain + spinal cord)

159
Q

where does an epidural injection occur?

A

between L3 and L4

160
Q

epidural block

A

procedure where local anesthetic is injected into the epidural space; works outside the dura matter to safely manage pain

161
Q

hormones vs neurotransmitters

A

hormones stronger: numbers games (more numbers!)

162
Q

hemodynamics (blood flow) that is sympathetic

A

blood flow increases to skeletal muscle and the brain but NOT to gastrointestinal tract and reproductive organs; when it comes to the skin it is dependent (do not want to bleed out vs heat and flushing)

163
Q

basic gross anatomy of the spinal cord

A

cervical enlargement, conus medullaris, cauda equina, filum terminale, lumbar-sacral enlargement

164
Q

cervical enlargement

A

many of these nerves are part of the brachial plexus

165
Q

conus medullaris

A

end of the spinal cord: L2-L3 area

166
Q

cauda equina

A

“horse tail” as they are long-reaching nerves that move inferiorly to other parts of the body

167
Q

filum terminale

A

thin, fibrous band that connects the bottom of the spinal cord to the coccyx

pia matter that connects to the base of the sacrum; is a good source of cerebrospinal fluid which should be sterile HOWEVER, if there are white blood cells in the cerebrospinal fluid then that could signify meningitis

168
Q

lumbar-sacral enlargement

A

widened area of the spinal cord that gives attachment to the nerves which supply the lower limbs; triangular bone at the bottom of the spine

169
Q

gray matter

A

outside in brain but inside in spinal cord; consist of neuron cell bodies, dendrites and unmyelinated axons

170
Q

white matter

A

inside in brain but outside in spinal cord; consist of bundles of myelinated axons

171
Q

phrenic nerve

A

a spinal nerve that innervates the diaphragm for respiration; inhalation involves diaphragm and intercostal muscles

172
Q

golgi tendon organs (GTOs)

A

proprioceptors that are located in the tendon adjacent to the myotendinous junction; detects stress

173
Q

proprioception

A

body’s ability to ascertain body movements, direction and position awareness; when found in muscles, tendons, and ligaments they are known as mechanosensory neurons

is a sensory function, not motor function; however, motor nerves to muscles also contain some proprioceptive afferent fibers from those muscles

174
Q

palsy

A

paralysis

175
Q

neuralgia

A

pain that is distributed to one or more nerves

176
Q

what are the cranial nerves?

A

olfactory I, optic II, oculomotor III, trochlear IV, trigeminal V, abducens VI, facial VII, vestibulocochlear VIII, glossopharyngeal IX, vagus X, spinal accessory XI, hypoglossal XII

177
Q

olfactory nerve I (sensory)

A

special sense of smell

olfactory bulbs are larger in vertebrates that have a better sense of smell; proprioception (sensory function); smell and taste are linked and both are chemoreceptors; smell is linked to memory

consequences of lesions: inability to smell

178
Q

optic nerve II (sensory)

A

special sense of vision

optic chiasm (part of the brain where optic nerves cross); vision centers are located in the occipital bone

consequences of lesions: blindness on the affected side

179
Q

oculomotor nerve III (motor)

A

superior rectus, inferior rectus, medial rectus, and inferior oblique muscles involved; proprioceptive; parasympathetic to the sphincter of the pupil (constriction) and ciliary muscle of the lens (accommodation)

consequences of lesions: double vision, blurred vision, eyelids drooping (ptosis)

180
Q

trochlear nerve IV (motor)

A

superior oblique muscle involved; proprioceptive; some of the smallest motor units (due to fine movements) are found within the muscles that control the eye

consequences of lesions: double vision; lens mineralize resulting in cataracts

181
Q

trigeminal nerve V (sensory and motor)

A

mastication (chewing) mainly from mandibular branch (V3) consisting of masseter, temporalis, medial and lateral pterygoids

consequences of lesions: trigeminal neuralgia; intense pain along the course of a branch of the nerve; loss of tactile sensation in the face; weakness in biting or clenching jaw

182
Q

what are the trigeminal nerve branches?

A

ophthalmic branch (V1): sensory input like touch, pain, and temperature from these regions

maxillary branch (V2): sensory input from the midface and upper oral structures

mandibular branch (V3): sensory input from the lower face and motor control of chewing muscles

183
Q

abducens nerve VI (motor)

A

lateral rectus muscle involved; proprioceptive

consequences of lesions: double vision

184
Q

facial nerve VII (sensory and motor)

A

controls facial expressions; proprioceptive

consequences of lesions: facial palsy known as a loss of taste sensation on the anterior two-thirds of tongue resulting in decreases salivation

185
Q

vestibulocochlear nerve VIII (sensory)

A

special senses of hearing and balance

semicircular canals of the ear with fluid that play a role in balance and detection of acceleration and deceleration; cochlea plays a role in hearing

consequences of lesions: loss of hearing, loss of balance and equilibrium

186
Q

glossopharyngeal nerve IX (sensory and motor)

A

sense of taste form posterior one-third of tongue

parasympathetic increases salivary gland secretion; motor to pharyngeal muscle; proprioceptive to pharyngeal muscle; amylase that breaks down starch

consequences of lesions: difficulty swallowing

187
Q

vagus nerve X (sensory and motor)

A

goes all over the body; only nerve to extend beyond the head and neck to visceral organs in the thorax and abdomen

parasympathetic to sinoatrial (SA) node of the heart leading to heart rate lowering (SA node will fire twice per second without “vagal tone”)

consequences of lesions: difficulty swallowing and/or hoarseness

188
Q

spinal accessory nerve XI (motor)

A

most posterior; motor to sternocleidomastoid and trapezius

consequences of lesions: difficulty elevating the scapula or rotating the neck

189
Q

hypoglossal nerve XII (motor)

A

under the tongue; intrinsic tongue muscles that are entirely within the tongue + extrinsic tongue muscles that attach the tongue to other structures

190
Q

what cranial nerve is MOST posterior in origin?

A

spinal accessory nerve XI

191
Q

what cranial nerves are associated with vision and which are associated with double vision?

A

vision: optic nerve II

double vision: oculomotor nerve III, trochlear nerve IV, abducens nerve VI

192
Q

motor unit size

A

dependent on how many muscle fibers are innervated to a neuron; size affects how fine the movements are for a group of muscle fibers

smaller motor units have less muscle fibers innervated; down to one

larger motor units have more muscle fibers innervated; up to thousands

193
Q

why is there a need for such small motor units associated with the eye?

A

small motor units create finer motion and are used in eye muscles for small movements while helping in focusing sight

194
Q

female brain vs male brain

A

female brain is better at multitasking, has an increase in corpus callosum, and an increase in synapse connections

195
Q

primary motor cortex

A

anterior; controls the voluntary muscle movements

196
Q

somatic sensory cortex

A

posterior; receives and processes sensory information from the body

197
Q

what divides the primary motor and somatic sensory cortexes?

A

central sulcus

198
Q

glial cells

A

central nervous system: astrocytes, microglia, oligodendrocytes, ependymal cells

peripheral nervous system: satellite and schwann cells

199
Q

baroreceptors

A

detect changes in pressure; communicate with multiple brain centers to regulate blood pressure (medulla oblongata)

blood pressure is closely monitored by baroreceptors, which are located in key areas of the aortic arch and carotid sinuses

200
Q

pre-capillary sphincters

A

function as smooth muscle structures that regulate blood flow into capillary beds

when they constrict, blood flow into the capillaries decreases, shunting blood to other areas or larger vessels; when they relax, blood flows freely into capillary beds, enhancing tissue perfusion

201
Q

adrenergic influence

A

constriction of pre-capillary sphincters is primarily mediated by alpha-adrenergic receptors

202
Q

adrenergic tone

A

refers to the baseline level of sympathetic nervous system activity, which heavily influences vascular tones

balance between vasoconstriction and vasodilation receptors determines blood vessel diameter

203
Q

compound fracture

A

penetrates the skin

204
Q

comminuted fracture

A

breaks into pieces

205
Q

transverse bone fracture

A

perpendicular to medullary cavity

206
Q

linear bone fracture

A

parallel to medullary cavity

207
Q

oblique non-displaced bone fracture

A

diagonal to medullary cavity

208
Q

oblique displaced bone fracture

A

diagonal and a “clean cut”

209
Q

spiral bone fracture

A

leg is planted, but body has twisted severely

210
Q

greenstick bone fracture

A

bone bends before breaking

*typically happens in the very young

211
Q

layers of epidermis (superficial to deep)

A

stratum corneum, stratum lucidum, stratum granulosum, stratum spinosum, stratum basale

212
Q

what layers of the epidermis are dead?

A

stratum corneum and stratum lucidum

213
Q

what layers of the epidermis are alive?

A

stratum spinosum and stratum basale

214
Q

what layer of the epidermis is moribund?

A

stratum granulosum

215
Q

what are the five zones (regions) of the growth (epiphyseal) plate?

A

cartilage, proliferation, hypertrophy, calcification, ossification

216
Q

cartilage

A

contains chondroblast

produced on the epiphyseal side of the plate as the chondrocytes divide and form stacks of cells

217
Q

proliferation

A

hyperplasia: massive mitotic activity that increases cell number

218
Q

hyperplasia

A

a lot of mitotic division = cell number goes up

219
Q

hypertrophy

A

cells grow in size; one cells gets bigger

220
Q

calcification

A

cells are filled with hydroxyapatite, then undergo apoptosis that leave the hydroxyapatite ONLY (cell is gone)

221
Q

ossification

A

new diaphysis

222
Q

what are the four hormones of bone remodeling?

A

parathyroid hormone, calcitriol, calcitonin, estrogen

223
Q

parathyroid hormone (PTH)

A

from parathyroid gland; elevates blood calcium

stimulus: low blood calcium
osteoclast activity increases

224
Q

calcitriol

A

activated vitamin D3; elevates blood calcium

osteoclast activity increases

ultraviolets rays from sun on skin for cholecalciferol - to liver for calciferone - to kidneys for calcitriol

225
Q

calcitonin

A

from thyroid c-cells; lowers blood calcium

osteoblast activity increases, so hydroxyapatite production increases
osteoclast activity decreases

226
Q

estrogen

A

prevents osteoblast apoptosis, keeping the osteoblast in circulation which is good for bone density

increased estrogen = increased osteoblast activity = building bone
decreased estrogen = menopause = osteoporosis

227
Q

cardiac output formula

A

cardiac output = stroke volume x heart rate

228
Q

ΔP (change in pressure) formula

A

ΔP = Q (flow) x R (resistance)

229
Q

MAP (mean arterial pressure) formula

A

D + ((S - D)/3)

D = diastolic
S = systolic
pressure units = mmHg

230
Q

what are the five prostaglandings?

A

PG I2, PG D2, PG E2, PG F2 alpha, PG H2

231
Q

PG I2

A

wound stage two: vasodilation increases blood and increases ability to heal; inhibits platelet aggregation

232
Q

PG D2

A

PAIN; pyretic (fire/heat) that promotes an increase in fever; sleep wake cycle

233
Q

PG E2

A

PAIN; redness; swelling = increases inflammation

234
Q

PG F2 alpha

A

corpus luteum (yellow body) regression

estrogen and oxytocin stimulate the release of oxytocin, which aids in he stimulation of uterine contraction

235
Q

PG H2

A

initial wound stage: thromboxane - 1) vasoconstrictor and 2) promotes platelet aggregation to form clots

we do not want to endure blood loss

236
Q

which prostaglandin is major in inflammation?

A

PG E2

Anatomy and Physiology I (13 decks)

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