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Anatomy and Physiology I > anatomy and physiology exam two > Flashcards

anatomy and physiology exam two Flashcards

1
Q

integument

A

SKIN: largest organ in the human body and one of the excretory organs

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2
Q

free nerve endings

A

detect pain via receptors; respond to pain, tickle, temperature, and itch sensations

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3
Q

arrector pili (smooth muscle)

A

involuntary; contracts and causes hair to stand up when cold, scared, or during a revelation moment (AHA!)

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4
Q

sebaceous gland

A

produces oil to keep skin from flaking; adds to protection of the skin itself

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5
Q

sudoriferous gland

A

sweat

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6
Q

adipose tissue

A

fat; provides energy storage, insulation, and padding

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7
Q

layers of epidermis (superficial to deep)

A

stratum corneum, stratum lucidum, stratum granulosum, stratum spinosum, stratum basale

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8
Q

what layers of the epidermis are dead?

A

stratum corneum and stratum lucidum

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9
Q

what layers of the epidermis are alive?

A

stratum spinosum and stratum basale

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10
Q

what layer of the epidermis is moribund?

A

stratum granulosum

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11
Q

moribund

A

dying state; apoptosis; near death

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12
Q

direction of cell movement in epidermis

A

deep to superficial

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13
Q

melanin

A

pigment; associated with what can we do with electromagnetic radiation, which can introduce mutations

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14
Q

layers of the dermis (superficial to deep)

A

papillary layer, reticular layer

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15
Q

eccrine sudoriferous (sweat) glands

A

all over the ENTIRE body; ONLY sweat;

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16
Q

apocrine sudoriferous (sweat) glands

A

more oil in the sweat secretions (oil + sweat); found in the axillary (arm pit) and groin regions

activated when nervous

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17
Q

apocrine sweat glands secrete oil that stimulates what?

A

bacterial growth = SMELLS BAD due to substances bacteria are producing

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18
Q

what is the function of skull sinuses?

A

warming and humidifying the air we breathe in, as well as the secretion of mucus to trap impurities

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19
Q

what are the four skull sinuses?

A

frontal sinus, ethmoidal labyrinth (sinuses), sphenoidal sinus, maxillary sinus

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20
Q

what organ is responsible for producing vitamin D?

A

skin: during exposure to sunlight, ultraviolet radiation penetrates into the epidermis and photolyze pro-vitamin D3 to pre-vitamin D3

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21
Q

proprioception

A

denotes your body’s sense of position, direction and acceleration

many different signals throughout the body that tell us what is going on (where we are, where we are going, when we are moving, how we are moving, etc.)

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22
Q

what part of the ear is involved in proprioception?

A

inner ear fluid, *pacinian corpuscles, semicircular rings, vestibulocochlear nerve VIII, tiny hairs within ear

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23
Q

what major arteries are exposed?

A

carotid (neck), jugular (neck), and femoral arteries (groin)

*they are more prone to injury and massive blood loss because they are superficial rather than being deep like other arteries

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24
Q

keratin

A

tough intermediate filaments that make up scales, hair, nails, feathers, horns, claws, hooves, and the outer layer of skin among vertebrates

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25
Q

keratin function

A

protects epithelial cells from damage or stress because it is already dead; is extremely insoluble in water and organic solvents

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26
Q

excessive keratinization

A

participate in fortification of certain tissues such as horns

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27
Q

how long does it take for cells to move from stratum basale to stratum corneum?

A

45 DAYS!!!

cells are pushed up by new live cells coming up behind them (mitotic activity is occurring)

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28
Q

desmosomes

A

little “spot welds” between cells that hold them together

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29
Q

gap junctions

A

allow for intracellular fluid and ions to flow between cells (exchange)

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30
Q

which is thicker, the dermis or epidermis?

A

dermis

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31
Q

thick epidermis

A

“thick skin” that form calluses in the palms or soles of feet

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32
Q

where can we find the thickest combination of thick dermis AND epidermis (starts at birth)?

A

in the skin between our scapulae

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33
Q

obligate aerobes

A

use oxygen as the terminal electron acceptor of the E.T.C.: oxygen reduced to water

*need oxygen to survive

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34
Q

what are the three enzymes in obligate aerobes?

A

catalase, superoxide dismutase (S.O.D), glutathione peroxidase (GPx)

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35
Q

what houses the three enzymes found in obligate aerobes?

A

peroxisome

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36
Q

what happens when there is a cut in the skin and we pour hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) into the cut?

A

hydrogen peroxide is converted into water and oxygen which kills obligate anaerobes that can cause infections (oxygen is poison to obligate anaerobes)

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37
Q

peroxisomal membrane degradation

A

peroxisome is damaged by cuts and the enzymes get out of peroxisome and move into the cut

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38
Q

superoxide dismutase (SOD)

A

makes hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) from the reactive oxygen metabolites

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39
Q

catalase and glutathione peroxidase (GPx)

A

break H2O2 down into water and oxygen because oxygen is a reactive molecules and aerobes make plenty of reactive oxidative intermediates using oxygen

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40
Q

what are the three elements of cleaning a wound with hydrogen peroxide (H2O2)?

A
  1. fluid (liquid) cleaning element
  2. bubbles of O2 in contact of obligate anaerobe (kills them)
  3. psychosomatic element
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41
Q

GPx

A

glutathione peroxidase

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42
Q

GSH

A

glutathione: tripeptide antioxidant in plants, animals, fungi and some bacteria

prevents oxidative damage via reactive oxygen species to certain parts of the cell

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43
Q

obligate anaerobes

A

do NOT need oxygen to survive; oxygen is TOXIC

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44
Q

how does glutathione protect cells?

A

neutralizes the reactive oxygen species by reducing the cysteinyl residue (thiol (sulfur) side chain)

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45
Q

glutathione

A

tripeptide that consists of glutamate, cysteine, and glycine

most ubiquitous tripeptide; is a potent free radical scavenger

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46
Q

melanin - sunburns - damage of epidermis and dermis - peeling - _____

A

cancer

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47
Q

what are three types of cancers?

A

basal cell carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, melanoma

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48
Q

basal cell carcinoma

A

starts in stratum basale; slow growing; LEAST in terms of lethality

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49
Q

squamous cell carcinoma

A

starts in stratum spinosum

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50
Q

melanoma

A

starts in melanocyte or might start as a mole; often will metastasize; WORST in terms of lethality

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51
Q

ABCDE of moles

A

asymmetry, border, color, diameter, evolution

changes to a mole

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52
Q

parts of the human nail

A

nail plate, nail groove, lunula, eponychium

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53
Q

eponychium

A

cuticle: extension of the stratum corneum from the proximal nail fold

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54
Q

cholecalciferol (vitamin D3)

A

formed naturally in the skin when exposed to sunlight, then is modified in the liver, and then final modification occurs in the kidneys to produce calcitriol (active vitamin D)

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55
Q

first-degree burn

A

epidermis

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56
Q

second-degree burn

A

epidermis and dermis

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57
Q

third-degree burn

A

epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous tissue

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58
Q

immunosuppresant

A

allows skin graft to not be “tagged as foreign” so it can “take” and not be rejected

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59
Q

no _____ match between the recipient (patient) and donor may lead to new skin graft being rejected

A

major histocompatibility complex

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60
Q

major histocompatibility complex (MHC)

A

recognize cells/tissues as self

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61
Q

debridement

A

cleaning or getting rid of all superflous excess tissue (or dead tissue) because we don’t want prokaryotes to have any sort of headstart of metabolism or truckload of energy

doctors remove dead tissue from a wound to allow for healing and inhibit bacteria growth (can cause infection)

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62
Q

how is a scar connected to epidermal growth factor (EGF)?

A

macrophages, around a wound, signal fibroblast activity adding collagen and other elements of the extracellular matrix because EGF alone cannot heal these wounds since they are too big

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63
Q

scar

A

macrophages signaling fibroblast activity around a wound for addition of collagen

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64
Q

COVID-19

A

leads to inflammation, but when overzealous can cause increased fluid concentration in lungs (pneumonia)

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65
Q

where is COVID-19 + inflammation found in the body?

A

binds to ACE-2 receptors in the lungs; inflammation then leads to fluid build up and drowning (pneumonia)

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66
Q

hernia

A

abnormal exit of tissue or an organ, such as the bowel, through the wall of the cavity in which it normally resides

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67
Q

inguinal hernias

A

present as bulges in the groin due to lifting something too heavy

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68
Q

epigastric hernias

A

present in the stomach (upper abdomen)

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69
Q

lateral hernias

A

present in lateral abdomen

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70
Q

femoral hernias

A

present in upper thigh

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71
Q

incisional hernias

A

present at the front of the abdomen where a previous incision is located

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72
Q

umbilical hernias

A

present in or near the belly button

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73
Q

acrochordons (skin tags)

A

creases in the skin; elevated friction (causes friction of skin)

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74
Q

where are acrochordons found?

A

neck, axillary region, eyelids, groin

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75
Q

palpabrail

A

eyelids

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76
Q

antiperspirants

A

inhibit apocrine sweat glands, decreasing the amount of sweat and oil excreted

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77
Q

deoderants

A

neutralize the thiol alcohols (sulfur) that produce a bad smell (masks odor)

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78
Q

what is the purpose (function) of inflammation?

A

to eliminate the initial cause of cell injury, clear out necrotic cells and tissues damaged from the original insult and the inflammatory process, and initiate tissue repair

*defenses are good, right up until they are NOT good”

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79
Q

what are the five cardinal signs of inflammation?

A

heat, pain, redness, swelling, and loss of function

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80
Q

what is the relationship between stress and cortisol?

A

when stressed, cortisol levels go up so immune system function goes down; body cannot fight off viruses easily and is therefore susceptible to illness

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81
Q

cortisol

A

stress hormone from the adrenal cortex; only good for short periods of time

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82
Q

interstitium

A

space between cells

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83
Q

interstitial fluid

A

fluid in the space between cells

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84
Q

hydroxyapatite (HA)

A

inorganic matrix; provides compression and tensile strength

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85
Q

formula of hydroxyapatite

A

Ca10(PO4)6OH2

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86
Q

collagen

A

triple helix that will form fibrils which then form larger fibrils for strength

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87
Q

compression strength

A

bone is hard (hydroxyapatite)

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88
Q

tensile strength

A

like a rope (collagen)

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89
Q

a bone without HA will _____

A

bend

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90
Q

bones decay when buried in dirt for extended periods of time, so bones lose organic components and water, therefore becoming _____

A

brittle

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91
Q

osteoblasts

A

BUILD: secrete collagen and organic matrix, induce formation of inorganic matrix, form new bone, remodel existing bone

92
Q

osteocytes

A

MATURE CELL: in lacunae within bone, stabilize and maintain bone matrix

93
Q

osteoclasts

A

CLEAVE: reabsorb calcified bone matrix

excrete hydrogen chloride (HCl) and proteolytic enzymes (from the golgi) to degrade bone; serum calcium levels typically go up

94
Q

osteoclasts are _____

A

multinucleate

95
Q

endochondral ossification

A

bone forms from cartilage

96
Q

intermembranous ossification

A

bone forms from mesenchyme

97
Q

growth plate

A

present as a toddler with five zones and five prostaglandins

98
Q

fontalle

A

soft spot on top of baby’s head that help babies go through birth canal

99
Q

is the skull fused at parturition (birth)?

A

NO: cranial skull is NOT fused; sutures are NOT fused in newborns

100
Q

_____ precedes ossification

A

cartilage

cartilage first (chondroblast) then the ossification

101
Q

what produces cartilage?

A

chondroblasts

102
Q

chondroblasts

A

form cartilage and chondrocytes; descend from mesenchyme

103
Q

chondrocytes

A

found in lacunae of cartilage; mature (maintaining) cells

104
Q

growth (epiphyseal) plate

A

well spring of long-bone growth: refers to the epiphyseal line between epiphysis and diaphysis

105
Q

what are the four hormones of bone remodeling?

A

parathyroid hormone, calcitriol, calcitonin, estrogen

106
Q

parathyroid hormone (PTH)

A

from parathyroid gland; elevates blood calcium

stimulus: low blood calcium
osteoclast activity increases

107
Q

calcitriol

A

activated vitamin D3; elevates blood calcium

osteoclast activity increases

ultraviolets rays from sun on skin for cholecalciferol - to liver for calciferone - to kidneys for calcitriol

108
Q

calcitonin

A

from thyroid c-cells; lowers blood calcium

osteoblast activity increases, so hydroxyapatite production increases
osteoclast activity decreases

109
Q

estrogen

A

prevents osteoblast apoptosis, keeping the osteoblast in circulation which is good for bone density

increased estrogen = increased osteoblast activity = building bone
decreased estrogen = menopause = osteoporosis

110
Q

osteoporosis

A

condition of little holes in the bone; develops when bone mineral density and bone mass decrease (weak bones)

111
Q

which subset of humanity has osteoporosis with the greatest frequency?

A

post-menopausal women due to a decline in estrogen levels

low estrogen = more osteoblast apoptosis

112
Q

how can we treat osteoporosis?

A

calcium diet increase, estrogen replacement therapy (ERT), low-weight bearing exercise, “pulsatile parathyroid hormone (PTH)”

113
Q

estrogen replacement therapy (ERT)

A

increases estrogen

114
Q

“pulsatile parathyroid hormone (PTH)” - (exogenous source)

A

tricks brain into thinking parathyroid hormone levels are elevated, so parathyroid hormone production decreases (endogenous) which decreases osteoclast activity

115
Q

what are the five zones (regions) of the growth (epiphyseal) plate?

A

cartilage, proliferation, hypertrophy, calcification, ossification

116
Q

cartilage

A

contains chondroblast

produced on the epiphyseal side of the plate as the chondrocytes divide and form stacks of cells

117
Q

proliferation

A

hyperplasia: massive mitotic activity that increases cell number

118
Q

hyperplasia

A

a lot of mitotic division = cell number goes up

119
Q

hypertrophy

A

cells grow in size; one cells gets bigger

120
Q

calcification

A

cells are filled with hydroxyapatite, then undergo apoptosis that leave the hydroxyapatite ONLY (cell is gone)

121
Q

ossification

A

new diaphysis

122
Q

bone growth

A

goes from ossification to calcification and up to create a new diaphysis

123
Q

when we see that a plate is _____ on an x-ray, it is still growing

124
Q

when we see that a plate is _____ on an x-ray, bone growth is over

125
Q

synovial fluid

A

contains high levels of hyaluronic acid

126
Q

radio-carpal joint (wrist)

A

a condyloid synovial joint of the distal upper limb that connects and serves as a transition point between the forearm and the hand

127
Q

condyloid joint

A

a modified ball and socket joint that allows for flexion, extension, abduction and adduction

128
Q

osteon

A

functional unit of bone (microscopic)

129
Q

central (Haversian) canal

A

consist of arteries, veins and nerves

130
Q

lacunae

A

space that holds osteocyte (mature bone cell)

131
Q

caniliculi

A

canals found between lacunae that allow the diffusion of substances through the bones

132
Q

concentric lamellae

A

rings of bone growth that radiate from central canal

133
Q

interstitial lamellae

A

rings that fill in spaces between osteons

134
Q

Volkmann’s canal

A

consist of arteries, veins and nerves

135
Q

osteogenesis imperfecta (brittle bone disease) symptoms

A

*whites of the eye (sclera) are BLUE, short stature, loose joints, hearing loss, breathing problems, and problems with teeth

136
Q

sclera

A

white part of the eye

137
Q

what causes osteogenesis imperfecta?

A

lack of collagen type I

genes: COL1A1 and COL1A2

autosomal dominant (non-sex chromosome (1-22); alleles that code for functional protein)

138
Q

there are _____ types of collagen

139
Q

carpal tunnel syndrome

A

caused by pressure on the MEDIAN NERVE

symptoms: numbness, tingling, weakness in the hand and arm

140
Q

carpal tunnel

A

narrow passageway surrounded by bone and ligaments on the palm side of the hand

141
Q

retinaculum

A

a deep layer of dense connective tissue that is typically oval or circular in its morphology; can often times stabilize tendons or even muscles

142
Q

fascia

A

very thin layer of connective tissue that wraps around internal organs and muscles

143
Q

tommy john surgery

A

ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) reconstruction; surgical graft procedure where the ulnar collateral ligament in the medial elbow is replaced with a tendon from 1) elsewhere in the patient’s body OR 2) from a deceased donor

144
Q

the tommy john surgery is common in which subset of humanity?

A

collegiate and professional athletes ESPECIALLY BASEBALL

145
Q

tendons from which muscles are used for tommy john surgeries?

A

gracilis and palmaris longus REPLACE ulnar collateral ligament

146
Q

hallux

147
Q

turf toe

A

injury that refers to a ligament sprain of the big toe joint that occurs on turf surfaces, causing tenderness and swelling around the big toe joint

148
Q

strain

A

hurt tendons

149
Q

sprain

A

hurt ligaments

150
Q

tendons

A

connect muscle to bone

151
Q

ligaments

A

connect bone to bone

152
Q

separated shoulder

A

acromioclavicular joint injury: injury to the AC joint

153
Q

acromioclavicular joint (AC)

A

lateral end of clavicle and acromion of scapula

154
Q

dislocated shoulder

A

glenohumeral joint injury: trauma to the GH joint

155
Q

glenohumeral joint (GH)

A

humerus and glenoid fossa

156
Q

high ankle sprain

A

syndesmotic ankle sprain: stretching and twisting of the syndesmotic ligaments that connect the tibia and fibula of the lower leg

pain or discomfort above the ankle

157
Q

which ligament is involved in a high ankle sprain?

A

syndesmotic ligament

158
Q

syndesmotic ligament

A

connects tibia and fibula

159
Q

fibula

A

NON-weight bearing bone of the lower leg

160
Q

tibia

A

weight bearing bone of the lower leg

161
Q

broken bone

A

referred to as a fracture of that bone

162
Q

compound fracture

A

penetrates the skin

163
Q

comminuted fracture

A

breaks into pieces

164
Q

blunt force trauma leads to _____ and/or _____ (bruise)

A

fracture; contusion

165
Q

depression fracture: cranium

A

hammer to cranium leads to bone fragment being dislodged towards brain = perfect impression of the actual impact

166
Q

transverse bone fracture

A

perpendicular to medullary cavity

167
Q

linear bone fracture

A

parallel to medullary cavity

168
Q

oblique non-displaced bone fracture

A

diagonal to medullary cavity

169
Q

oblique displaced bone fracture

A

diagonal and a “clean cut”

170
Q

spiral bone fracture

A

leg is planted, but body has twisted severely

171
Q

greenstick bone fracture

A

bone bends before breaking

*typically happens in the very young

172
Q

comminuted bone fracture

173
Q

_____ fractures are when the break is at an angle; a _____ fracture has broken the skin

A

oblique; compound

174
Q

rotator cuff

A

group of muscles and their tendons that act to stabilize the human shoulder and allow for its extensive range of motion

175
Q

what muscles make up the rotator cuff?

A

subscapularis, infraspinatus, supraspinatus, teres minor

176
Q

the rotator cuff muscles are important in shoulder movement and in maintaining what joing?

A

glenohumeral joint

177
Q

tendinopathy

A

pain, swelling or tenderness typically due to overuse

ex: rotator cuff pain

178
Q

tendinitis

A

inflammation of tendon sheaths typically due to overuse

179
Q

bruise

A

contusion: type of hematoma of tissue the most common cause being capillaries damaged by trauma, causing localized bleeding that extravasates (leakage of blood, lymph fluid) into surrounding interstitial tissues

180
Q

why do bruises cause a visible discoloration?

A

hemogoblin has begun to break down; most bruises occur close enough to the epidermis such that the bleeding allows for the visible discoloration

181
Q

hemogoblin

A

visible discoloration from iron (TOXIC)

182
Q

blanching

A

skin has whitish appearance caused by diminished blood flow to that region

183
Q

vasoconstriction

A

narrowing of blood vessels, reduces blood flow and increases blood pressure

184
Q

vasodilation

A

widening of blood vessels, increases blood flood and decreases blood pressure

185
Q

histamine

A

stored in granules in mast cells, but are released when mast cells comes into contact with allergen (degranulates)

186
Q

sources of histamine

A

mast cells, basophils, hypothalamus, enterochromaffin like cells

187
Q

effects of histamine

A

inflammation, vasodilation, bronchoconstrictor, mucous secretion, itching

188
Q

bronchoconstrictor (respiratory system)

A

tightening of smooth muscle that constricts airways in the lung

189
Q

histamine receptors

A

H1, H2, H3, H4 (integral proteins!!!)

bind to cell receptors causing allergies

190
Q

H1 receptor

A

face is loaded with H1 receptors and mast cells that eventually degranulate causing an increased histamine present in the face resulting in allergies (sinuses; eyes; nose)

191
Q

_____ causes allergies

192
Q

allergen

A

substance that produce an allergic reaction in an individual

193
Q

casual allergies

A

mild reaction; symptoms of runny nose, coughing, itchy eyes

194
Q

life-threatening allergies

A

leads to anaphylaxis

195
Q

allergies: eyes (FEEDFOWARD STIMULATION)

A

red, puffy, itchy

histamine in eyes increases - eyes become red, puffy, and itchy - we then scratch or rub eyes because it feel good - mast cell activity increases and triggers degranulation - histamine levels increase and cycle REPEATS

196
Q

allergies: nose

A

“stopped up” - RUNS!

197
Q

allergies: trouble breathing

A

bronchoconstrictor of smooth muscle of the respiratory nose

leads to low oxygen concentration

198
Q

pharmacology (drugs)

A

antihistamines

OTC = over the counter

199
Q

H is an _____

200
Q

H1R is an _____

A

antagonist

201
Q

H1R antagonists

A

turn histamine away so they can’t bind to cell receptor

“key fits the lock but will not open or undo the lock”

202
Q

H1R blockers for allergies

A

Zyrtec (morning) or Benadryl (night)

203
Q

H2 receptor

A

around the eyes and in the gastrointestinal system: parietal cell

enterochromaffin like cells release histamine that seek for receptors in parietal cells

204
Q

parietal cells

A

release hydrogen chloride (HCl) for the low (acidic) pH of 1.5 in the human stomach

205
Q

H2 receptor antagonist

A

when dealing with acid reflux, H2R antagonists increase pH of stomach

206
Q

H2R blockers for acid reflux

A

PepsidAc or Tagamet

207
Q

nuisance allergies

A

spring brings pollen - mast cells degranulate increasing histamine in the face causing nuisance allergies, so we need to BLOCK H1

208
Q

allergic reaction: bee sting

A

massive response from toxin in bee sting goes into the blood - histamine release causes 1) vasodilation that widens blood vessels and decreases blood pressure fast and 2) is a bronchoconstrictor that causes airways to narrow, decreasing oxygen concentration

209
Q

how do we address a bee sting reaction?

A

EpiPen (epinephrine/adrenaline) = vasoconstrictor and bronchodilator

210
Q

epinephrine (adrenaline)

A

OPPOSITE of histamine by being a vasoconstrictor and bronchodilator

211
Q

heat can cause denaturation leading to what? (inflammation)

A

loss of function

212
Q

swelling can increase pressure leading to what? (inflammation)

213
Q

inflammation function

A

get it, remove it, clean it, repair it

what is the it? damaged tissue, pathogen, irritant

214
Q

what are the five prostaglandings?

A

PG I2, PG D2, PG E2, PG F2 alpha, PG H2

215
Q

PG I2

A

wound stage two: vasodilation increases blood and increases ability to heal; inhibits platelet aggregation

216
Q

PG D2

A

PAIN; pyretic (fire/heat) that promotes an increase in fever; sleep wake cycle

217
Q

PG E2

A

PAIN; redness; swelling = increases inflammation

218
Q

PG F2 alpha

A

corpus luteum (yellow body)

estrogen and oxytocin stimulate the release of oxytocin, which aids in he stimulation of uterine contraction

219
Q

PG H2

A

initial wound stage: thromboxane - 1) vasoconstrictor and 2) promotes platelet aggregation to form clots

we do not want to endure blood loss

220
Q

which prostaglandin is major in inflammation?

221
Q

non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS)

222
Q

Cox 1 inhibitor

A

Ibuprofen (Advil) and Naproxen (Aleve) - both are NSAIDS

lower Cox 1, which lowers fever, pain; thus lowering inflammation

223
Q

Cox 2 inhibitor

A

Acetaminophen (TYLENOL) - is NOT an NSAID

224
Q

Cox 1 and 2 inhibitors

A

Acetylsalicylic Acid (Aspirin) - is NSAID

225
Q

Acetylsalicylic Acid (Aspirin)

A

donates acetyl group to “SER530” Cox 1 and Cox 2

226
Q

SER530

A

serine (SER) + amino acid position (530)

227
Q

epigenetics

A

regulates gene expression with NO changes in DNA

ex: acetylsalicylic acid

Anatomy and Physiology I (13 decks)

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