anatomy and physiology exam two Flashcards
1
Q
integument
A
SKIN: largest organ in the human body and one of the excretory organs
2
Q
free nerve endings
A
detect pain via receptors; respond to pain, tickle, temperature, and itch sensations
3
Q
arrector pili (smooth muscle)
A
involuntary; contracts and causes hair to stand up when cold, scared, or during a revelation moment (AHA!)
4
Q
sebaceous gland
A
produces oil to keep skin from flaking; adds to protection of the skin itself
5
Q
sudoriferous gland
A
sweat
6
Q
adipose tissue
A
fat; provides energy storage, insulation, and padding
7
Q
layers of epidermis (superficial to deep)
A
stratum corneum, stratum lucidum, stratum granulosum, stratum spinosum, stratum basale
8
Q
what layers of the epidermis are dead?
A
stratum corneum and stratum lucidum
9
Q
what layers of the epidermis are alive?
A
stratum spinosum and stratum basale
10
Q
what layer of the epidermis is moribund?
A
stratum granulosum
11
Q
moribund
A
dying state; apoptosis; near death
12
Q
direction of cell movement in epidermis
A
deep to superficial
13
Q
melanin
A
pigment; associated with what can we do with electromagnetic radiation, which can introduce mutations
14
Q
layers of the dermis (superficial to deep)
A
papillary layer, reticular layer
15
Q
eccrine sudoriferous (sweat) glands
A
all over the ENTIRE body; ONLY sweat;
16
Q
apocrine sudoriferous (sweat) glands
A
more oil in the sweat secretions (oil + sweat); found in the axillary (arm pit) and groin regions
activated when nervous
17
Q
apocrine sweat glands secrete oil that stimulates what?
A
bacterial growth = SMELLS BAD due to substances bacteria are producing
18
Q
what is the function of skull sinuses?
A
warming and humidifying the air we breathe in, as well as the secretion of mucus to trap impurities
19
Q
what are the four skull sinuses?
A
frontal sinus, ethmoidal labyrinth (sinuses), sphenoidal sinus, maxillary sinus
20
Q
what organ is responsible for producing vitamin D?
A
skin: during exposure to sunlight, ultraviolet radiation penetrates into the epidermis and photolyze pro-vitamin D3 to pre-vitamin D3
21
Q
proprioception
A
denotes your body’s sense of position, direction and acceleration
many different signals throughout the body that tell us what is going on (where we are, where we are going, when we are moving, how we are moving, etc.)
22
Q
what part of the ear is involved in proprioception?
A
inner ear fluid, *pacinian corpuscles, semicircular rings, vestibulocochlear nerve VIII, tiny hairs within ear
23
Q
what major arteries are exposed?
A
carotid (neck), jugular (neck), and femoral arteries (groin)
*they are more prone to injury and massive blood loss because they are superficial rather than being deep like other arteries
24
Q
keratin
A
tough intermediate filaments that make up scales, hair, nails, feathers, horns, claws, hooves, and the outer layer of skin among vertebrates
25
keratin function
protects epithelial cells from damage or stress because it is already dead; is extremely insoluble in water and organic solvents
26
excessive keratinization
participate in fortification of certain tissues such as horns
27
how long does it take for cells to move from stratum basale to stratum corneum?
45 DAYS!!!
cells are pushed up by new live cells coming up behind them (mitotic activity is occurring)
28
desmosomes
little "spot welds" between cells that hold them together
29
gap junctions
allow for intracellular fluid and ions to flow between cells (exchange)
30
which is thicker, the dermis or epidermis?
dermis
31
thick epidermis
"thick skin" that form calluses in the palms or soles of feet
32
where can we find the thickest combination of thick dermis AND epidermis (starts at birth)?
in the skin between our scapulae
33
obligate aerobes
use oxygen as the terminal electron acceptor of the E.T.C.: oxygen reduced to water
*need oxygen to survive
34
what are the three enzymes in obligate aerobes?
catalase, superoxide dismutase (S.O.D), glutathione peroxidase (GPx)
35
what houses the three enzymes found in obligate aerobes?
peroxisome
36
what happens when there is a cut in the skin and we pour hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) into the cut?
hydrogen peroxide is converted into water and oxygen which kills obligate anaerobes that can cause infections (oxygen is poison to obligate anaerobes)
37
peroxisomal membrane degradation
peroxisome is damaged by cuts and the enzymes get out of peroxisome and move into the cut
38
superoxide dismutase (SOD)
makes hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) from the reactive oxygen metabolites
39
catalase and glutathione peroxidase (GPx)
break H2O2 down into water and oxygen because oxygen is a reactive molecules and aerobes make plenty of reactive oxidative intermediates using oxygen
40
what are the three elements of cleaning a wound with hydrogen peroxide (H2O2)?
1. fluid (liquid) cleaning element
2. bubbles of O2 in contact of obligate anaerobe (kills them)
3. psychosomatic element
41
GPx
glutathione peroxidase
42
GSH
glutathione: tripeptide antioxidant in plants, animals, fungi and some bacteria
prevents oxidative damage via reactive oxygen species to certain parts of the cell
43
obligate anaerobes
do NOT need oxygen to survive; oxygen is TOXIC
44
how does glutathione protect cells?
neutralizes the reactive oxygen species by reducing the cysteinyl residue (thiol (sulfur) side chain)
45
glutathione
tripeptide that consists of glutamate, cysteine, and glycine
most ubiquitous tripeptide; is a potent free radical scavenger
46
melanin - sunburns - damage of epidermis and dermis - peeling - _____
cancer
47
what are three types of cancers?
basal cell carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, melanoma
48
basal cell carcinoma
starts in stratum basale; slow growing; LEAST in terms of lethality
49
squamous cell carcinoma
starts in stratum spinosum
50
melanoma
starts in melanocyte or might start as a mole; often will metastasize; WORST in terms of lethality
51
ABCDE of moles
asymmetry, border, color, diameter, evolution
*changes to a mole*
52
parts of the human nail
nail plate, nail groove, lunula, eponychium
53
eponychium
cuticle: extension of the stratum corneum from the proximal nail fold
54
cholecalciferol (vitamin D3)
formed naturally in the skin when exposed to sunlight, then is modified in the liver, and then final modification occurs in the kidneys to produce calcitriol (active vitamin D)
55
first-degree burn
epidermis
56
second-degree burn
epidermis and dermis
57
third-degree burn
epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous tissue
58
immunosuppresant
allows skin graft to not be "tagged as foreign" so it can "take" and not be rejected
59
no _____ match between the recipient (patient) and donor may lead to new skin graft being rejected
major histocompatibility complex
60
major histocompatibility complex (MHC)
recognize cells/tissues as self
61
debridement
cleaning or getting rid of all superflous excess tissue (or dead tissue) because we don't want prokaryotes to have any sort of headstart of metabolism or truckload of energy
doctors remove dead tissue from a wound to allow for healing and inhibit bacteria growth (can cause infection)
62
how is a scar connected to epidermal growth factor (EGF)?
macrophages, around a wound, signal fibroblast activity adding collagen and other elements of the extracellular matrix because EGF alone cannot heal these wounds since they are too big
63
scar
macrophages signaling fibroblast activity around a wound for addition of collagen
64
COVID-19
leads to inflammation, but when overzealous can cause increased fluid concentration in lungs (pneumonia)
65
where is COVID-19 + inflammation found in the body?
binds to ACE-2 receptors in the lungs; inflammation then leads to fluid build up and drowning (pneumonia)
66
hernia
abnormal exit of tissue or an organ, such as the bowel, through the wall of the cavity in which it normally resides
67
inguinal hernias
present as bulges in the groin due to lifting something too heavy
68
epigastric hernias
present in the stomach (upper abdomen)
69
lateral hernias
present in lateral abdomen
70
femoral hernias
present in upper thigh
71
incisional hernias
present at the front of the abdomen where a previous incision is located
72
umbilical hernias
present in or near the belly button
73
acrochordons (skin tags)
creases in the skin; elevated friction (causes friction of skin)
74
where are acrochordons found?
neck, axillary region, eyelids, groin
75
palpabrail
eyelids
76
antiperspirants
inhibit apocrine sweat glands, decreasing the amount of sweat and oil excreted
77
deoderants
neutralize the thiol alcohols (sulfur) that produce a bad smell (masks odor)
78
what is the purpose (function) of inflammation?
to eliminate the initial cause of cell injury, clear out necrotic cells and tissues damaged from the original insult and the inflammatory process, and initiate tissue repair
*defenses are good, right up until they are NOT good"
79
what are the five cardinal signs of inflammation?
heat, pain, redness, swelling, and loss of function
80
what is the relationship between stress and cortisol?
when stressed, cortisol levels go up so immune system function goes down; body cannot fight off viruses easily and is therefore susceptible to illness
81
cortisol
stress hormone from the adrenal cortex; only good for short periods of time
82
interstitium
space between cells
83
interstitial fluid
fluid in the space between cells
84
hydroxyapatite (HA)
inorganic matrix; provides compression and tensile strength
85
formula of hydroxyapatite
Ca10(PO4)6OH2
86
collagen
triple helix that will form fibrils which then form larger fibrils for strength
87
compression strength
bone is hard (hydroxyapatite)
88
tensile strength
like a rope (collagen)
89
a bone without HA will _____
bend
90
bones decay when buried in dirt for extended periods of time, so bones lose organic components and water, therefore becoming _____
brittle
91
osteoblasts
BUILD: secrete collagen and organic matrix, induce formation of inorganic matrix, form new bone, remodel existing bone
92
osteocytes
MATURE CELL: in lacunae within bone, stabilize and maintain bone matrix
93
osteoclasts
CLEAVE: reabsorb calcified bone matrix
excrete hydrogen chloride (HCl) and proteolytic enzymes (from the golgi) to degrade bone; serum calcium levels typically go up
94
osteoclasts are _____
multinucleate
95
endochondral ossification
bone forms from cartilage
96
intermembranous ossification
bone forms from mesenchyme
97
growth plate
present as a toddler with five zones and five prostaglandins
98
fontalle
soft spot on top of baby's head that help babies go through birth canal
99
is the skull fused at parturition (birth)?
NO: cranial skull is NOT fused; sutures are NOT fused in newborns
100
_____ precedes ossification
cartilage
*cartilage first (chondroblast) then the ossification*
101
what produces cartilage?
chondroblasts
102
chondroblasts
form cartilage and chondrocytes; descend from mesenchyme
103
chondrocytes
found in lacunae of cartilage; mature (maintaining) cells
104
growth (epiphyseal) plate
well spring of long-bone growth: refers to the epiphyseal line between epiphysis and diaphysis
105
what are the four hormones of bone remodeling?
parathyroid hormone, calcitriol, calcitonin, estrogen
106
parathyroid hormone (PTH)
from parathyroid gland; elevates blood calcium
stimulus: low blood calcium
osteoclast activity increases
107
calcitriol
activated vitamin D3; elevates blood calcium
osteoclast activity increases
ultraviolets rays from sun on skin for cholecalciferol - to liver for calciferone - to kidneys for calcitriol
108
calcitonin
from thyroid c-cells; lowers blood calcium
osteoblast activity increases, so hydroxyapatite production increases
osteoclast activity decreases
109
estrogen
prevents osteoblast apoptosis, keeping the osteoblast in circulation which is good for bone density
increased estrogen = increased osteoblast activity = building bone
decreased estrogen = menopause = osteoporosis
110
osteoporosis
condition of little holes in the bone; develops when bone mineral density and bone mass decrease (weak bones)
111
which subset of humanity has osteoporosis with the greatest frequency?
post-menopausal women due to a decline in estrogen levels
low estrogen = more osteoblast apoptosis
112
how can we treat osteoporosis?
calcium diet increase, estrogen replacement therapy (ERT), low-weight bearing exercise, "pulsatile parathyroid hormone (PTH)"
113
estrogen replacement therapy (ERT)
increases estrogen
114
"pulsatile parathyroid hormone (PTH)" - (exogenous source)
tricks brain into thinking parathyroid hormone levels are elevated, so parathyroid hormone production decreases (endogenous) which decreases osteoclast activity
115
what are the five zones (regions) of the growth (epiphyseal) plate?
cartilage, proliferation, hypertrophy, calcification, ossification
116
cartilage
contains chondroblast
produced on the epiphyseal side of the plate as the chondrocytes divide and form stacks of cells
117
proliferation
hyperplasia: massive mitotic activity that increases cell number
118
hyperplasia
a lot of mitotic division = cell number goes up
119
hypertrophy
cells grow in size; one cells gets bigger
120
calcification
cells are filled with hydroxyapatite, then undergo apoptosis that leave the hydroxyapatite ONLY (cell is gone)
121
ossification
new diaphysis
122
bone growth
goes from ossification to calcification and up to create a new diaphysis
123
when we see that a plate is _____ on an x-ray, it is still growing
NOT fused
124
when we see that a plate is _____ on an x-ray, bone growth is over
fused
125
synovial fluid
contains high levels of hyaluronic acid
126
radio-carpal joint (wrist)
a condyloid synovial joint of the distal upper limb that connects and serves as a transition point between the forearm and the hand
127
condyloid joint
a modified ball and socket joint that allows for flexion, extension, abduction and adduction
128
osteon
functional unit of bone (microscopic)
129
central (Haversian) canal
consist of arteries, veins and nerves
130
lacunae
space that holds osteocyte (mature bone cell)
131
caniliculi
canals found between lacunae that allow the diffusion of substances through the bones
132
concentric lamellae
rings of bone growth that radiate from central canal
133
interstitial lamellae
rings that fill in spaces between osteons
134
Volkmann's canal
consist of arteries, veins and nerves
135
osteogenesis imperfecta (brittle bone disease) symptoms
*whites of the eye (sclera) are BLUE, short stature, loose joints, hearing loss, breathing problems, and problems with teeth
136
sclera
white part of the eye
137
what causes osteogenesis imperfecta?
lack of collagen type I
genes: COL1A1 and COL1A2
autosomal dominant (non-sex chromosome (1-22); alleles that code for functional protein)
138
there are _____ types of collagen
28
139
carpal tunnel syndrome
caused by pressure on the MEDIAN NERVE
symptoms: numbness, tingling, weakness in the hand and arm
140
carpal tunnel
narrow passageway surrounded by bone and ligaments on the palm side of the hand
141
retinaculum
a deep layer of dense connective tissue that is typically oval or circular in its morphology; can often times stabilize tendons or even muscles
142
fascia
very thin layer of connective tissue that wraps around internal organs and muscles
143
tommy john surgery
ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) reconstruction; surgical graft procedure where the ulnar collateral ligament in the medial elbow is replaced with a tendon from 1) elsewhere in the patient's body OR 2) from a deceased donor
144
the tommy john surgery is common in which subset of humanity?
collegiate and professional athletes ESPECIALLY BASEBALL
145
tendons from which muscles are used for tommy john surgeries?
gracilis and palmaris longus REPLACE ulnar collateral ligament
146
hallux
big toe
147
turf toe
injury that refers to a ligament sprain of the big toe joint that occurs on turf surfaces, causing tenderness and swelling around the big toe joint
148
strain
hurt tendons
149
sprain
hurt ligaments
150
tendons
connect muscle to bone
151
ligaments
connect bone to bone
152
separated shoulder
acromioclavicular joint injury: injury to the AC joint
153
acromioclavicular joint (AC)
lateral end of clavicle and acromion of scapula
154
dislocated shoulder
glenohumeral joint injury: trauma to the GH joint
155
glenohumeral joint (GH)
humerus and glenoid fossa
156
high ankle sprain
syndesmotic ankle sprain: stretching and twisting of the syndesmotic ligaments that connect the tibia and fibula of the lower leg
pain or discomfort above the ankle
157
which ligament is involved in a high ankle sprain?
syndesmotic ligament
158
syndesmotic ligament
connects tibia and fibula
159
fibula
NON-weight bearing bone of the lower leg
160
tibia
weight bearing bone of the lower leg
161
broken bone
referred to as a fracture of that bone
162
compound fracture
penetrates the skin
163
comminuted fracture
breaks into pieces
164
blunt force trauma leads to _____ and/or _____ (bruise)
fracture; contusion
165
depression fracture: cranium
hammer to cranium leads to bone fragment being dislodged towards brain = perfect impression of the actual impact
166
transverse bone fracture
perpendicular to medullary cavity
167
linear bone fracture
parallel to medullary cavity
168
oblique non-displaced bone fracture
diagonal to medullary cavity
169
oblique displaced bone fracture
diagonal and a "clean cut"
170
spiral bone fracture
leg is planted, but body has twisted severely
171
greenstick bone fracture
bone bends before breaking
*typically happens in the very young
172
comminuted bone fracture
in pieces
173
_____ fractures are when the break is at an angle; a _____ fracture has broken the skin
oblique; compound
174
rotator cuff
group of muscles and their tendons that act to stabilize the human shoulder and allow for its extensive range of motion
175
what muscles make up the rotator cuff?
subscapularis, infraspinatus, supraspinatus, teres minor
176
the rotator cuff muscles are important in shoulder movement and in maintaining what joing?
glenohumeral joint
177
tendinopathy
pain, swelling or tenderness typically due to overuse
ex: rotator cuff pain
178
tendinitis
inflammation of tendon sheaths typically due to overuse
179
bruise
contusion: type of hematoma of tissue the most common cause being capillaries damaged by trauma, causing localized bleeding that extravasates (leakage of blood, lymph fluid) into surrounding interstitial tissues
180
why do bruises cause a visible discoloration?
hemogoblin has begun to break down; most bruises occur close enough to the epidermis such that the bleeding allows for the visible discoloration
181
hemogoblin
visible discoloration from iron (TOXIC)
182
blanching
skin has whitish appearance caused by diminished blood flow to that region
183
vasoconstriction
narrowing of blood vessels, reduces blood flow and increases blood pressure
184
vasodilation
widening of blood vessels, increases blood flood and decreases blood pressure
185
histamine
stored in granules in mast cells, but are released when mast cells comes into contact with allergen (degranulates)
186
sources of histamine
mast cells, basophils, hypothalamus, enterochromaffin like cells
187
effects of histamine
inflammation, vasodilation, bronchoconstrictor, mucous secretion, itching
188
bronchoconstrictor (respiratory system)
tightening of smooth muscle that constricts airways in the lung
189
histamine receptors
H1, H2, H3, H4 (integral proteins!!!)
bind to cell receptors causing allergies
190
H1 receptor
face is loaded with H1 receptors and mast cells that eventually degranulate causing an increased histamine present in the face resulting in allergies (sinuses; eyes; nose)
191
_____ causes allergies
allergen
192
allergen
substance that produce an allergic reaction in an individual
193
casual allergies
mild reaction; symptoms of runny nose, coughing, itchy eyes
194
life-threatening allergies
leads to anaphylaxis
195
allergies: eyes (FEEDFOWARD STIMULATION)
red, puffy, itchy
histamine in eyes increases - eyes become red, puffy, and itchy - we then scratch or rub eyes because it feel good - mast cell activity increases and triggers degranulation - histamine levels increase and cycle REPEATS
196
allergies: nose
"stopped up" - RUNS!
197
allergies: trouble breathing
bronchoconstrictor of smooth muscle of the respiratory nose
leads to low oxygen concentration
198
pharmacology (drugs)
antihistamines
OTC = over the counter
199
H is an _____
agonist
200
H1R is an _____
antagonist
201
H1R antagonists
turn histamine away so they can't bind to cell receptor
"key fits the lock but will not open or undo the lock"
202
H1R blockers for allergies
Zyrtec (morning) or Benadryl (night)
203
H2 receptor
around the eyes and in the gastrointestinal system: parietal cell
enterochromaffin like cells release histamine that seek for receptors in parietal cells
204
parietal cells
release hydrogen chloride (HCl) for the low (acidic) pH of 1.5 in the human stomach
205
H2 receptor antagonist
when dealing with acid reflux, H2R antagonists increase pH of stomach
206
H2R blockers for acid reflux
PepsidAc or Tagamet
207
nuisance allergies
spring brings pollen - mast cells degranulate increasing histamine in the face causing nuisance allergies, so we need to BLOCK H1
208
allergic reaction: bee sting
massive response from toxin in bee sting goes into the blood - histamine release causes 1) vasodilation that widens blood vessels and decreases blood pressure fast and 2) is a bronchoconstrictor that causes airways to narrow, decreasing oxygen concentration
209
how do we address a bee sting reaction?
EpiPen (epinephrine/adrenaline) = vasoconstrictor and bronchodilator
210
epinephrine (adrenaline)
OPPOSITE of histamine by being a vasoconstrictor and bronchodilator
211
heat can cause denaturation leading to what? (inflammation)
loss of function
212
swelling can increase pressure leading to what? (inflammation)
pain
213
inflammation function
get it, remove it, clean it, repair it
what is the it? damaged tissue, pathogen, irritant
214
what are the five prostaglandings?
PG I2, PG D2, PG E2, PG F2 alpha, PG H2
215
PG I2
wound stage two: vasodilation increases blood and increases ability to heal; inhibits platelet aggregation
216
PG D2
PAIN; pyretic (fire/heat) that promotes an increase in fever; sleep wake cycle
217
PG E2
PAIN; redness; swelling = increases inflammation
218
PG F2 alpha
corpus luteum (yellow body)
estrogen and oxytocin stimulate the release of oxytocin, which aids in he stimulation of uterine contraction
219
PG H2
initial wound stage: thromboxane - 1) vasoconstrictor and 2) promotes platelet aggregation to form clots
we do not want to endure blood loss
220
which prostaglandin is major in inflammation?
PG E2
221
non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS)
Cox 1
222
Cox 1 inhibitor
Ibuprofen (Advil) and Naproxen (Aleve) - both are NSAIDS
lower Cox 1, which lowers fever, pain; thus lowering inflammation
223
Cox 2 inhibitor
Acetaminophen (TYLENOL) - is NOT an NSAID
224
Cox 1 and 2 inhibitors
Acetylsalicylic Acid (Aspirin) - is NSAID
225
Acetylsalicylic Acid (Aspirin)
donates acetyl group to "SER530" Cox 1 and Cox 2
226
SER530
serine (SER) + amino acid position (530)
227
epigenetics
regulates gene expression with NO changes in DNA
ex: acetylsalicylic acid
