anatomy and physiology exam two Flashcards
integument
SKIN: largest organ in the human body and one of the excretory organs
free nerve endings
detect pain via receptors; respond to pain, tickle, temperature, and itch sensations
arrector pili (smooth muscle)
involuntary; contracts and causes hair to stand up when cold, scared, or during a revelation moment (AHA!)
sebaceous gland
produces oil to keep skin from flaking; adds to protection of the skin itself
sudoriferous gland
sweat
adipose tissue
fat; provides energy storage, insulation, and padding
layers of epidermis (superficial to deep)
stratum corneum, stratum lucidum, stratum granulosum, stratum spinosum, stratum basale
what layers of the epidermis are dead?
stratum corneum and stratum lucidum
what layers of the epidermis are alive?
stratum spinosum and stratum basale
what layer of the epidermis is moribund?
stratum granulosum
moribund
dying state; apoptosis; near death
direction of cell movement in epidermis
deep to superficial
melanin
pigment; associated with what can we do with electromagnetic radiation, which can introduce mutations
layers of the dermis (superficial to deep)
papillary layer, reticular layer
eccrine sudoriferous (sweat) glands
all over the ENTIRE body; ONLY sweat;
apocrine sudoriferous (sweat) glands
more oil in the sweat secretions (oil + sweat); found in the axillary (arm pit) and groin regions
activated when nervous
apocrine sweat glands secrete oil that stimulates what?
bacterial growth = SMELLS BAD due to substances bacteria are producing
what is the function of skull sinuses?
warming and humidifying the air we breathe in, as well as the secretion of mucus to trap impurities
what are the four skull sinuses?
frontal sinus, ethmoidal labyrinth (sinuses), sphenoidal sinus, maxillary sinus
what organ is responsible for producing vitamin D?
skin: during exposure to sunlight, ultraviolet radiation penetrates into the epidermis and photolyze pro-vitamin D3 to pre-vitamin D3
proprioception
denotes your body’s sense of position, direction and acceleration
many different signals throughout the body that tell us what is going on (where we are, where we are going, when we are moving, how we are moving, etc.)
what part of the ear is involved in proprioception?
inner ear fluid, *pacinian corpuscles, semicircular rings, vestibulocochlear nerve VIII, tiny hairs within ear
what major arteries are exposed?
carotid (neck), jugular (neck), and femoral arteries (groin)
*they are more prone to injury and massive blood loss because they are superficial rather than being deep like other arteries
keratin
tough intermediate filaments that make up scales, hair, nails, feathers, horns, claws, hooves, and the outer layer of skin among vertebrates
keratin function
protects epithelial cells from damage or stress because it is already dead; is extremely insoluble in water and organic solvents
excessive keratinization
participate in fortification of certain tissues such as horns
how long does it take for cells to move from stratum basale to stratum corneum?
45 DAYS!!!
cells are pushed up by new live cells coming up behind them (mitotic activity is occurring)
desmosomes
little “spot welds” between cells that hold them together
gap junctions
allow for intracellular fluid and ions to flow between cells (exchange)
which is thicker, the dermis or epidermis?
dermis
thick epidermis
“thick skin” that form calluses in the palms or soles of feet
where can we find the thickest combination of thick dermis AND epidermis (starts at birth)?
in the skin between our scapulae
obligate aerobes
use oxygen as the terminal electron acceptor of the E.T.C.: oxygen reduced to water
*need oxygen to survive
what are the three enzymes in obligate aerobes?
catalase, superoxide dismutase (S.O.D), glutathione peroxidase (GPx)
what houses the three enzymes found in obligate aerobes?
peroxisome
what happens when there is a cut in the skin and we pour hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) into the cut?
hydrogen peroxide is converted into water and oxygen which kills obligate anaerobes that can cause infections (oxygen is poison to obligate anaerobes)
peroxisomal membrane degradation
peroxisome is damaged by cuts and the enzymes get out of peroxisome and move into the cut
superoxide dismutase (SOD)
makes hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) from the reactive oxygen metabolites
catalase and glutathione peroxidase (GPx)
break H2O2 down into water and oxygen because oxygen is a reactive molecules and aerobes make plenty of reactive oxidative intermediates using oxygen
what are the three elements of cleaning a wound with hydrogen peroxide (H2O2)?
- fluid (liquid) cleaning element
- bubbles of O2 in contact of obligate anaerobe (kills them)
- psychosomatic element
GPx
glutathione peroxidase
GSH
glutathione: tripeptide antioxidant in plants, animals, fungi and some bacteria
prevents oxidative damage via reactive oxygen species to certain parts of the cell
obligate anaerobes
do NOT need oxygen to survive; oxygen is TOXIC
how does glutathione protect cells?
neutralizes the reactive oxygen species by reducing the cysteinyl residue (thiol (sulfur) side chain)
glutathione
tripeptide that consists of glutamate, cysteine, and glycine
most ubiquitous tripeptide; is a potent free radical scavenger
melanin - sunburns - damage of epidermis and dermis - peeling - _____
cancer
what are three types of cancers?
basal cell carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, melanoma
basal cell carcinoma
starts in stratum basale; slow growing; LEAST in terms of lethality
squamous cell carcinoma
starts in stratum spinosum
melanoma
starts in melanocyte or might start as a mole; often will metastasize; WORST in terms of lethality
ABCDE of moles
asymmetry, border, color, diameter, evolution
changes to a mole
parts of the human nail
nail plate, nail groove, lunula, eponychium
eponychium
cuticle: extension of the stratum corneum from the proximal nail fold
cholecalciferol (vitamin D3)
formed naturally in the skin when exposed to sunlight, then is modified in the liver, and then final modification occurs in the kidneys to produce calcitriol (active vitamin D)
first-degree burn
epidermis
second-degree burn
epidermis and dermis
third-degree burn
epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous tissue
immunosuppresant
allows skin graft to not be “tagged as foreign” so it can “take” and not be rejected
no _____ match between the recipient (patient) and donor may lead to new skin graft being rejected
major histocompatibility complex
major histocompatibility complex (MHC)
recognize cells/tissues as self
debridement
cleaning or getting rid of all superflous excess tissue (or dead tissue) because we don’t want prokaryotes to have any sort of headstart of metabolism or truckload of energy
doctors remove dead tissue from a wound to allow for healing and inhibit bacteria growth (can cause infection)
how is a scar connected to epidermal growth factor (EGF)?
macrophages, around a wound, signal fibroblast activity adding collagen and other elements of the extracellular matrix because EGF alone cannot heal these wounds since they are too big
scar
macrophages signaling fibroblast activity around a wound for addition of collagen
COVID-19
leads to inflammation, but when overzealous can cause increased fluid concentration in lungs (pneumonia)
where is COVID-19 + inflammation found in the body?
binds to ACE-2 receptors in the lungs; inflammation then leads to fluid build up and drowning (pneumonia)
hernia
abnormal exit of tissue or an organ, such as the bowel, through the wall of the cavity in which it normally resides
inguinal hernias
present as bulges in the groin due to lifting something too heavy
epigastric hernias
present in the stomach (upper abdomen)
lateral hernias
present in lateral abdomen
femoral hernias
present in upper thigh
incisional hernias
present at the front of the abdomen where a previous incision is located
umbilical hernias
present in or near the belly button
acrochordons (skin tags)
creases in the skin; elevated friction (causes friction of skin)
where are acrochordons found?
neck, axillary region, eyelids, groin
palpabrail
eyelids
antiperspirants
inhibit apocrine sweat glands, decreasing the amount of sweat and oil excreted
deoderants
neutralize the thiol alcohols (sulfur) that produce a bad smell (masks odor)
what is the purpose (function) of inflammation?
to eliminate the initial cause of cell injury, clear out necrotic cells and tissues damaged from the original insult and the inflammatory process, and initiate tissue repair
*defenses are good, right up until they are NOT good”
what are the five cardinal signs of inflammation?
heat, pain, redness, swelling, and loss of function
what is the relationship between stress and cortisol?
when stressed, cortisol levels go up so immune system function goes down; body cannot fight off viruses easily and is therefore susceptible to illness
cortisol
stress hormone from the adrenal cortex; only good for short periods of time
interstitium
space between cells
interstitial fluid
fluid in the space between cells
hydroxyapatite (HA)
inorganic matrix; provides compression and tensile strength
formula of hydroxyapatite
Ca10(PO4)6OH2
collagen
triple helix that will form fibrils which then form larger fibrils for strength
compression strength
bone is hard (hydroxyapatite)
tensile strength
like a rope (collagen)
a bone without HA will _____
bend
bones decay when buried in dirt for extended periods of time, so bones lose organic components and water, therefore becoming _____
brittle
osteoblasts
BUILD: secrete collagen and organic matrix, induce formation of inorganic matrix, form new bone, remodel existing bone
osteocytes
MATURE CELL: in lacunae within bone, stabilize and maintain bone matrix
osteoclasts
CLEAVE: reabsorb calcified bone matrix
excrete hydrogen chloride (HCl) and proteolytic enzymes (from the golgi) to degrade bone; serum calcium levels typically go up
osteoclasts are _____
multinucleate
endochondral ossification
bone forms from cartilage
intermembranous ossification
bone forms from mesenchyme
growth plate
present as a toddler with five zones and five prostaglandins
fontalle
soft spot on top of baby’s head that help babies go through birth canal
is the skull fused at parturition (birth)?
NO: cranial skull is NOT fused; sutures are NOT fused in newborns
_____ precedes ossification
cartilage
cartilage first (chondroblast) then the ossification
what produces cartilage?
chondroblasts
chondroblasts
form cartilage and chondrocytes; descend from mesenchyme
chondrocytes
found in lacunae of cartilage; mature (maintaining) cells
growth (epiphyseal) plate
well spring of long-bone growth: refers to the epiphyseal line between epiphysis and diaphysis
what are the four hormones of bone remodeling?
parathyroid hormone, calcitriol, calcitonin, estrogen
parathyroid hormone (PTH)
from parathyroid gland; elevates blood calcium
stimulus: low blood calcium
osteoclast activity increases
calcitriol
activated vitamin D3; elevates blood calcium
osteoclast activity increases
ultraviolets rays from sun on skin for cholecalciferol - to liver for calciferone - to kidneys for calcitriol
calcitonin
from thyroid c-cells; lowers blood calcium
osteoblast activity increases, so hydroxyapatite production increases
osteoclast activity decreases
estrogen
prevents osteoblast apoptosis, keeping the osteoblast in circulation which is good for bone density
increased estrogen = increased osteoblast activity = building bone
decreased estrogen = menopause = osteoporosis
osteoporosis
condition of little holes in the bone; develops when bone mineral density and bone mass decrease (weak bones)
which subset of humanity has osteoporosis with the greatest frequency?
post-menopausal women due to a decline in estrogen levels
low estrogen = more osteoblast apoptosis
how can we treat osteoporosis?
calcium diet increase, estrogen replacement therapy (ERT), low-weight bearing exercise, “pulsatile parathyroid hormone (PTH)”
estrogen replacement therapy (ERT)
increases estrogen
“pulsatile parathyroid hormone (PTH)” - (exogenous source)
tricks brain into thinking parathyroid hormone levels are elevated, so parathyroid hormone production decreases (endogenous) which decreases osteoclast activity
what are the five zones (regions) of the growth (epiphyseal) plate?
cartilage, proliferation, hypertrophy, calcification, ossification
cartilage
contains chondroblast
produced on the epiphyseal side of the plate as the chondrocytes divide and form stacks of cells
proliferation
hyperplasia: massive mitotic activity that increases cell number
hyperplasia
a lot of mitotic division = cell number goes up
hypertrophy
cells grow in size; one cells gets bigger
calcification
cells are filled with hydroxyapatite, then undergo apoptosis that leave the hydroxyapatite ONLY (cell is gone)
ossification
new diaphysis
bone growth
goes from ossification to calcification and up to create a new diaphysis
when we see that a plate is _____ on an x-ray, it is still growing
NOT fused
when we see that a plate is _____ on an x-ray, bone growth is over
fused
synovial fluid
contains high levels of hyaluronic acid
radio-carpal joint (wrist)
a condyloid synovial joint of the distal upper limb that connects and serves as a transition point between the forearm and the hand
condyloid joint
a modified ball and socket joint that allows for flexion, extension, abduction and adduction
osteon
functional unit of bone (microscopic)
central (Haversian) canal
consist of arteries, veins and nerves
lacunae
space that holds osteocyte (mature bone cell)
caniliculi
canals found between lacunae that allow the diffusion of substances through the bones
concentric lamellae
rings of bone growth that radiate from central canal
interstitial lamellae
rings that fill in spaces between osteons
Volkmann’s canal
consist of arteries, veins and nerves
osteogenesis imperfecta (brittle bone disease) symptoms
*whites of the eye (sclera) are BLUE, short stature, loose joints, hearing loss, breathing problems, and problems with teeth
sclera
white part of the eye
what causes osteogenesis imperfecta?
lack of collagen type I
genes: COL1A1 and COL1A2
autosomal dominant (non-sex chromosome (1-22); alleles that code for functional protein)
there are _____ types of collagen
28
carpal tunnel syndrome
caused by pressure on the MEDIAN NERVE
symptoms: numbness, tingling, weakness in the hand and arm
carpal tunnel
narrow passageway surrounded by bone and ligaments on the palm side of the hand
retinaculum
a deep layer of dense connective tissue that is typically oval or circular in its morphology; can often times stabilize tendons or even muscles
fascia
very thin layer of connective tissue that wraps around internal organs and muscles
tommy john surgery
ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) reconstruction; surgical graft procedure where the ulnar collateral ligament in the medial elbow is replaced with a tendon from 1) elsewhere in the patient’s body OR 2) from a deceased donor
the tommy john surgery is common in which subset of humanity?
collegiate and professional athletes ESPECIALLY BASEBALL
tendons from which muscles are used for tommy john surgeries?
gracilis and palmaris longus REPLACE ulnar collateral ligament
hallux
big toe
turf toe
injury that refers to a ligament sprain of the big toe joint that occurs on turf surfaces, causing tenderness and swelling around the big toe joint
strain
hurt tendons
sprain
hurt ligaments
tendons
connect muscle to bone
ligaments
connect bone to bone
separated shoulder
acromioclavicular joint injury: injury to the AC joint
acromioclavicular joint (AC)
lateral end of clavicle and acromion of scapula
dislocated shoulder
glenohumeral joint injury: trauma to the GH joint
glenohumeral joint (GH)
humerus and glenoid fossa
high ankle sprain
syndesmotic ankle sprain: stretching and twisting of the syndesmotic ligaments that connect the tibia and fibula of the lower leg
pain or discomfort above the ankle
which ligament is involved in a high ankle sprain?
syndesmotic ligament
syndesmotic ligament
connects tibia and fibula
fibula
NON-weight bearing bone of the lower leg
tibia
weight bearing bone of the lower leg
broken bone
referred to as a fracture of that bone
compound fracture
penetrates the skin
comminuted fracture
breaks into pieces
blunt force trauma leads to _____ and/or _____ (bruise)
fracture; contusion
depression fracture: cranium
hammer to cranium leads to bone fragment being dislodged towards brain = perfect impression of the actual impact
transverse bone fracture
perpendicular to medullary cavity
linear bone fracture
parallel to medullary cavity
oblique non-displaced bone fracture
diagonal to medullary cavity
oblique displaced bone fracture
diagonal and a “clean cut”
spiral bone fracture
leg is planted, but body has twisted severely
greenstick bone fracture
bone bends before breaking
*typically happens in the very young
comminuted bone fracture
in pieces
_____ fractures are when the break is at an angle; a _____ fracture has broken the skin
oblique; compound
rotator cuff
group of muscles and their tendons that act to stabilize the human shoulder and allow for its extensive range of motion
what muscles make up the rotator cuff?
subscapularis, infraspinatus, supraspinatus, teres minor
the rotator cuff muscles are important in shoulder movement and in maintaining what joing?
glenohumeral joint
tendinopathy
pain, swelling or tenderness typically due to overuse
ex: rotator cuff pain
tendinitis
inflammation of tendon sheaths typically due to overuse
bruise
contusion: type of hematoma of tissue the most common cause being capillaries damaged by trauma, causing localized bleeding that extravasates (leakage of blood, lymph fluid) into surrounding interstitial tissues
why do bruises cause a visible discoloration?
hemogoblin has begun to break down; most bruises occur close enough to the epidermis such that the bleeding allows for the visible discoloration
hemogoblin
visible discoloration from iron (TOXIC)
blanching
skin has whitish appearance caused by diminished blood flow to that region
vasoconstriction
narrowing of blood vessels, reduces blood flow and increases blood pressure
vasodilation
widening of blood vessels, increases blood flood and decreases blood pressure
histamine
stored in granules in mast cells, but are released when mast cells comes into contact with allergen (degranulates)
sources of histamine
mast cells, basophils, hypothalamus, enterochromaffin like cells
effects of histamine
inflammation, vasodilation, bronchoconstrictor, mucous secretion, itching
bronchoconstrictor (respiratory system)
tightening of smooth muscle that constricts airways in the lung
histamine receptors
H1, H2, H3, H4 (integral proteins!!!)
bind to cell receptors causing allergies
H1 receptor
face is loaded with H1 receptors and mast cells that eventually degranulate causing an increased histamine present in the face resulting in allergies (sinuses; eyes; nose)
_____ causes allergies
allergen
allergen
substance that produce an allergic reaction in an individual
casual allergies
mild reaction; symptoms of runny nose, coughing, itchy eyes
life-threatening allergies
leads to anaphylaxis
allergies: eyes (FEEDFOWARD STIMULATION)
red, puffy, itchy
histamine in eyes increases - eyes become red, puffy, and itchy - we then scratch or rub eyes because it feel good - mast cell activity increases and triggers degranulation - histamine levels increase and cycle REPEATS
allergies: nose
“stopped up” - RUNS!
allergies: trouble breathing
bronchoconstrictor of smooth muscle of the respiratory nose
leads to low oxygen concentration
pharmacology (drugs)
antihistamines
OTC = over the counter
H is an _____
agonist
H1R is an _____
antagonist
H1R antagonists
turn histamine away so they can’t bind to cell receptor
“key fits the lock but will not open or undo the lock”
H1R blockers for allergies
Zyrtec (morning) or Benadryl (night)
H2 receptor
around the eyes and in the gastrointestinal system: parietal cell
enterochromaffin like cells release histamine that seek for receptors in parietal cells
parietal cells
release hydrogen chloride (HCl) for the low (acidic) pH of 1.5 in the human stomach
H2 receptor antagonist
when dealing with acid reflux, H2R antagonists increase pH of stomach
H2R blockers for acid reflux
PepsidAc or Tagamet
nuisance allergies
spring brings pollen - mast cells degranulate increasing histamine in the face causing nuisance allergies, so we need to BLOCK H1
allergic reaction: bee sting
massive response from toxin in bee sting goes into the blood - histamine release causes 1) vasodilation that widens blood vessels and decreases blood pressure fast and 2) is a bronchoconstrictor that causes airways to narrow, decreasing oxygen concentration
how do we address a bee sting reaction?
EpiPen (epinephrine/adrenaline) = vasoconstrictor and bronchodilator
epinephrine (adrenaline)
OPPOSITE of histamine by being a vasoconstrictor and bronchodilator
heat can cause denaturation leading to what? (inflammation)
loss of function
swelling can increase pressure leading to what? (inflammation)
pain
inflammation function
get it, remove it, clean it, repair it
what is the it? damaged tissue, pathogen, irritant
what are the five prostaglandings?
PG I2, PG D2, PG E2, PG F2 alpha, PG H2
PG I2
wound stage two: vasodilation increases blood and increases ability to heal; inhibits platelet aggregation
PG D2
PAIN; pyretic (fire/heat) that promotes an increase in fever; sleep wake cycle
PG E2
PAIN; redness; swelling = increases inflammation
PG F2 alpha
corpus luteum (yellow body)
estrogen and oxytocin stimulate the release of oxytocin, which aids in he stimulation of uterine contraction
PG H2
initial wound stage: thromboxane - 1) vasoconstrictor and 2) promotes platelet aggregation to form clots
we do not want to endure blood loss
which prostaglandin is major in inflammation?
PG E2
non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS)
Cox 1
Cox 1 inhibitor
Ibuprofen (Advil) and Naproxen (Aleve) - both are NSAIDS
lower Cox 1, which lowers fever, pain; thus lowering inflammation
Cox 2 inhibitor
Acetaminophen (TYLENOL) - is NOT an NSAID
Cox 1 and 2 inhibitors
Acetylsalicylic Acid (Aspirin) - is NSAID
Acetylsalicylic Acid (Aspirin)
donates acetyl group to “SER530” Cox 1 and Cox 2
SER530
serine (SER) + amino acid position (530)
epigenetics
regulates gene expression with NO changes in DNA
ex: acetylsalicylic acid
