Lab Practical Exam 1 Flashcards

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1
Q

what are the cranial bones of the skull?

A
  • frontal bone
  • parietal bone
  • occipital bone
  • sphenoid bone
  • ethmoid bone
  • temporal bone
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2
Q

frontal bone

A
  • anterior portion of the cranium
  • the superior wall of orbits
  • contains supraorbital notch: passageway for supraorbital nerve
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3
Q

foramen magnum

A

large opening which the brain connects to the spinal cord

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4
Q

nuchal lines

A

muscle attachment for posterior neck muscles

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5
Q

hypoglossal foramen

A

where CN XII (hypoglossal nerve) passes

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6
Q

occipital condyles

A

directly articulates with the C1 vertebrae for the “yes’’ movement

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7
Q

mandibular fossa

A

helps form the TMJ; receives the condylar process of the mandible

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8
Q

mastoid process & styloid process function

A

anchoring sites for muscles for mastication

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9
Q

jugular foramen

A

allows passage for internal jugular veins & CN 9, 10, & 11 (glossopharyngeal, vagus, & accessory)

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10
Q

carotid canal

A

allows passage of internal carotid artery

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11
Q

foramen lacerum

A

completely closed off by cartilage in the living, open in the dead

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12
Q

internal acoustic meatus

A

helps transit CN 8 & 7 (vestibulocochlear & facial)

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13
Q

stylomastoid foramen

A

allows CN 7 (facial nerve) to leave skull

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14
Q

what are the three parts of the temporal bone?

A
  • squamous part - partially forms the zygomatic process & has the mandibular fossa
  • tympanic part - this surrounds the external auditory meatus & has the mastoid/styloid process
  • petrous part - houses the middle and inner ear cavity
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15
Q

sphenoid bone

A
  • can be described as a bat or moth shape bone
  • a keystone bone & that articulates with all other cranial bones
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16
Q

body (on sphenoid bone)

A
  • houses superficially the SELLA TURCICA
  • SELLA TURCICA: has the HYPOPHYSEAL FOSSA - a “seat” for the pituitary gland
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17
Q

supraorbital fissure

A

allows CN 3,4,5,6 (oculomotor, trochlear, trigeminal, abducens) to pass through

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18
Q

foramen rotundum & foramen ovale

A

provides passage for maxillary & mandibular nerve (also CN 5 - trigeminal nerve)

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19
Q

foramen spinosum

A

transmits the medial meningeal artery

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20
Q

cribriform foramina/plate

A

allows the CN 1 (olfactory nerve) to pass

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21
Q

crista galli

A

allows for dura matter attachment

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22
Q

what are the facial bones of the skull?

A
  • nasal
  • lacrimal
  • palatine
  • inferior nasal concha
  • maxilla
  • mandible
  • vomer
  • zygomatic
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23
Q

what bones form the orbits?

A

“many friendly zebras enjoy lazy summer picnics”

  • maxilla
  • frontal
  • zygomatic
  • ethmoid
  • lacrimal
  • sphenoid
  • palatine
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24
Q

what bones form the nasal caivty?

A

“my very fine nasal SEPtum”
- maxilla
- vomer
- frontal
- nasal
- sphenoid
- ethmoid
- palatine bone

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25
Q

cervical vertebrae characteristics

A
  • TRIANGULAR vertebral foramen
  • has a BIFID SPINOUS PROCESS
  • has TRANSVERSE FORAMINA
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26
Q

atlas (C1) characterisitics

A
  • no BODY OR SPINOUS PROCESS
  • movement for “yes”
  • has TWO SUPERIOR LATERAL MASSES that articulate with the OCCIPITAL CONDYLES
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27
Q

axis (C2) characteristics

A
  • has a DENS/ODONTOID PROCESS
  • movement for “no”
  • has a missing partner/body :( “atlas”
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28
Q

thoracic vertebrae characteristics

A
  • bigger body
  • more longer spinous processes
  • has transverse COSTAL FACETS for articulation of rib tubercles
29
Q

lumbar vertebrae characteristics

A
  • these recieve most stress
  • shorter pedicles & flatter/thin spinous processes
  • prevents rotation
30
Q

sacrum

A
  • fused (5) vertebrae
  • allows passage of the CAUDA EQIUNA
  • helps form the sacroiliac joint
31
Q

clavicles

A
  • MEDIALLY forms the sternoclavicular joint
  • LATERALLY forms the acromioclavicular joint
32
Q

femur

A
  • carries entire weight of erect body
  • three segments of lower limb: thing, leg, and foot
33
Q

sagittal (medial) plane

A

divides the body into equal left and right halves

34
Q

frontal (coronal plane)

A

divides the body into anterior and posterior portions

35
Q

transverse plane

A

divides the body into superior and inferior portions

36
Q

simple squamous epithelium

A
  • description: single layer of flattened SQUAMOUS CELLS
  • function: DIFFUSION AND FILTRATION/SECRETION OF LUBRICATION
  • location: KIDNEY GLOMERULI, ALVELOLI IN LUNGS, HEART LINING
37
Q

simple cuboidal epithelium

A
  • description: “”
  • function: SECRETION & ABSORPTION
  • location: KIDNEY TUBULES & DUCTS/SMALL GLANDS
38
Q

simple columnar epithelium

A
  • description: “” *has CILIA & GOBLET CELLS
  • function: ABSORPTION & SECRETION of mucus, enyzmes and etc…
  • location: NONCILIATED - digestive tract
    CILIATED -bronchi, uterine tubes, and uterus
39
Q

pseudostratified columnar epithelium

A
  • description: “” *has CILIA & GOBLET CELLS
  • function: SECRETION of SUBSTANCES & PROPULSION
  • location: NONCILIATED - sperm carrying ducts
    CILIATED - upper respiratory tract/trachea
40
Q

stratified squamous epithelium

A
  • description: (basal) cuboidal/columnar (surface) squamous
  • function: PROTECTION
  • location: NONKERATINIZED: esophagus, mouth, and vagina
    KERATINIZED: epidermis
41
Q

what are the types of loose connective tissue?

A
  • areolar
  • adipose
  • reticular
42
Q

what are the types of dense connective tissue?

A
  • dense irregular
  • dense regular
  • elastic
43
Q

areolar connective tissue

A
  • LCT
  • description: has FIBROBLASTS, MACROPHAGES, MAST CELLS, AND WBCS
  • function: CUSHIONS and PHAGOCYTIZES bacteria; helps with inflammation/tissue fluid
  • location: under EPITHELIA of the body; surrounds capillaries
44
Q

adipose connective tissue

A
  • LCT
  • description: has many ADIPOCYTES
  • function: INSULATION, FUEL, SUPPORT, AND PROTECTION
  • location: under skin, abdomen, breasts
45
Q

reticular connective tissue

A
  • LCT
  • description: RETICULAR FIBERS
  • function: formation of a SKELETON/STROMA - supports cell types
  • location: LYMPHOID ORGANS
46
Q

dense regular connective tissue

A
  • DCT
  • description: COLLAGEN FIBERS, FIBROBLASTS, some elastic fibers
  • function: ATTACHMENT - muscles, tendons, ligaments etc…
  • location: TENDONS & LIGAMENTS
47
Q

dense irregular connective tissue

A
  • DCT
  • description: more IRREGULAR ARRANGED COLLAGEN FIBERS ; major cell type found are the FIBROBLASTS
    function: withstands TENSION and gives STRUCTURAL STRENGTH
    location: within JOINTS AND FIBROUS CAPSULES of organs
48
Q

elastic connective tissue

A
  • DCT
  • description: ELASTIC FIBERSSSSSSS
  • function: RECOIL/STRETCH
  • location: ARTERIAL WALLS, BRONCHI, AND LIGAMENTS
49
Q

hyaline cartilage

A
  • description: has plenty of CHONDROBLASTS & once mature (CHONDROCYTES)
  • function: SUPPORT AND REINFORCEMENT
  • location: COSTAL CARTILAGE, NOSE, TRACHEA, LARYNX
50
Q

bone

A
  • description: many COLLAGEN FIBERS, OSTEOCYTES
  • function: SUPPORT AND PROTECTION, STORES CALCIUMMMMMMMMM
51
Q

blood

A
  • description: red and white blood cells
  • function: TRANSPORTATION - gases, nutrients, waste
  • location: BLOOD VESSELS
52
Q

skeletal muscle

A

description: LONG, CYLINDRICAL MULTINUCLEATE cells aka striations
function: helps with VOLUNTARY movement, and FACIAL EXPRESSION
location: found in SKELETAL MUSCLES

53
Q

cardiac muscle

A
  • description: BRANCHING STRAITED UNIUNIIIIINUCLEATE cells with INTERCALATED DISCS BROO BROO
  • function: blood circulation
  • location: THE HEARTT <3
54
Q

what are the layers of the epidermis?

A
  • stratum corneum
  • stratum lucidum (thick skin only)
  • stratum granulosum
  • stratum spinosum
  • stratum basale
55
Q

what are the layers of the dermis?

A
  • papillary layer
  • reticular layer
56
Q

stratum basale

A
  • deepest layer of the epidermis
  • live mitotic stages and cell division
  • single row of stem cells
  • firm attachment to the dermis
  • 25-45 days and cells begin to die and move up
57
Q

stratum spinosum

A
  • “prickly” layer
  • held together by desmosomes + keratin filaments; has many keratinocytes
  • dendritic cells are most abundant here *help activate immune sys.
58
Q

stratum granulosum

A
  • four to six layers thick
  • keratinocytes begin to form into granular cells (disintegration of nuclei and organelles) - apoptosis
  • secretion of lamellar granules - secretion of glycolipids to help slow water loss (waterproof barrier)
59
Q

stratum lucidum

A
  • found only in the thickest skin areas - palms and soles of feet
  • few rows of flat and dead keratinocytes
60
Q

stratum corneum

A
  • plenty of layers of dead, keratinized cells - around 20-30 rows
  • “horned” layer
  • an important barrier against biological, chemical, and physical cells
61
Q

keratinocytes

A
  • cells that produce the fibrous protein of keratin
  • tightly connected by desmosomes
62
Q

melanocytes

A
  • cells that produce the pigment of melanin
  • callback to its usage within protection against UV radiation
63
Q

dendritic (langerhans) cells

A
  • cells that aid in breaking pathogens into smaller pieces and eating them! - phagocytosis
  • contains macrophages - activators of the immune system
64
Q

tactile (merkel) cells

A

cells aiding in terms of sensory touch receptors - connected to nerve cells within the dermis
- spiked appearance

65
Q

papillary layer

A
  • stimulation of hair growth - giving a constant supply of blood and nourishment to hair roots (20%)
  • has dermal papillae within its superficial surface (hair growth)
  • has tacile (meissner’s corpuscles) - mechanoreceptor for light touch
66
Q

reticular layer

A
  • lamellar (pacinian) corpuscles: helps with identifying vibrations and pressure
  • ruffini endings: mechano-thermo receptors. helps with skin stretches & finger positions/movement
  • more collagen fibers and elastic fibers for strength and elasticity
67
Q

sebaceous glands

A
  • secretion of oil and sebum
  • helps in softening skin and hair
68
Q

where does the epidermis develop from?

A

ectoderm

69
Q

where does the dermis and hypodermis develop from?

A

mesoderm