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Microbiology Professor Berg > Lab Exam 3 > Flashcards

Lab Exam 3 Flashcards

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1
Q

The _______ immune system acts fast and non-specifically

A

Innate

This includes physical barriers and mast cells,NK cells, macrophages, neutrophils, dendritic cells, basophils, and eosinophils.

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2
Q

Phagocytic cells, such as _______, and __________ ingest and destroy pathogens

A

Neutrophils and macrophages

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3
Q

__________ cells, A special type of white blood cell, destroy virus infected cells.

A

Natural killer

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4
Q

How does an organism distinguish its own tissue from foreign element or invader?

A

This ability is conferred by pattern recognition receptors (PRRs)
They recognize microbe associated molecular patterns (MAMPs) that are unique to bacteria, viruses, parasites, or fungus.

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5
Q

The adaptive immune system relies on ______ and ______.

A

B cells- humoral branch of adaptive immunity

T cells- cell mediated immunity

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6
Q

B cells can directly destroy a foreign particle or……

A

Differentiate into plasma cells that release antibodies. To target for other cells to destroy

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7
Q

All ____ cells carries surface receptors that are each specific to a single antigen.

A

T

After encountering the antigen, T cells can stimulate other parts of the immune system actively destroy infected or cancerous cells

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8
Q

Typically one of three pathological affects arise from an autoimmune disease…

A

Damage or distraction of tissue, altered organ growth, or altered organ function

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9
Q

If a patient has a higher percentage of neutrophils this usually indicates….

A

Bacterial infection

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10
Q

Antibodies are also known as?

A

Immunoglobulins (Ig)

And essential player of the adaptive immune system
They are produced by B cells and make up to 20% of the total blood plasma by weight

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11
Q

The Y shaped structure of antibodies consist of ______ polypeptide chains

A

4
Composed of amino acids
Two identical heavy chains and two identical light chains

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12
Q

Antibodies are held together by what type of bonds?

A

Covalent disulfide bonds and noncovalent bonds

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13
Q

Both a light chain and heavy chain contribute to the antigen binding site at each of the tips of the white structure. These amino acids are highly variable to allow recognition of an almost unlimited number of images this region is also called the ________

A

Variable region and is part of the antigen binding fragment

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14
Q

Each arm of the Y shaped unit carries an

A

Identical antigen binding site

Antibodies can crosslink antigens when one arm binds to one antigen and the other arm binds to a second, structurally identical antigen

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15
Q

Cross-linking is facilitated by….

A

The flexible hinge region that connects the anybody’s arm to the stand and allows variable distances between energy and binding sites. Large lattices of cross-linked antigens are subsequentially engolfed more quickly and easily by macrophages, removing larger amounts of the antigen at once

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16
Q

The stem region of the antibody is also called the….
It determines the effector function of the antibody. Via the FC domain, that antibody can interact with FC receptors on other immune cells such as the cells macrophages and mass cells

A

Fragment Crystallizable (Fc) region

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17
Q

The Fc is often______ , hindering or allowing FC receptors access.
Altering the glycocalyces state of the antibody, therefore, allows rapid modulation of antibody function

A

Glycosylated

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18
Q

What anybody classes have a single Y shaped structure, providing two identical antigen binding sites at the tips of their arms?

A

IgD, IgE, IgG

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19
Q

IgD, IgE, and IgG differ in their composition of _____________ between their two heavy chains

A

Disulfide and non-covalent bonds

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20
Q

_______ can occur as a monomer or a dimer, resembling two Ys that are joined at their base.

A

IgA

As a dimer, IgA has four identical antigen binding sites

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21
Q

IgM can occur as a monomer but is more often encountered as a _______, giving it the ability to bind to a
10 identical antigens at once

A

Pentameter

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22
Q

____ anybody’s account for 80% of all antibodies. They’re responsible for resistance against many viruses, bacteria, and bacterial toxins

A

IgG

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23
Q

_____Attaches as an individual molecule to the expose service of basophils and mast cells

A

IgE

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24
Q

_____ is an individual molecule on the surface of the cells, where it can bind engines in the extracellular fluid. This binding can play a role in the sensitization of B cell involved

A

IgD

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25
Q

______ is the first class of antibodies secreted after antigen is encountered. Concentration declines as IgG production accelerates. The anti-AA and anti-B antibodies responsible for the angulation of incompatible blood types

A

IgM

26
Q

____ is found primarily in granular secretions such as mucus, tears, saliva, and semen. These antibodies attack pathogen‘s before they gain access to internal tissue

A

IgA

27
Q

How do IgG antibodies contribute to pathogen illumination?

A

They opsonize pathogen‘s to trigger phagocytosis by macrophages or neutrophils
The activity of these phagocytic cells is in Hanst by the compliment system, a cascade of enzymatic proteins. The government system itself is triggered by IgG

28
Q

These antibodies are secreted into the mothers milk, thereby offering passive immunity that protects the infant from infections

A

IgG

29
Q

This anybody neutralizes bacteria, preventing their movement across epithelia
Occurs as a dimer when it is secreted in as a monomer and body fluids

A

IgA

30
Q

Monomers of the _____ class are the first to appear on naïve B cells. They are the major class of any bodies that are secreted by the cells in response to the first exposure to an antigen, the primary antibody response. It activates the complement system and neutralizes pathogen‘s

A

IgM

31
Q

Low levels in body fluids and are mostly known for allergies. During an allergic reaction it binds to cognate antigen.
The FC region binds to mass cells in basophils. The interaction of this antibody in the FC receptor on the cell surface elicits the realize of histamine and interleukins, which caused allergic symptoms

A

IgE

32
Q

The functions of this antibody are not well understood but seem to resemble those of IgM

A

IgD

33
Q

A collection of antibodies directed against different antigenic determinants of an antigen or several antigens

A

Polyclonal antibodies

34
Q

What is an important limitation of polyclonal antibodies?

A

They are unable to distinguish between antigens that share antigenic determinants. Therefore they are sometimes not useful in treatment or clinical testing applications

One approach to overcome this is to prepare a myeloma B cell hybridoma

35
Q

Who discover that patients with multiple myeloma a lymphoid tumor produced a large quantity of antibodies

A

Henry Bence-Jones

36
Q

what does ELISA stand for?

A

Enzyme-linked immunosorbent absorbent assay

37
Q

This is typically used to detect the presence or amount of a target protein of interest within an experimental sample
Detection is made possible by antibodies

A

ELISA

38
Q

When preforming ELISA, when exposed to a substrate, antibody bound enzyme will cause a color change, thereby indicating the presence of the proteins of interest in the sample

A

Color change = positive result

39
Q

What is the most common ELISA method? (Direct, indirect, sandwich)

A

Indirect

40
Q

Using antigen antibody interactions in vitro is called

A

Serology

41
Q

Can be seen with the naked eye when clusters of these aggregates appear

A

Agglutination

Fast fast way of diagnosing common causes of infection

Ex: rapid staphylococcus aureus

42
Q

What happens after a vaccine is administered?

A

Antigen presenting immune cells (APCs), such as Dendritic cells macrophages, engulf the antigen from the vaccine, degrade and display pieces of the antigen down to major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules on their surface
The activated APCs then migrate to the lymph notes, where they encounter and stimulate naïve helper T cells inside of toxic T cells. The activated helper T cells differentiate into different subtypes such as type one and type two helper T cells

43
Q

What are the purines? They contain two ringed structures

A

Adenine and guanine

44
Q

Single ringed structures called pyramidines

A

Cytisine thiamine

45
Q

Adjacent nucleotides in the same strand are conveniently linked by ________ bonds. The two strands of nucleotides are held together by ________ bonds.

A

Phosphodiester, hydrogen

46
Q

Hydrogen bonds would not be able to form without the _______ arrangement of DNA

A

Anti-parallel

47
Q

Responding to the environment often requires __________ changes

A

Transcriptional

48
Q

What is the central dogma in biology?

A

Dictates that genetic information is converted into functional proteins by the process of transcription and translation

49
Q

Some tRNA molecules are able to bind to more than one coat on sequence, allowing for coding versatility known as the….

A

Wobble effect

50
Q

Changes a single amino acid and the effects might be serious if the change alters the function and proteins

A

Misssense mutation

51
Q

A mutation that produces a stop codon that triangulate the protein, likely rendering at nonfunctional

A

Nonsense mutation

52
Q

Mutation occurs when one or more nucleotide are inserted into or delete it from a proteins coding DNA sequence, altering all of the codons downstream of the location of the mutation

A

Frameshift mutation

53
Q

What does prolonged exposure to UV light do to DNA?

A

Destruct see hydrogen bonds between pyrimidines and their complementary bass in DNA, resulting in pyrimidine dimers, where a covalent bond is formed between adjacent pyrimdines.

54
Q

Who created PCR

A

Mary Mullis

55
Q

What is required for PCR

A
  • template DNA
  • Taq DNA polymerase
  • nucleotides
  • buffers
  • MgCl cofactors for enzymes
  • 2 two different primers (forward and reverse synthetic oligonucleotides)
56
Q

Steps of PCR

A
  • Heating (denaturing )
  • cooling to allow primers to O’Neil
  • heading back to 72° to allow tack polymerase to extend the new DNA strand
  • denaturation * annealing * extension
57
Q

The method of separating charge particles typically nucleic acid‘s or proteins based on size and or charge

A

Electrophoresis

DNA strands migrate through A.CHAL while submerged in a buffered solution

This can be used to confirm the size the number and as an intermediate or confirmation step and other bio technology applications

58
Q

The sugar phosphate backbone of DNA has a _______ charge in neutral to basic solutions

A

Negative

DNA will move from the negative poll towards the positive part of the electrode through a semi solid matrix

59
Q

True or false DNA is the only molecule that can be observed through electrophoresis?

A

False

Proteins in RNA can be separated using the same principles. Their size and charge

60
Q

________ can recognize short sequences of DNA and make precise double-stranded DNA cuts only where those sequences are present. The specific recognition sites are called _________ and our unique for each restriction enzyme discovered

A 
Restriction enzymes (endonuclease) 
Palindrome

Microbiology Professor Berg (16 decks)

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