kaplan exam 4 Flashcards

1
Q

impression management

A

influencing another persons perception of an event by controlling the info they receive
- conscious or subconscious process attempting to influence another perception of person, thing, or event

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2
Q

basal ganglia

A

controlling motor movements ( substantial migration is within it)
a group of structures linked to the thalamus in the base of the brain and involved in coordination of movement.

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3
Q

conflict theory

A

society is in a constant state of conflict because of competition for limited resources

  • question on the ones and fives (competing over a limited one manager title)
  • I choose the wrong one that discribed a hierarchy system
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4
Q

extrinsic motivation vs internal motivation

A

extrinsic= is reward-driven behavior. It’s a type of operant conditioning. … In extrinsic motivation, rewards or other incentives — like praise, fame, or money — are used as motivation for specific activities. Unlike intrinsic motivation, external factors drive this form of motivation.

intrinisic= Enjoyment, satisfaction, and internal growth

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5
Q

schizophrenia can be caused by?

A

The “dopamine theory of schizophrenia” states that schizophrenia is caused by an overactive dopamine system in the brain

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6
Q

cognitive dissonance

A

balancing contradictory beleifs

example was a divorced and lonely man told my family members that there is someone for everyone

the state of having inconsistent thoughts, beliefs, or attitudes, especially as relating to behavioral decisions and attitude change.

This produces a feeling of mental discomfort leading to an alteration in one of the attitudes, beliefs or behaviors to reduce the discomfort and restore balance. For example, when people smoke (behavior) and they know that smoking causes cancer (cognition), they are in a state of cognitive dissonance.

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7
Q

light house question

A

for a test to be top-down, would need to test the ability of the action to use big concepts to infer smaller ones

here the correct answer was signal detection theory bc the test was based on hit and false alarms

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8
Q

signal detection theory

A

-not just on the strength of signal

  • differ in ability to detect stimuli
  • abandons the idea of a threshold (more of a decision process)
  • response to stem depends on individual sensitivity to the stimuli in the presence of noise and one decision criterion (motivations alter ness, cost and gains about being correct of incorrect)
  • noise is external and internal noise (motives, memories, frame of mind)
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9
Q

what chart is correlated to signal detection

A

signal detection matrix

stim is absent or present and participants response - hit or miss

hit, false alarm, miss, correct rejection

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10
Q

gentrification

A

Gentrification is the phenomenon of affluent folks moving into less wealthy neighborhoods, renovating homes and attracting new businesses. In the process, property values increase, rents go up, and poorer neighborhood residents are displaced.

Gentrification is a process of changing the character of a neighborhood through the influx of more affluent residents and businesses. … The gentrification process is typically the result of increasing attraction to an area by people with higher incomes spilling over from neighboring cities, towns, or neighborhoods.

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11
Q

what study would address conflict theory

A

one that states that power differentials exist between social classes and theses differences breed interclass competition - so the one about an economic study detailing share per capitamediacal resources received based on class

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12
Q

which one violated the non-maleficence classes in the four tenets of medical ethics?

A

do no harm above all else –> physician prioritized treatment above harmful side effects ( the dermatology one –> NOT the taking the appendices out bc this violates the patients autonomy not non-maleficence)

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13
Q

4 tenets of medical ethics

A

non-maleficence
respect for autonomy
justice
beneficence (doing good)

Bioethicists often refer to the four basic principles of health care ethics when evaluating the merits and difficulties of medical procedures. Ideally, for a medical practice to be considered “ethical”, it must respect all four of these principles: autonomy, justice, beneficence, and non-maleficence.

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14
Q

what’s the 3rd tent of medical ethics justice mean?

A

The idea that the burdens and benefits of new or experimental treatments must be distributed equally among all groups in
society. Requires that procedures uphold the spirit of existing laws and are fair to all players involved. The health care provider must consider four main areas when evaluating justice: fair distribution of scarce resources, competing needs, rights and obligations, and potential conflicts with established legislation. Reproductive technologies create ethical dilemmas because treatment is not equally available to all people.

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15
Q

which hospital wide policies would address the violation of medical ethics described in the passage

A

justice tenet is being violated

best option is a mandatory training session training towards sensitivity towards different individuals

  • I had chosen the nurse to report doctors but this said - when patients don’t spend enough time with patients nurses would report them –> but has nothing about social class in the answer —> to vague - won’t fix the justice tenet principle

LEARNING: reread the question stem to assure that I am answering EXACTLY what they are asking!!! they will purposely try to trick us into answering another correct option

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16
Q

what determines an individuals culture?

A

the complete representation and interpretation of the things and ideas that they are exposed to and their dictions upon those interpretations

!!! I got this one right! bc I changed it after determining that I had previously chosen and answer choice that DID NOT answer the direct question –> it pays to go over the questions and ensure that im answering the exact question

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17
Q

paternalistic patterns

A

in the health care system paternalistic thinking centres around “ the doctor knows best” and may restrict patients wants in order to better their heath “suggesting to stop smoking”

the def is –> is the interference with the liberty or autonomy of another person, with the intent of promoting good or preventing harm to that person
–> restriction of someones free will (usually subordinates)but is supposedly for there own good

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18
Q

is paternalistic good or bad?

A

According to the dominant view, paternalism is wrong when it interferes with a person’s autonomy. For example, suppose that I throw away your cream cakes because I believe that eating them is bad for your health. This paternalistic action is wrong when it interferes with your autonomous decision to eat cream cakes.

Paternalism is justifiable if someone lacks the capacity to look after his or her interests. … Civil commitment laws for persons considered dangerous to themselves are paternalistic in the sense that they interfere with the liberty or autonomy of such persons for their own good or to prevent harm.

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19
Q

why would the individual to be susceptible to future arguments

A
  • this was wrong bc it was too broad - and I didn’t read the flow chart- the chart said nothing about being more susceptible to future arguments - this was guess work based on peripheral route processing - but even by using this is also not correct
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20
Q

habituation

A

response diminishes with time

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21
Q

which if the following best illustrates dishabituation?

A

a teacher burns out over time, but then reinvigorated by a speech from his boss

  • dishabituation: opposite of habituation- it is the process by which the diminished response to a stimuli due to repeated exposure is reversed ( for example go outside on a jog–> bright light, but over time- habituation (doesn’t seem so bright), but then dishabituation may happen if we grab a coffee inside and then head back out again!)

so a teacher who is burnt out from teaching repetitively, but then reverts back to a motivated state= dishabituation

22
Q

dishabituation vs spontaneous recovery

- They sound like the same thing to me: the reemergence of a response after habituation

A

That’s not what spontaneous recovery is. Spontaneous recovery is a term that belongs to classical conditioning. When you have a conditioned stimulus that leads to a certain conditioned response, like a bell causing salivation, over time the conditioned stimulus might no longer elicit the conditioned response. This is called extinction. Spontaneous recovery refers to the spontaneous restoration of a link between the conditioned stimulus and the conditioned response after extinction has occurred.

Dishabituation is a much more general term which refers to a physiological response increasing in strength after a period of habituation. This can refer to any physiological response or stimulus. For example, let’s say we’re in a dark room studying for the MCAT. Then, to be healthy, we could outside in bright daylight for a jog. The bright daylight is a strong stimulus for our eyes, but over time we will go through habituation, a process by which the magnitude of our physiological response to the stimulus of daylight will go down. Dishabituation is the process by which we would revert to experiencing this physiological stimulus as if it were the first time, experiencing the full magnitude physiological reaction as we did before. In our case of a jog in sunlight, dishabituation might make us more sensitive to sunlight as if we just came out of the dark room again.

23
Q

inclusive fittness

A

related to the number of offspring that can be produced, the ability of an individual organism to pass on its genes to the next generation, taking into account the shared genes passed on by the organism’s close relatives

24
Q

some of Erickson stages

A
  • trust vs mistrust
  • autonomy vs shame
  • initiative vs guilt
  • industry vs inferiority (5-12)
  • identity vs role confusion (12-18)
  • intimacy vs isolation
  • generativitty vs stagnation
  • ego integrity vs despair
25
Q

fidelity (fid-el-ity)

A

faithfulness to a person, cause or belief, demonstraed by continuing loyalty and support “ his fidelity to liberal ideals”

  • sexual faithfulness to spouse or partner
  • or the degree od exactness with which something is copied or reproduced
26
Q

the third group models behaviour off of the behaviour of another individual who received positive feedback in a social situation

A

this is a classical enactment (instance of acting something out) of social cognitive theory

-Social cognitive theory, used in psychology, education, and communication, holds that portions of an individual’s knowledge acquisition can be directly related to observing others within the context of social interactions, experiences, and outside media influences

27
Q

groupthink

A

desire for conformity and harmony in the group even if it means supporting an incorrect decision

28
Q

least likely to describe why airport employees did so?

A

I chose self- actualization theory but it is possible that employees were simply interested in solving problems, helping out there customs or anything else in the heirachy of needs

the correct answer is primary drive reduction bc it is unlikely that employees went through great lengths to fulfill a basic physiological need like hunger, sleep or thirst

29
Q

incentive theory

A

The incentive theory of motivation suggests that people are motivated by a drive for incentives and reinforcement. It also proposes that people behave in a way that they believe will result in a reward and avoid actions that may entail punishment.

30
Q

which theory for emotional response is independent of any physiological response

A
  • Cannon bard bc this theory says that emotional responses are independent responses- they are not a response to the physiologic changes associated with waiting in line
  • stimulating events trigger feelings and physical reactions that occur at the same time
31
Q

James lange

A

physiological leads to emotion

32
Q

schalchter-singer

A

emotional response depends on physiological arousal AND cognitive labeling

33
Q

duplicity theory of vision

A

refers to the retina containing two types of photoreceptors : rods and cones

34
Q

why did I get the salary of Denmark managers wrong

A

bc chose an answer that was too broad- the passage did NOT provide info on the average changes in salary of ALL employers only managers so we cannot conclude that all employers in Denmark provide additional compensation for fans with children

35
Q

a back mutation

A

a second mutation restores the original function of the gene

36
Q

why would a frameshift mutation lead to a deletion of 50 amino acids

A

bc its possible that a stop codon happens when the shit occurs

37
Q

S phase

A

mutations often occur when DNA is replicated- S phase

38
Q

based on the graph what can be determined about the net effect of arterial PO2

A

over thought it

-PO2 remains the same bc ventilation increase as metabolism increases

39
Q

blastula

A

when morula develops a fluid filled cavity, which by the fourth day becomes a hollow sphere of cells called the blastula

40
Q

morula

A

the solid bad of cells after the zygote then turns to blastula

41
Q

is methionine polar?

A

NO

42
Q

what is necrosis?

A

cell death caused by external factors such as infection, toxins or injury

43
Q

unorthodox

A

contrary to what is usual, tradition or accepted

so orthodoxdox means conforming to what is generally accepted, right or true, established or approved, especially religion or political views

44
Q

credence

A

belief or acceptance of something as true

scientist are happy when they gain credence for theirwork

you people have lost your credence in me

45
Q

quad-mire

A

an awkward, complex or hazardous situation

46
Q

why is CaF insoluble in water

A

The main reason is the strength of ionic bond in both these salts.

In CaCl2 the ionic strength is weaker in comparison to CaF2.

Fluorine has the highest electronegativity in the entire periodic table.

Therfore a few water molecules cannot dissolve the bond of calcium fluoride.

In CaCl2 the size of the chlorine anion is larger.

Therefore the bond is dissolved in water.

The ionic strength as well as the bond length are the important factors that decide the solubility of salts.

CaF2 has small bond length while CaCl2 has a larger bond length.

Therefore CaCl2 is more soluble than CaF2.

47
Q

dissolution

A

the process where a solute in gas, liquid or solid phase dissolves in a solvent to form a solution

48
Q

dissolution of O2

A

is exothermic (this was indicated by delta H being negative )

so when 25g of O2 at room temp are addd to water at same temp the temperature change graph should increase, then start to decline back to room temp when the dissolution has happened

49
Q

which carboxylic would be most acidic

A

just read it wrong- there were 2 Cl molecules

LOL slow down- reread

50
Q

how to arrange urea, glucose and lactose in order of increasing melting point

A

use molecular weight - greater weight = greater melting point (need more energy)

urea is smallest then glucose then lactosee

51
Q

how many electrons does the f orbital hold

A

14

max number is equal to 2x (2(l) +1)

actually lets just remember than

s=2
p=6
d=10
f=14