Intro Flashcards

0
Q

PharmacoDynamics?

A

Actions of drug on the body.

PharmacoDynamics: Drug –> body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

Drug definition

A

Any substance acting on a biological system that can bring about a change in biological function through its chemical actions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

PharmacoKinetics?

A

Actions of the body on the drug.

PharmacoKinetics: Katawan –> drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Lightest drug in terms of molecular weight?

A

Lithium. MW 7 .
Used for bipolar disorders.
WOF nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Heaviest drug?

A

Alteplase. MW 50,000.

Thrombolytic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Anticoagulant of choice in pregnancy?

A

Heparin. It cannot cross the placenta because of its large size.
Vs warfarin that can cross placenta baby bleeds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Heparin?

A

A hepe named PiTT with a large belly.
Heparin is large. i: intrinsic factor
MOA: increases antithrombin III. Monitored with PTT.
Antidote: protamine sulfate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Strongest bond

A

Covalent > ionic > hydrophobic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Organophosphate poisoning?

A

Cholinergic toxicity. DUMBELLS
Diarrhea, Urination, Miosis, Bronchocospasm,
Emesis, Lacrimation, Lethargy, Salivation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Antidote to organophosphate poisoning?

A

Pralidoxime but only for the first 6-8 hours. After that covalent bonds can no longer be broken by it.
Atropine may also be used.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Permeation?

A

Movement of drug molecules into and within biological environments.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Components of pharmocoKinetics?

A

ADME

Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, Elimination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Vitamin B12 is bound to?

A

Intrinsic factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Iron is bound to?

A

Transferrin for transport

Ferritin for storage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Fick’s law of diffusion?

A

Absorption is faster through thinner membranes and in areas with larger surface area.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Henderson hasselbalch dissociation of weak acids

A

Protonated acid more lipid soluble, crosses biological membranes easier, unprotonated acid more water soluble, better clearance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Henderson hasselbalch dissociation of weak bases

A

Unprotonated base more lipid soluble, better at crossing biological membranes.
Protonated base more water soluble, better clearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Excretion of a weak acid may be accelerated by?

A

Alkalinizing urine with bicarbonate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Excretion of weak base accelerated by?

A

Acidifying urine with ammonium chloride.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

First pass effect?

A

Drug is metabolized in the gut wall, the liver, and the portal circulation before it reaches the bloodstream.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which quadrant of the buttocks is safest for IM drug administration?

A

Superolateral is safest.

Inferomedial WOF sciatic nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Sublingual route:

A

Lingual vein –> IJV –> brachiocephalic (innominate) vein –> SVC –> RA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Rectal route with first pass

A

If superior rectal vein from IMV –> portal vein, thus first pass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Topical preparations:

A

Acute inflammation –> drying agents

Chronic inflammation –> lubricating agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Absorption

A

Transfer from site of administration to blood stream

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Distribution

A

Leaves blood stream to enter target organ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Drug binding

A

Acidic drugs –> albumin

Basic drugs –> orosomucoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Termination of drug action

A

Excretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Release of drug and metabolites through urine, stool etc

A

Excretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Rate of elimination is proportionate to concentration. Decrease by 50% for every half life decrease. Exponential decrease. Most common type

A

First-order elimination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Rate of elimination is constant regardless of concentration. Decrease is linearly.

A

Zero order elimination

31
Q

Drugs that follow zero order kinetics

A

WHAT PET
Warfarin, Heparin, Aspirin, Tolbutamide, Phenytoin
Ethanol, Theophylline

32
Q

Kd, EC50, Emax

A

Kd concentration required to bind half of the receptors
Emax efficacy
EC50 potency

33
Q

ED50, TD50, LD50

A

ED50 median effective dose
TD50 median toxic dose
LD50 median lethal dose

34
Q

Maximal effect an agonist can produce if the dose is taken to very high levels

A

Efficacy

35
Q

Amount of drug needed to produce a given effect.
Graded dose dose required to produce 50% of the maximal effect.
Quantal dose response ed50 ld50 td50

A

Potency

36
Q

Capable of fully activating the receptor system when bound.

High concentrations result in all receptors being activated

A

Full agonist

37
Q

Produces less than the full effect even when the agonist has saturated all of the receptors.
Acts as an inhibitor when mixed with full agonist.

A

Partial agonist

38
Q

Blocks or dampens drug response in the presence of an agonist

A

Antagonist

39
Q

Binds reversibly, does not activate the effector system.
Shifts curve to the right. Increases ed50 decreased potency.
Can be overcome by adding more agonist

A

Competitive or reversible antagonist

40
Q

Causes downward shift if the curve. Decreased efficacy Emax, same potency.
Not overcome by adding more agonist

A

Non-competitive or irreversible antagonist

41
Q

Binds to a different receptor

Produces an effect opposite to that produced by the drug it is antagonizing.

A

Physiologic antagonist

42
Q

Interacts directly with the drug being antagonized to remove it or to prevent it from binding

A

Chemical antagonist

43
Q

Terazosin vs. norepinephrine

Beta blockers

A

Competitive or reversible antagonist

44
Q

Phenoxybenzamine for pheochromocytoma

A

Non competitive irreversible antagonist

45
Q

Histamine and epinephrine

Propranolol and thyroid hormone

A

Physiologic antagonist

46
Q

Dimercaprol for heavy metal/lead poisoning

Pralidoxime for organophosphate poisoning

A

Chemical antagonist

47
Q

Tachyphylaxis responsiveness diminishes, frequent exposure results in short-term dimunition

A

MED Loves CNN in HD
Metoclopromide, Ephedrine, Dobutamine, LSD,
Calcitonin, Nitroglycerin, Nicotine, Hydralazine, Desmopressin

48
Q

Reversed by depletion of missing substrates

A

Tolerance

49
Q

Idiosyncratic drug responses

A

Chloramphenicol and aplastic anemia

Allopurinol and cataracts

50
Q

Drug eliminated with first-order kinetics, clearance is constant

A

Ratio

Elimination is proportional to concentration

51
Q

Drugs eliminated with zero order kinetics clearance is constant

A

Amount.

52
Q

Bioavailability is fraction of administered dose reaching systemic circulation.

A

It is determined by computing the area under the plasma concentration curve.

53
Q

Maintenance dose computation

A

The Vd or volume of distribution is not in voiced in calculating for maintenance dose

54
Q

Loading dose computation

A

Does not include clearance

55
Q

Phase 1 reactions convert the parent drug to a more water-soluble polar product.examples are

A

HORD of phase 1

Hydrolysis, Oxidation, Reduction, Deamination

56
Q

75% of drugs are metabolized by

A

CYP3A4 and CYP2D6

57
Q

Enzyme induction

A

Increased synthesis of cyp450 enzymes and heme. Higher amount of the drug needed due to increased metabolism, excretion.

58
Q

Enzyme inducers

A

ETHYL Booba takes PHEN and RIFuses GRISy CARB Shakes

Ethanol, Barbiturates, PHENytoin, RIFampicin, GRISeofulvin, St. John’s Wort/Smoking

59
Q

Most potent enzyme inducers

A

Carbamazepine phenobarbital phenytoin RIFampicin

60
Q

Enzyme inhibition

A

Lower doses of a drug are needed, drug stays in the system longer, reduction in blood flow to metabolizing organ

61
Q

Suicide inhibitor

A

Metabolized to products that irreversibly inhibit the metabolizing enzyme.

62
Q

Suicide inhibitors

A

Ethinyl estradiol, spirinolactone, allopurinol, PTU

63
Q

Enzyme inhibitors

A

Inhibitors Stop CIber KEds from Eating GRApefruit Q

Isoniazid, Sulfonamide, Cimitedine, Ketoconazole, Erythromycin, Grapefruit juice, Ritonavir, Amiodarone, Quinidine

64
Q

Category A

A

Human studies display no risk to fetus.

65
Q

Animal studies do not show risk, but no human studies have been conducted. Or risk in animal studies but none displayed in human studies

A

Category B

66
Q

Category C

A

Animal studies have shown adverse effects, no human studies done. Potential benefit justifies risk to fetus

67
Q

Category D

A

Evidence if human fetal risk, but potential benefits justifies risks

68
Q

Category x

A

Fetal adverse effects demonstrated, risk of fetal effects outweighs any benefit of drug. Absolute contraindications.

69
Q

DES

A

Vaginal clear cell adenoCA

70
Q

Misoprostol as teratogenic

A

Möbius sequence

71
Q

Thalidomide

A

Phocomelia

72
Q

Tetracycline

A

Tooth discoloration

73
Q

Lithium

A

Atrialization of right ventricle. Ebstein’s anomaly.

74
Q

Standard in vitro test for mutagenicity

A

Ames test

75
Q

Carcinogens

A

Coal tar, aflatoxin, nitrosamines, urethane, vinyl chloride, polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons in cigarette