Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

PANCE prep JQ > InternalMed EOR > Flashcards

InternalMed EOR Flashcards

1
Q

Angina pectoris usually last how long?

A

<30minutes

Typically 1-5minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Pharmacological agents used in stress test are?

A

Adenosine and dipyridamole (vasodilator healthy but not diseased vessels)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the pharmacological agent used in stress echocardiogram and cardiac MRI?

A

Dobutamine (positive ionitrope and chronotrope)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Contraindications for nitrate use are:

A

<90mmHg SBP, RV infarction, PDE-5 inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

1st line medication for chronic angina management

A

Beta blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Treatment of choice for prinzmetals angina

A

Nondihydropyridine CCBs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

This medication irreversible inhibits a COX enzyme to decrease thromboxane A2

A

Aspirin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

1st line therapy for unstable Bradycardia

A

Atropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Treatment of unstable tachycardia

A

Synchronized cardioversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Tx for stable wide QRS tachycardia

A

Amiodarone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Tx for stable normal QRS tachycardia

A

Vagal maneuvers and adenosine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Left axis deviation

A

Positive lead I and negative aVF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Right axis deviation

A

Negative lead I and positive lead aVF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Left atrial enlargement

A

M shaped p wave in lead II and p wave in V1 more negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Right atrial enlargement

A

Tall p wave in lead II and p wave in V1 more positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

LBBB

A

1 wide QRS
2 slurred R in V5&V6
3 deep S in V1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

RBBB

A

1 wide QRS
2 bunny ears in V1&V2
3 wide S in V6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

RV Hypertrophy

A

R>S in V1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

LV Hypertrophy

A

S in V1 + R in V5 are >35mm in men or 30mm in women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

ST elevations in leads V1-V4 indicate

A

Anterior infarction-LAD blockage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

ST elevations in leads V1-V2 indicate

A

Septal infarction-proximal LAD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

ST elevations in leads V5-V4, I, aVL indicate

A

Lateral wall infarction-CFX blockage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

ST elevations in leads V4-6, I, aVL indicate

A

Anterolateral infarction-mid LAD or CFX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

ST elevations in leads II, III, aVF indicate

A

Inferior wall infarction-RCA blockage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

ST DEPRESSION in leads V1-V2 indicate

A

Posterior wall infarction-RCA, CFX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Describe sinus arrhythmia

A

HE increases during inspiration and decreases on expiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Treatment for SSS

A

Pacemaker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Tx for a flutter

A

BB or CCB

DEFINITIVE: ablation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

3 layers of afib tx

A
  1. rate control (BB, CCB, dig)
  2. rhythm control( cardioversion, meds, ablation)
  3. anticoagulants
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

INR goal in afib

A

2-3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

WPW syndrome is caused by this accessory pathway

A

Bundle of Kent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Delta waves

A

WPW syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Most common cause of torsades

A

Hypomagnesemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

This syndrome, most common in Asian males, can cause sudden cardiac death

A

Brugada

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Dressler’s syndrome

A

Post-MI pericarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Transient ST elevations, non-exertional CP most common in the morning, treated with CCBs=

A

Prinzmetals/variant angina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

When is a ICD indicated in HFrEF?

A

EF<35%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Tx for Dressler’s syndrome

A

Asa and colchicine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Tx for pericarditis

A
  1. NSAIDs
  2. Colchicine
  3. Steroids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Beck’s triad for pericardial tamponade

A

Muffled heart sounds, increased JVP, hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

MC cause of myocarditis

A

Viral infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Myocarditis presents like this disease:

A

Heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Definitive dx for myocarditis

A

Endomyocardial bx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Most common type of cardiomyopathy

A

Dilated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Broken heart syndrome is also known as

A

Takotsubo cardiomyopathy or apical left ventricular ballooning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Broken heart syndrome is caused by a

A

Catecholamine surge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

MC cause of restrictive cardiomyopathy

A

Amyloidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Restrictive cardiomyopathy echocardiogram shows these 3 things

A
  1. Non dilated ventricles with thick walls
  2. Dilation of both atria
  3. Diastolic dysfunction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

First line therapy for HCM

A

BB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

AS murmur

A

Systolic ejection crescendo-decresendo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

AR murmur

A

Diastolic blowing decresendo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

MS murmur

A

Opening snap with early-mid diastolic rumble

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

MR murmur

A

Blowing holosystolic murmur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

MVP murmur

A

Mid-late systolic ejection click

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Rheumatic fever

A

Migratory polyarthritis, active carditis, and erythema marginatum caused by group A beta hemolytic strep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

PAD ABI value

A

<0.90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

When is AAA repair indicated?

A

> 5.5 cm or >0.5cm expansion in 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

1st line therapy for aortic dissection

A

Esmolol and labetalol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Virchow’s triad for PVD

A

Intimate damage, stasis, hypercoagulability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Samter’s triad

A

Asthma, nasal polyps, ASA/NSAIDs allergy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Elevated immunoglobulin in asthma

A

IgE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Asthma classification

A

Intermittent: <2d/wk and <2n/m
Mild persistent: >2d/wk and 3-4n/m
Mod persistent: daily and at least 1 night a week
Severe persistent: throughout the day and nightly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Noncaseating nonnecrotizing granulomas and bilateral hilar LAD

A

Sarcoidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Skin manifestations of sarcoidosis

A

Erythema Nodosum, lupus perino, maculopapular rash, parotid enlargement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Pulmonary nodule v mass

A

3cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Signs that a pulmonary nodule is benign

A

Round, smooth, slow growth, calcified, cavitary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Signs a pulmonary nodule is malignant

A

Irregular/speculated boarders, rapid growth, cavitary with thickened walls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Most common lung cancer. Associated with gynecomastia.

A

Adenocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Lung Adenocarcinoma location

A

Peripheral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Squamous cell lung cancer location

A

Centrally located

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Very aggressive lung cancer

A

Large cell/anaplastic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Lung cancer that metastasizes early. Associate with Cushing syndrome, SIADH, SVC compression, and Eaton-Lambert syndrome.

A

Small cell/oat cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Lung cancer associated with hypercalcemia

A

Squamous cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Small cell tx of choice

A

Chemo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Non-small cell lung cancer treatment of choice

A

Surgical resection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Diagnostic mean pulmonary arterial pressure for pulmonary hypertension

A

> 25mmHg (via R heart cath)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Idiopathic pulmonary htn is most common in this population

A

Mild-aged or young women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

MC cause of CAP

A

Strep pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

2nd MC cause of CAP

A

H flu

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

MC cause of atypical pneumonia

A

Mycoplasm pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Currant jelly sputum

A

Klebsiella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Outpt CAP treatment

A

Macrolides or doxy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Inpt CAP tx

A

Beta lactam with macrolides or FQ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is Zenker’s diverticulum? Associated symptoms? Initial test?

A

Poutch at back of throat that food may get lodged in. Pt will complain of bad breath and coughing up food from days ago. Barium swallow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What population MC has lupus?

A

Young 20-40yo females of African American, Hispanic or Native American descent

86
Q

Clinical manifestation of lupus

A

Joint pain, fever, malar rash

87
Q

Medications that cause lupus

A

Hydralazine, INH, procainamide, and quinidine

88
Q

How does antiphospolipid syndrome present?

A

Arterial and/or venous thrombosis and frequent miscarriages

89
Q

Labs for lupus

A

Positive ANA, anti-dsDNA, and anti-smith

90
Q

Labs for drug induced lupus

A

Anti-histone ABs

91
Q

Tx for lupus associated skin lesions

A

Hydrocychloroquine

92
Q

CREST syndrome

A

MC type of scleroderma

Calcinosis cutis, raynauds, esophagus motility disorder, sclerodactyly, telangiectasia

93
Q

Raynauds treatment

A

CCBs or postacyclin

94
Q

Scleroderma labs

A

Anti-centromere AB, ANA positive, and if diffuse dz anti-scl70

95
Q

Autoimmune attack of exerocrine glands causing xerosis, dry eyes, and parotid enlargement

A

Sjögren’s syndrome

96
Q

Increased risk associated with Sjögrens

A

Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
Interstitial nephritis
Pneumonitis

97
Q

Specialized test and labs for Sjögrens

A

Schirmer test
RF
AntiSS-a(Ro)
AntiSS-b(La)

98
Q

Medications for Sjögrens

A

Pilocarpine-cholinergic

Cevimeline-stimulates muscarinic cholinergic receptors

99
Q

What substance associated with pain perception is elevation in people with fibromyalgia?

A

Substance P

100
Q

What will a muscle biopsy in pts with fibromyalgia look like?

A

“Moth eaten” appearance due to type I muscle fiber damage

101
Q

Fibromyalgia management

A

Swimming’s
Antidepressants
Gabapentin\pregabalin

102
Q

Polymyalgia rheumatica presentation

A

Bilateral proximal joint PAIN and STIFFNESS due to synovitis/bursitis/tenosynovitis

103
Q

What disease is polymyalgia rheumatica associated with?

A

Giant cell arteritis

104
Q

Polymyalgia rheumatica labs

A

Elevated ESR, normochromic normocytic anemia, elevated platelets

105
Q

Tx for polymyalgia rheumatica

A

Low dose corticosteroids (10-20mg/day)

106
Q

Polymyositis presentation

A

Progressive symmetrical muscle WEAKNESS, usually painless

107
Q

Dermatomyositis presentation

A

Polymyositis with heliotrope rash, gotton’s papules, malar rash that does not spare nasolabial folds, shawl sign/photosensitivity

108
Q

Why is dermatomyositis scarier than polymyositis?

A

Increase incidence of occult malignancy

109
Q

Labs for polymyositis and dermatomyositis

A

Elevated aldolase and CK
Anti-Jo 1 Ab
Anti-SRP Ab
Anti-Mi2 Ab(specific for dermatomyositis)

110
Q

Tx for polymyositis and dermatomyositis

A

High dose corticosteroids are 1st line

111
Q

Podagra

A

Gout in first MTP

112
Q

Compare radiographs in advanced gout to advanced psuedogout

A

Gout radiograph will show “rat bite” erosions of bone

Psuedogout will show chondrocalcinosis

113
Q

Rhematoid arthritis presentation

A

Soft warm boggy tender joint pain starting distally but skipping DIP. Worse in the morning for >1hr and improves throughout the day.

114
Q

Labs for rheumatoid arthritis

A

RF

Anti-CCP

115
Q

1st line therapy for RA

A

Methotrexate

116
Q

Methotrexate SE

A 
Hepatotoxic 
Stomatitis
Leukopenia
Bone marrow suppression 
Interstitial pnemonitis
117
Q

Hydrocychloroquine toxicity

A

Retinal toxicity (fundoscopy q6-12m)

118
Q

T cell mediated inflammation and joint destruction

A

RA

119
Q

Systemic vasculitis of medium/small arteries leading to renal HTN and necrotizing inflammatory lesions

A

Polyarteritis nodosa(PAN)

120
Q

PAN is associated with these 2 things

A

Hepatitis B and microaneurysms

121
Q

PAN labs

A

ANCA negative

Elevated ESR

122
Q

Tx for PAN

A

Corticosteroids

123
Q

Can’t see, can’t pee, can’t climb a tree

A

Reactive/Reiter’s arthritis

124
Q

Reactive arthritis most commonly presents after this infection

A

Chlamydia

125
Q

Hyper keratitis lesions on palms and soles associated with reactive arthritis

A

Keratoderma blennorrhagicum

126
Q

HLA-B27 associated seronegative spondyloartgropathies

A

Psoriatic arthritis
Enteropathic arthritis(IBD)
Ankylosis spondylitis
Reactive arthritis

127
Q

Describe a Mallory-Weiss tear

A

Longitudinal mucosal laceration from persistent fetching/vomiting after ETOH binge

128
Q

Plummer-Vinson syndrome

A

Dysphasia, esophageal webs, and iron deficiency anemia

129
Q

Schatzki rings (lower esophageal webs and constructions) are MC associated with this disorder

A

Sliding hiatal hernia

130
Q

Treatment for esophageal varices

A

Endoscopic ligation

Pharm:octreotide

131
Q

Prevention of esophageal varice rupture

A

Nonselective BB (propranolol or nadolol)

Isosorbide mononitrate if pt intolerant to BB therapy

132
Q

Most common cause of fulminant hepatitis

A

Acetaminophen

133
Q

Reyes syndrome

A

Fulminant hepatitis in children seen with asa use during viral infection

134
Q

Which rival hepatitis become chronic?

A

HBV 10%

HCV 80%

135
Q

Hep A transmission

A

Fecal oral

136
Q

Hep E transmission and biggest concern

A

Fecal oral

Risk of fulminant hepatitis with high mortality in pregnancy

137
Q

Hep C transmission

A

Parenteral

138
Q

Hep B transmission

A

Parenteral, sexual, perinatal, and percutaneous

*beware the asymptotic carrier

139
Q

Blood marker associated with hepatocellular carcinoma

A

Alpha fetoprotein

140
Q

Treatment options for hepatic encephalopathy

A

Lactulose, rifiximin, neomycin

141
Q

Primary biliary cirrhosis population

A

MC in middle aged women

142
Q

Primary biliary cirrhosis labs

A

Elevated ALP and GGT with anti-mitochondrial Ab**

143
Q

Autoimmune destruction of intrahepatic small bile ducts

A

Primary biliary cirrhosis

144
Q

Primary biliary cirrhosis tx

A

URSODECUCHOLIC ACID

Cholestyramine and UV light for pruritis

145
Q

Autoimmune diffuse fibrosis of intrahepatic and extrahepatic ducts

A

Primary sclerosis cholangitis

146
Q

Primary sclerosis cholangitis labs

A

ALP 3-5xnormal, with elevated GGT and P-ANCA positive

ERCP is gold standard for dx

147
Q

Primary sclerosis cholangitis population and associated dz

A

MC in men 20-40 with ulcerative colitis

148
Q

Wilson’s disease labs

A

Decreased ceruloplasm and elevated urinary copper excretion

149
Q

Wilson’s dz tx

A

D-pencillamine

150
Q

MC cause of esophagitis

A

GERD

151
Q

Endoscopic finding in eosinophillic esophagitis

A

Multiple corrugated rings

152
Q

Tx for eosinophilic esophagitis

A

Swallow inhaled corticosteroids

153
Q

MC causes (7) of pill induced esophagitis

A

NSAIDs, bisphosphonates, KCl, Fe pills, vit C pills, BB, and CCBs

154
Q

Endoscopic finding for pill induced esophagitis

A

Small well-defined ulcers of varying depths

155
Q

4 complications of GERD

A

Esophagitis
Strictures
Barrett’s esophagus
Esophageal adenocarcinoma

156
Q

Histologic finding with Barrett’s esophagus

A

Squamous cells replaced by columnar

157
Q

What is pyrosis?

A

Heart burn

158
Q

Gold standard for dx of GERD

A

24hr ambulatory pH monitoring

*although dx is usually clinical and EGD is usual test of choice for r/o complications

159
Q

MC esophageal cancer worldwide, associated with tobacco/ETOH, and usually in upper 1/3 of esophagus

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

160
Q

MC esophageal cancer in the US, seen in younger pts, obese, caucasians, associated with GERD, can lead to Barrett’s esophagus, is lower 1/3 esophagus

A

Adenocarcinoma

161
Q

What are the 3 MC causes of gastritis?

A

H pylori
NSAIDs/asa
Acute stress

162
Q

H pylori tx

A

Clarithromycin, Amoxicillin, PPI

OR

PPI, bismuth, tetracycline, metronidazole

163
Q

How to you differentiate a gastric ulcer from a duodenal ulcer with history?

A

Gastric: pain worse with meals for 1-2hr

Duodenal:pain better with meals but worse 2-5hr afterwards

164
Q

Gastric secreting neuroendocrine tumor

A

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

165
Q

Dx of zollinger-Ellison syndrome

A

Elevated fasting gastrin level above 1000

Secretin test stimulates gastrin release

166
Q

MC gastric cancer type

A

Adenocarcinoma

167
Q

Risk factors for gastric carcinoma

A

H pylori(most important), salted/cured/smoked/pickled foods containing nitrates/nitrites

168
Q

Virchows node

A

Supraclavicular LAD

169
Q

Sister Mary Joseph’s node

A

Umbilical LAD

170
Q

Clinical presentation of gastric carcinoma

A

Dyspepsia, weight loss, early satiety, iron deficiency anemia

171
Q

Black gallstones are caused by

A

Hemolysis or ETOH cirrhosis

172
Q

Brown gallstones are caused by

A

Parasites or bacteria

*more common in Asians

173
Q

Gallstones in the gallbladder without inflammation

A

Cholelithiasis

174
Q

Gallstones in the common bile duct

A

Choledocholithiasis

175
Q

Biliary tract infection secondary to obstruction

A

Acute cholangitis

176
Q

Cystic duct obstruction with gallbladder inflammation

A

Acute cholecystitis

177
Q

Abx for acute cholangitis

A

Ceftriaxone or fluoroquinolone with metronidazole

178
Q

MC 2 causes of acute pancreatitis

A

Gallstones or ETOH

179
Q

Labs for acute pancreatitis

A

Elevated lipase
Amylase 3x ULN
AST 3x increase
Hypocalcemia

180
Q

Tx of acute pancreatitis

A

NPO, IV fluids and supportive care

Generally abx not required

181
Q

Chronic pancreatitis MC etiology

A

ETOH abuse

182
Q

Chronic pancreatitis clinical manifestation triad

A

Calcifications
Steatorrhea
DM

183
Q

Chronic pancreatitis dx

A

Calcification on imaging(CT test of choice)

Amylase and lipase usually normal

184
Q

MC type of pancreatic carcinoma

A

Ductal adenocarcinoma in head of pancreas

185
Q

Radical pancreaticoduodenal resection

A

Whipple procedure

186
Q

Dermatitis herpatiformis

A

Specific for celiac dz

187
Q

Dx of celiacs

A

Endomysial IgA Ab

Transglutaminase Ab

Bx is difinitive dx

188
Q

Diverticular dz is most common in what part of the GI tract?

A

Sigmoid

189
Q

Tx for diverticulitis

A

Clear liquid diet

Metronidazole with cipro or bactrim

190
Q

Abd pain with altered bowel habits at least 1 day/week in the last 3 months

A

IBS

191
Q

Uniform inflammation of rectum and colon mucosa and submucosa

A

Ulcerative colitis

192
Q

Clinical manifestation of UC

A

Tenesmus, fecal urgency, bloody diarrhea

193
Q

Transmural mouth to anus inflammation with skip lesions and cobblestone appearance

A

Crohn disease

194
Q

Complications of UC

A

PSC, colon cancer, toxic megacolon

195
Q

Complications of CD

A

Perinatal dz, Fe&b12 malabsorption

196
Q

Extragastrointestinal manifestations of UC and CD

A

ARTHRITIS, episcleritis, uveitis, erythema nodosum, pyoderma gangrenosum

197
Q

4 layers of tx for IBD

A
  1. aminosalicylic acids( oral mesalamine best for maintenance, topical mesalamine for anal/rectal dz, sulfasalazine for UC)
  2. corticostetoids for flares
  3. immune modifying/steroid sparing meds(6MU, azathioprine, Methotrexate)
  4. Anti-TNF agents
198
Q

Elevated CEA

A

Colon cancer

199
Q

Elevated CA 19-9

A

Pancreatic cancer

200
Q

Colon cancer tx

A

Chemotherapy with 5FU

201
Q

Anal fissures are most common where?

A

Posterior midline

202
Q

Anal fissure tx

A

Usually supportive (>80%) resolve spontaneously

2nd line topical vasodilators (nitro or nifedipine)

203
Q

MC cause of gastroenteritis in N America

A

Notovirus

204
Q

Travelers diarrhea is caused by

A

Enterotoxigenic E. coli

205
Q

Diarrhea w/i 6hr of eating dairy products, Mayo, meats or eggs is likely caused by

A

Staph aureus

206
Q

Tx for c diff

A

Oral vanco or flagyl

207
Q

Tx of choice for colon cancer

A

Surgical resection

Neither chemo(5FU) or radiation have been shown to be effective

208
Q

Hepatocellular pattern on labs

A

Elevated ALT and AST

AST associated with ETOH

209
Q

Cholestatic pattern on labs

A

Elevated total bili, Alk Phos, and GGT

210
Q

Cirrhotic pattern on labs

A

Low albumin, high PR/INR, elevated bili, normal or elevated ALT/AST

211
Q

Hemolytic pattern on labs

A

Elevated unconjugated/indirect bilirubin, AST, and ALT

PANCE prep JQ (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions