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PANCE prep JQ > Gyn Acronyms > Flashcards

Gyn Acronyms Flashcards

1
Q

VB

A

Vaginal bleeding

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2
Q

LOF

A

Leakage of fluid

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3
Q

IOL

A

Induction of labor

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4
Q

FM

A

Fetal movement

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5
Q

CTX

A

Contractions

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6
Q

FKCs

A

Fetal kick counts

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7
Q

GBS

A

Groups B strep, swab at 35wks

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8
Q

GTT

A

3hr glucose tolerance test

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9
Q

EFW

A

Estimated fetal weight

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10
Q

NST

A

No stress test-fetal HR test

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11
Q

BPP

A

Biophysical profile

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12
Q

RCS

A

Repeat c-section

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13
Q

TOLAC

A

Trial of labor after c-section

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14
Q

R/B/A

A

Risk, benefits, alternative

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15
Q

ECV

A

External cephalon version (attempt to turn breech baby)

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16
Q

PET

A

PreEclampsia

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17
Q

EDD

A

Estimated delivery date

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18
Q

PNV

A

Prenatal vitamin

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19
Q

ROM

A

Rupture of membranes

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20
Q

OBT

A

OB triage

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21
Q

ROL

A

Rule out labor

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22
Q

VBAC

A

Vaginal birth after c-section

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23
Q

NSVD

A

Natural spontaneous vaginal delivery

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24
Q

PIH

A

Pregnancy induced hypertension

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25
Q

UPT

A

Urine pregnancy test

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26
Q

SAB

A

Spontaneous abortion

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27
Q

PTL

A

Preterm labor

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28
Q

HROB

A

High risk pregnancy

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29
Q

MFM

A

Maternal fetal medicine

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30
Q

GDM

A

Gestational diabetes

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31
Q

AMA

A

Advanced maternal age (>35)

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32
Q

BSUS

A

Bedside ultrasound

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33
Q

BTO

A

Bilateral tubal occlusion

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34
Q

IUP

A

Intrauterine pregnancy

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35
Q

FHT

A

Fetal heart tones

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36
Q

YA

A

Yolk sac

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37
Q

GS

A

Gestational sac

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38
Q

CRL

A

Crown rump length

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39
Q

AGUS

A

Atypical glandular cells of unk significance

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40
Q

AFI

A

Amniotic fluid index

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41
Q

AROM

A

Artificial rupture of membranes

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42
Q

ASCUS

A

Atypical squamous cells of unk significance

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43
Q

BSO

A

Bilateral salpingo-oopherectomy

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44
Q

BTL

A

Bilateral tubal ligation

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45
Q

CIN

A

Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia

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46
Q

EMB

A

Endometrial biopsy

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47
Q

GTD

A

Gestational trophoblastic dz

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48
Q

HELLP

A

Hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, low platelets

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49
Q

HGSIL

A

High-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion

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50
Q

HSG

A

Hysterosalingogram

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51
Q

IUFD

A

Intrauterine fetal death

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52
Q

IUP

A

Intrauterine pregnancy

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53
Q

LEEP

A

Loop electrical excision procedure

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54
Q

LGA

A

Large for gestational age

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55
Q

LGSIL

A

Low grade squamous epithelial lesion

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56
Q

MFM

A

Maternal fetal medicine

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57
Q

MVU

A

Montevideo units

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58
Q

PMB

A

Post menopausal bleeding

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59
Q

PTL

A

Preterm labor

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60
Q

SBE

A

Self breast exam

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61
Q

SGA

A

Small for gestational age

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62
Q

SROM

A

Spontaneous rupture of membranes

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63
Q

TAH

A

Total abdominal hysterectomy

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64
Q

TOA

A

Turbo-ovarian Abcess

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65
Q

TOL

A

Trial of labor

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66
Q

TVH

A

Total vaginal hysterectomy

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67
Q

VAVD

A

Vacuum assisted vaginal delivery

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68
Q

VB

A

Vaginal bleeding

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69
Q

VAIN

A

Vaginal intraepithelial neoplasm

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70
Q

VIN

A

Vulvar intraepithelial neoplasm

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71
Q

Most effective forms of contraception

A

IUD
Implanon
Sterilization

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72
Q

Moderately effective (9-6 in 100) contraception

A

Depo shot
Nuvaring
OCP
The patch

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73
Q

Benefit of Monophasic birth control

A

Good at regulating cycle

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74
Q

Benefit of triphasic birth control pill

A

Mimics normal hormones

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75
Q

Benefit of continuous birth control pills

A

Tx dysmenorrhea and anemia

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76
Q

Use birth control with caution in these patients

A

DM, HTN, smoking under age 35, common migraines, liver dz

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77
Q

Birth control contraindicated in these pts

A

Uncontrolled DM or htn, CAD, complex migraine, hx thromboembolism, hormone sensitive ca, smoking over age 35

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78
Q

Contraindications to estrogen

A

Postpartum period, lactation, bx of thromboembolism, bx of CAD, smoking >35yo, classic migraines, liver dysfunction

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79
Q

Additional contraception is needed after starting birth control for how long

A

5-7 days for most

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80
Q

Black box warning for depo shot

A

Loss of bone mineral density

*but they regain back all bone density after dc’ing med. Also women lose more bone density breast feeding than on depo

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81
Q

XO karyotype leads to

A

Ovarian dysgenesis/turner’s syndrome

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82
Q

Important genes on Y chromosome

A

SRY-sex determining region of Y makes TDF

TDF- testis determine factor which promotes testis defferentiation

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83
Q

Important hormones in embryonic male sex differentiation

A

Tested are composed of sterilized and leading cells

Sertoli cells secret anti mullerian hormone which degenerates mullerian ducts

Leydig cells secret testosterone which transforms wolffish ducts to make reproductive tract and is converted to dihydrotestosterone which promotes develop emend I’d make external genitalia

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84
Q

Granulosa cells produce

A

Estradiol stimulates by FSH

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85
Q

Thecal cells secrete

A

Androgens and progesterone

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86
Q

21-hydroxylase deficiency leads to

A

Genital ambiguity and adrenal insufficiency

This enzyme is required to synthesize aldosterone and cortisol

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87
Q

5a-reductase deficiency causes

A

Testes, male internal genitalia, female external genitalia

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88
Q

Complete androgen insensitivity leads to ___________ and is treated by __________

A

Testes, No internal reproductive tract and female phenotype

Gonadectomy and estrogen therapy

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89
Q

When should puberty begin for girls?

A

8-13yo

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90
Q

First sign of female puberty

A

Thelarche-breast development

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91
Q

Female athlete triad

A

Osteoporosis
Disordered eating
Amenorrhea

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92
Q

The average menstrual cycle duration

A

24-38 days

3-8days of menses

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93
Q

Define primary amenorrhea

A

Absence of menses by age 15 in presence of normal secondary sexual characteristics or 13 without secondary sexual characteristics

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94
Q

MC cause of primary amenorrhea

A

Gonadal dysgenesis/primary ovarian insufficiency

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95
Q

Kallman’s syndrome

A

Congenital absence if GnRH

Abdominal and lack of pubertal development

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96
Q

Swyer syndrome

A

Mutation of SRY gene leads to infertile XY female

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97
Q

General order of female sexual development

A

Boobs, pubes, grow, flow

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98
Q

MC cause of secondary amenorrhea

A

PREGNANCY

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99
Q

Risk factors for Asherman’s Syndrome

A

Postpartum hemorrhage

Endometrial infection

D&C or other instrumentation

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100
Q

Structural and PCOS causes of AUB are most common in

A

Reproductive age women

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101
Q

Anovulatory bleeding is most common

A

At the extremes of age (puberty and menopause)

*also consider endometrial hyperplasia and cancer is menopausal women

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102
Q

When to get an EMB

A

Postmenopausal: any with bleeding

45-menopause: heavy, frequent, or prolonged ovulatory AUB

<45: AUB that is persistent, accompanied by risk factors for unopposed estrogen or failed medical therapy

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103
Q

When does primary dysmenorrhea pain occur?

A

Just before or just after onset of mensuration and last 12-72 hr

*caused by prostaglandins released when endometrial tissue lysis

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104
Q

Tx for primary dysmenorrhea

A 
Heat
Lower abdominal message
Exercise/yoga
NSAIDs 
Hormonal Contraceptives
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105
Q

What age group do we commonly see primary dysmenorrhea?

A

14-22/young women

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106
Q

What age group do we commonly see secondary dysmenorrhea?

A

30-40

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107
Q

PMS and PMDD sx occur when?

A

Before menses/luteal phase

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108
Q

Lifestyle/supplements for PMS/PMDD

A

Exercise/yoga

Calcium and magnesium
Decrease salt, caffeine, and alcohol

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109
Q

First line medical therapy for PMDD

A

SSRI

110
Q

FSH level that indicates menopause

A

> 30mIU/ml

111
Q

When do maternal hCG LEvels peak?

A

9-12wk gestation

112
Q

Causes of abn hCG levels

A

Hydatidiform mole: rises more slowly but continues after 10wk

Ectopic: rises slower than normal

Fetal death: fall with a half life of 24hrs

113
Q

Why does uterus become more excitable/Braxton-Hicks occur in 3rd trimester?

A

Decreased inhibition from progesterone

114
Q

Fetus releases this hormone to develops lungs and trigger the beginning of labor

A

Cortisol

115
Q

How does prolactin prevent ovulation?

A

Inhibits GnRH release

Inhibits GnRH action on pituitary

Antagonizes LH and FSH at ovary

116
Q

NT scan occurs at

A

11-13wk

117
Q

AFP scan occurs at

A

16-27wk

118
Q

US anatomy scan occurs at

A

20wk

119
Q

GCT and Rh test occurs at

A

24-28wks

120
Q

GBS pregnancy screen occurs at

A

35-36wks

121
Q

DOC induced labor

A

Oxytocin/pitocin

122
Q

Live vaccines that are contraindicated is pregnancy

A

MMR and varicella

123
Q

When TDap given during pregnancy?

A

32-34 wk

124
Q

Chadwick’s sign

A

Blue to purple tint of vaginal walls indicating pregnancy

125
Q

Hegar’s sign

A

Palpable softening of isthmus indicating pregnancy

126
Q

Food to avoid in pregnancy

A

Seafood-high in mercury
Raw meat/eggs-infection risk
Deli meat/hot dogs/unpasteurized milk-listeriosis
Caffeine->200mg linked to miscarriage

127
Q

How much weight should a normal weight woman gain during pregnancy?

A

25-35lb

128
Q

First trimester

A

1-12wks

129
Q

Second trimester

A

13-26wk

130
Q

3rd trimester

A

27-40wks

131
Q

When does “quickening” occur?

A

18-20wk

132
Q

3rd trimester Fetal kick counts should be?

A

10 kicks/rolls/flutters within 2hrs

133
Q

Uterine fundus should be to pubic symphysis by…

A

12wk

134
Q

Uterine fundus should be to umbilicus by…

A

20wks

135
Q

What is lightening and when does it occur?

A

Fetus dropping into the pelvis making it easier to breath suddenly

Occurs after 36-38wks

136
Q

How do you interpret 1hr GCT?

A

<140 pass
>140 reflex to 3hr test
>200 automatic fail

137
Q

How do you interpret a 3hr GCT?

A 
Normal values
Fasting <95
1hr <180
2hr<155
3hr<140

*2 abn values is a fail and any value >200 is a fail

138
Q

Describe a reactive(reassuring) NST

A

Minimum of 2 FHR acceleration by 15bpm for at least 15seconds

139
Q

Elements of a BPP

A

Fetal movement
Fetal muscle tone
Fetal breath movements
AFI

(NST)

140
Q

3 tests for rupture of membranes

A

Fern testing
Amniosure
Nitrazine

141
Q

Adequate labor

A

3-5 contractions in 10min averaged over 30min

*200MVu

142
Q

Macro sonic infant is ________grams

A

> 4,500

143
Q

Signs of true labor

A

Regular intervals and increasing intensity

Cervical dilation

Back pain

Not altered by analgesia

144
Q

Normal fetal HR

A

110-160bpm, highly variable with periodic changes

145
Q

Aspects of APGAR score

A 
Activity/muscle tone
Pulse
Grimace/reflex irritability
Appearance-skin color
Respirations
146
Q

Immunoglobulin in breast milk

A

IgA

147
Q

C/I to breastfeeding

A 
Alcohol/drug abuse
HIV
TB
Ongoing Chemo
Herpatic breast lesion
Infant galactosemia
148
Q

Physiologic jaundice

A

Presents after 24hr of life

149
Q

Pathological jaundice

A

Presents in first 24hrs or after 2wks

150
Q

When does anterior fontanelle close?

A

Between 7-19months

151
Q

When does posterior fontanelle close?

A

By 2months

152
Q

Infant should be able to fixate on objects by

A

1 month

153
Q

Frenulum

A

Connection under tongue

154
Q

Omphalitis

A

Infection of umbilical cord stump

155
Q

Most umbilical hernias resolve by

A

1yr

156
Q

Syndactyly

A

Webbed fingers

157
Q

Polydactyly

A

Extra digits

158
Q

Rooting reflex is present during this time

A

3-4months

159
Q

Palmar grasp reflex is present during this time

A

4-6months

160
Q

Define SAB

A

Spontaneous abortion/miscarriage

Loss occurs prior to 20wks

MC complication of pregnancy

161
Q

Complete v. Incomplete abortion

A

Based on passage or retention of POC

162
Q

Define threatened abortion

A

Closer cervical os

Bleeding during pregnancy

163
Q

Define inevitable abortion

A

Open cervical os and bleeding

164
Q

Define missed abortion

A

Absent heart tones

Cervix closed and no bleeding

165
Q

Define recurrent abortion

A

> 2 consecutive losses prior to 20wks

166
Q

MC site of ectopic pregnancy

A

Fallopian tubes

167
Q

When will ectopics in the Fallopian tubes rupture?

A

6-8wk in isthmic

8-12wk in ampulla

168
Q

Progesterone level in early pregnancy

A

<5ng is abnormal/poss. Ectopic

>20ng is normal

169
Q

Double ring and fetal pole should be seen on TVUS by this time?

A

5-6wk

170
Q

Medication for ectopic pregnancy

A

Methotrexate 50mg

171
Q

When does ectopic need to be managed surgically?

A

> 3.5cm
hCG >5000
Cardiac activity present
Ruptured

172
Q

How long should hCG be monitored after a hydatidiform mole?

A

6-12months

173
Q

Choriocarcinoma tx

A

Methotrexate

Chemo if Mets

174
Q

How does Rh alloimmunization affect the 1st + baby?

A

Mild anemia and elevated bilirubin at birth

175
Q

Dx of preeclampsia

A

> 140 systolic or >90 diastolic

AND

> 300 protein in 24hr or 2+ on dip

(Higher values, end organ damage, and fetal growth restrictions indicate severe)

176
Q

Anti hypertensives that are safe in pregnancy

A

Labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine

177
Q

If preterm delivery is indicated when are glucocorticoids indicated?

A

<37wk gestation

178
Q

TORCH infections

A 
Toxoplasmosis 
Other (syphilis and varicella)
Rubella
Cytomegalovirus 
Herpes
179
Q

Aspects of BPP

A 
Fetal tone
Movement
Breath
NST
AFI
180
Q

How should GDM pts be tested postpartum?

A

75g 2hr OGTT at 6wk

181
Q

Define preterm labor

A

Regular CXT after 20wk but before 37wk

182
Q

What do variable decelerations indicate?

A

Cord compression

183
Q

What do late decelerations indicate?

A

Uteroplacental insufficiency/hypoxia

184
Q

Describe treponema pallidum

A

Gram negative spirochete, obligate intracellular

185
Q

Describe neisseria gonorrheae

A

Gram negative kidney bean shaped diplococus

186
Q

Tx of gonorrhea

A

3rd gen cephalosporins

187
Q

Describe chlamydia trachomatis

A

Intracellular gram negative cocci

188
Q

Tx for chlamydia

A

Azithromycin or tetracycline

189
Q

Chancroid is more common in these countries

A

Tropical

190
Q

Tx for chancroid

A

3rd gen cephalosporins

191
Q

MC causative organism of vulvovaginal candadiasis

A

C albicans

192
Q

Why is it important to recognize c glabrata in candadiasis?

A

Resistant to fluconazole

193
Q

How does candidiasis affect caginal pH?

A

It doesn’t

194
Q

How does BV and trich affect vaginal pH?

A

Elevated (>4.5)

195
Q

Tx for uncomplicated candida

A

Short course (1-3D) topical azole

OR

Single 150mg fluconazole dose

196
Q

Tx of severe/recurrent candida or candida in prego/dm/immunocomp

A

7-14topical azoles (pregos)

OR

150fluconazole repeat q72hr x2-3doses

197
Q

Tx for BV

A 
500mg flagyl bid for 7d
OR
Metrogel 0.75% intravaginally daily for 5d
OR
Clindagel 2% intavaginally nightly 7d
198
Q

Strawberry cervix and postcoital bleeding should make you think of this

A

Trich

199
Q

Tx for trich

A

2g metronidazole once

200
Q

Antibiotic resistance is particularly concerning in this common sti

A

Gonorrhea

201
Q

Percent of women that are asympyomatic with chamyldia

A

At least 85%

202
Q

Tx for chlamydia

A

Azithromycin 1g oral (pregos)
OR
foxy 100mg bid 7d

203
Q

Tx for gonorrhea

A

Ceftriaxone 250mg IM PLUS azithromycin 1g oral

204
Q

Emerging cause of PID

A

Mycoplasma genitalium

205
Q

Tx for PID

A

Ceftriaxone 250IM PLUS doxy 100 bid 14d

F/u in 48-72hr!!!!

206
Q

Safe allergy treatment in pregnancy

A

Lora radon’s
Benadryl(diphenhydramine)
Chlorpheniramine
Zyrtec (cetrizine)

207
Q

Safe constipation treatment in pregnancy

A 
Fiber
Colace (docusate na) 100mg 1-2xd
208
Q

Safe cough treatment in pregnancy

A

Cough drops
Robitussin DM (dextromephorphan)
Mycinex(guaifenesin)

209
Q

Safe diarrhea treatment in pregnancy

A

Clear liquids for 24hr
BRAWT diet
Then immodium (loperamide) up to two doses

210
Q

Safe fever treatment in pregnancy

A

Tylenol (325q3hr or 650q6hr or 500q4hr)

  • max 3000mg daily
  • go to ER if temp >100 for over 2hr
211
Q

Safe headache/pain treatment in pregnancy

A

Tylenol (325q3hr or 650q6hr or 500q4hr)

212
Q

Safe treatment of heartburn in pregnancy

A

Pepcid (famotidine)
Prevacid (lansoprazole)
Tums
Zantac (ranitidine 150mg)

213
Q

Safe treatment of hemorrhoids in pregnancy

A

Anusol cream
Sits bath
Preparation h
Tucks medicated pad

214
Q

Safe treatment of nausea in pregnancy

A

Ginger/peppermint candy or tea
B6 (pyridoxine) 25mg tid
Unisom(doxylamine only) 1/2tab at bedtime

215
Q

Safe treatment of sinus congestion in pregnancy

A

Steam, saline nasal sprays, Sudafed PE (phenylephrine 5-10mg c/I with htn)

216
Q

MC strains of HPV

A

6 and 11

217
Q

HIV targets these cells

A

CD4 T (helper) cells

218
Q

Presentation of primary/acute HIV

A

Flu/mono like sx, rash on trunk, mucocutaneous ulcers

219
Q

Oral hairy leukoplakia should make you think of

A

HIV

220
Q

Kaposi’s sarcoma should make you think of

A

HIV

221
Q

How is AIDS dx’d?

A

CD4<200

OR

1 of 27 AIDS defining conditions

222
Q

PCP tx

A

Bactrim DS

223
Q

MC intracranial lesion in HIV

A

Toxoplasmosis (also causes encephalitis)

224
Q

MC retinal infection in HIV

A

CMV

225
Q

When should you start prophylaxis for PCP in an HIV pt?

A

CD4<200

226
Q

When should you start prophylaxis for MAC in an HIV pt?

A

CD4<50

227
Q

Syphillitic chancre takes how long to resolve?

A

4-6wk

228
Q

Secondary syphillis presentations

A

Rash on palms and soles

Condyloma lata

Mucous patches

229
Q

Tx for syphilis

A

Benzathine pen G 2.4 my IM (additional doses required if present for >1yr)

*azithro or doxy if pcn allergic

230
Q

Tx for lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV)

A

Erythromycin or doxy

231
Q

Tx for chancroid

A

Azithromycin, ceftriaxone or cipro

232
Q

Define menopause

A

Permanent cessation if menses for 12 consecutive months

233
Q

Sx of perimenopause

A

Irregular menses
Hot flashes/night sweats
Mood sx
Vaginal dryness

234
Q

How do you choose appropriate HRT therapy?

A

Intact uterus:estrogen and progestin

Hysterectomy: estrogen only

235
Q

When to stop HRT?

A

After 5yr therapy or age 60

236
Q

Risks of HRT

A

Thromboembolic dz and breast ca

237
Q

C/I of HRT

A 
Breast ca
CAD
he thromboembolic dz
Acute liver dz
Unexplained vb
TIA
238
Q

Pathophysiology of lichen sclerosis

A

Autoantibody attach of extra cellular matrix and basement membrane

239
Q

Spread of lichen sclerosis

A

Periclitorally to perineal skin

240
Q

Cancer associated with lichen sclerosis

A

SCC (5%)

241
Q

First line to lichen sclerosis

A

Temovate 0.05% steroid OINTMENT

242
Q

Empiric abx therapy for bartholin cyst

A

Keflex or doxy

243
Q

What is unique about vulvodynia?

A

Pain is limited to vestibule

*associated with anxiety and mood disorders

244
Q

Vulvodynia tx

A

Sitz bid followed by petroleum jelly

Vaginal estrogen\testo

Nortriptylin or gaba

245
Q

Standard tx for VINU

A

surgical-CO2 laser, local wide excision, or vulvectomy

246
Q

Where does most invasive vaginal cancer originate?

A

Endometrium, ovary or cervix

247
Q

MC type of vaginal cancer

A

SCC

248
Q

Characteristics of benign adnexal masses

A

Thin walled

<3cm (or <1 after menopause)

249
Q

Thin walled adnexal mass with homogenous echos

A

Endometrioma

250
Q

Thin walled hyperechoic nodule with distal acoustic shadowing

A

Teratoma

251
Q

Thin walled adnexal mass with network of linear or curvilinear pattern

A

Hemorrhagic cyst

252
Q

Characteristics of malignant adnexal masses

A

Thick >2mm septations
Solid modular or papillary component
Blood flow

253
Q

Bilateral cysts with clear/straw colored fluid and elevated hCG

A

Theca lutein cysts

254
Q

Theca lutein cysts are associated with these 3 conditions

A

Hydatidiform mole
Choriocarcinoma
Clinic therapy(? Idk)

255
Q

Mature teratomas most often originate from this germ layer

A

Ectoderm (hair teeth)

256
Q

Thin walled locust cyst filled with gelatinous mucin

A

Serous/mutinous cystadenoma

257
Q

High-grade serous carcinoma of the ovary originated from where?

A

Fallopian tube

258
Q

Ovarian germ cell tumors often produce these blood markers

A

Alpha fetopeotein

HCG

259
Q

Blood marker for epithelial ovarian cancer

A

CA-125

260
Q

What type of cancer is HPV 16 associated with?

A

Cervical SCC

261
Q

What type of cancer is HPV 18 associated with?

A

Cervical adenocarcinoma

262
Q

Who needs annual PAP smears?

A 
HIV + pts
Immunocompromised
Hx of cervical ca
Hx CIN II/III
Exposure to DES in utero
263
Q

When to stop cervical cancer screening?

A

At 65 if

3 negative cytology
2 negative co tests
No hx CIN II in 20 yr

264
Q

ASCUS or LSIL follow up

A

Repeat in 1yr

265
Q

HSIL or ASCH follow up

A

Colposcopy

266
Q

Fibroids are more common in this population

A

African Americans

267
Q

Diffuse globular uterine enlargement

A

Adenomyosis

268
Q

Pathophysiology of adenomyosis

A

Proliferation of glandular uterine tissue

269
Q

Pathophysiology of leiomyoma/fibroids

A

Proliferation of uterine muscle

270
Q

Most important risk factor for endometrial hyperlasia

A

OBESITY

*any thing associated with unopposed estrogen is a risk factor

271
Q

MC type of endometrial cancer

A

Adenocarcinoma

PANCE prep JQ (15 decks)

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