Infectious Diseases Flashcards

1
Q

True or False? More persons succumb to microbial infections than to cancer and heart disease combined.

A

True

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2
Q

What is the hierarchy of microbes (small to large)

A
  • viruses
  • bacteria
  • protozoa
  • fungi
  • parasites
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3
Q

What type of pathogens always cause disease?

A

Frank pathogens

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4
Q

What is the four step strategy of microbial pathogenesis?

A
  1. Find the best place to invade: concept of site
  2. Colonization
  3. Initial Invasion (Infection)
  4. Invasion
  5. Spread
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5
Q

_____ is a part of normal skin flora but can be highly infectious spreading by direct contact, aerosols and contaminated food.

A

Staphylococcus aureus

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6
Q

_____ is part of the endogenous flora that colonizes the skin and oropharynx. It is of the most frequent human pathogens and causes many diverse diseases including: pharyngitis, scarlet fever, impetigo, cellulitis, and sepsis.

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

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7
Q

_____ causes meningitis and can disseminate throughout the body causing septicemia.

A

Nisseria meningitis

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8
Q

_____ causes gonorrhea, one of the most common sexually transmitted diseases.

A

Nisseria gonorrheae

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9
Q

_____ is an acute suppurative infection of the genital tract which is reflected in urethritis among men and endocervicitis among women. It also causes neonatal conjunctivitis

A

Gonorrhea

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10
Q

_____ is part of out normal flora but can cause enteric infections, urinary tract infection, blood infections, meningitis.

A

E. Coli

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11
Q

_____ causes shigellosis. Signs include watery diarrhea mediated by enterotoxin, abdominal cramps, fever, bloody stool.

A

Shigella dysenteriae

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12
Q

____ causes typhoid fever, a severe, prolonged, systemic illness. Spread through contaminated water and food or chronic carriers.

A

Salmonella typhi

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13
Q

_____ is transmitted via water and shellfish. Symptoms include diarrhea and vomiting, massive fluid loss, dehydration, metabolic acidosis, hypovolemic shock, cardiac arrhythmia, renal failure.

A

Vibrio cholera

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14
Q

_____ causes disease when ingested and is resistant to stomach acid.

A

helicobacter pylori

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15
Q

____ attaches to mucosal epithelial cells and causes stomach ulcers and create a slow inflammatory response.

A

helicobacter pylori

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16
Q

____ causes pulmonary infections, burn wounds, urinary tract infections, otitis media, eye infection due to contacts.

A

Pseudomonas

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17
Q

______ has many strains that are resistant to a wide range of antibiotics.

A

Psuedomonas

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18
Q

____ is a major cause of morbidity and mortality in cystic fibrosis.

A

Psuedomonas

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19
Q

_____ enters the lung.

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

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20
Q

____ is a chronic, slow-progressing infection for years or decades.

A

Tuberculosis

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21
Q

______ causes lyme disease and is transmitted by ticks.

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

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22
Q

An expanding circular rash known as erythema migrams that begins at the site of infection is a classic sign of what bacterium?

A

borrelia burgdorferi

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23
Q

If untreated, ____ can cause loss of ability to move one or both sides of the face, joint pain, sever headaches with neck stiffness.

A

borrelia burgdorferi

24
Q

____ is caused by anaerobic bacteria including bacteriodes fragilis, prophyromonas gingivalis, fusobacterium nucleatum.

A

periodontal diseases

25
_____ is caused by actinomyces species and is a slow progressive, suppurative infection resulting from jaw injury, dental extraction or manipulation.
cervicofacial actinomycosis
26
_____ is the most common cause of viral pneumonia.
Influenza
27
Influenza vaccine consists of _____ and _____ that are prepared from dominant variants of the previous year.
inactivated, attenuated live viruses
28
Influenza virus undergoes ______ through mutations in its surface proteins.
antigenic shift
29
____ subtype occurs mainly in birds and is highly contagious and deadly to them.
H5N1 (Avian Flu)
30
_____ is a large family of DNA viruses.
Herpes viruses
31
_____ upon first exposure produces chickenpox with generalized skin eruption, becomes latent and when reactivated causes herpes zoster or "shingles.
varicella-zoster
32
____ is transmitted through oral secretions and causes oral, facial and ocular lesions.
HSV-1
33
_____is transmitted in genital secretions and causes genital ulcers.
HSV-2
34
____ causes infectious mononucleosis.
Epstein-Barr virus
35
____ is a congenital and opportunistic pathogen that uncommonly produces disease, however, it had destructive effects on fetuses and immunocompromised individuals,
Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
36
_____ is transmitted to humans by bite of female Anopheles mosquitoes.
Malaria
37
_____ has a complex life cycle, partly in mosquitoes, partly in humans,
Malaria
38
____ phase in humans can be cyclic and thus give rise to relapses over several years. Treatment is difficult and resistance to drug therapy is highly problematic.
Malaria
39
Malaria is caused by _____.
protozoa
40
_____ is caused by toxoplasma gondii. Mostly asymptomatic but necrotizing disease may occur in fetuses and immunocompromised hosts.
Toxoplasmosis
41
____ ranks second only to malaria as a cause of disabling disease and death. Causes liver, urogenital, and bladder disease.
Schistosomiasis (parasitic infection)
42
_____ tapeworms, roundworms and flatworms; acquired by congestion, insect bites or direct skin penetration.
Helminthic infections
43
____ an inflammatory, parasitic infection of lymphatic vessels caused by the filarial worms Wuchereria bancrofti transmitted by misquitoes.
Lymphatic Filariasis
44
____ causes inflammatory response that lead to massive edema of he affected tissues (elephantiasis).
Lymphatic filariasis
45
____ is present in the oral cavity of almost half of the population and does not become a problem until there is a change in the chemistry of the oral cavity>
Candida
46
What are the 7 risk factors for candidiasis?
- newborn babies (thrush) - dentures (denture stomatitis) - diabetes or other metabolic disturbance - antibiotic or chemotherapy treatment - drug users - poor nutrition - HIV
47
_____ presents as a red, flat, subtle lesion. Tends to be symptomatic with patients complaining of oral burning, most frequently while eating salty or spicy foods or drinking acidic beverages.
Erythematous candidiasis
48
_____ white curd-like plaques on the buccal mucosa, tongue, and other oral mucosal surfaces that will wipe away, leaving a red or bleeding underlying surface.
Pseudomembranous candidiasis
49
True or False? Diagnosis of oral candidiasis is based on clinical appearance and confirmed by the presence of fungal hyphae or yeast cells by microscopy.
True
50
____ erythema and/or fissuring of the corners of the mouth. Treatment involves the use of topical antifungal cream directly applied to the affected areas four times a fay for a 2 week treatment period.
Angular Cheilitis
51
_____ candida-associated denture stomatitis is prevalent in up to 70% of denture wearers, mostly the upper denture, this conditions tends to be persistent and recurrent as it is a consequence of the ability of c. albicans to adhere and colonize the denture surfaces leading to inflammation of the denture-exposed palatal mucosa.
Denture Stomatitis
52
____ is caused by inhalation of spores, skin exposure, or GI absorption. Inhalation is fatal.
Anthrax
53
_____ is a large virus that can survive outside the human host for days. Is more dangerous than anthrax. High fatality rate.
Smallpox
54
_____ is transmitted by flea. Causes inflammation and necrosis of lymph nodes and nose, lips, fingers, and toes gangrene.
Yersinia pestis (Plague)
55
____ is an acute severe and often-fatal diseas first characterized by internal and external bleeding.
Viral hemorrhagic fevers (Ebola, Marburg)
56
_____ are bugs, through the natural process of genetic mutations and evolutionary selection, are proving increasingly resistant to medicine's arsenal of antibiotics and drugs.
Superbugs
57
_____ is moving DNA from one organism to another to create a new form of life.
Gene splicing