Infectious Diseases Flashcards

1
Q

True or False? More persons succumb to microbial infections than to cancer and heart disease combined.

A

True

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2
Q

What is the hierarchy of microbes (small to large)

A
  • viruses
  • bacteria
  • protozoa
  • fungi
  • parasites
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3
Q

What type of pathogens always cause disease?

A

Frank pathogens

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4
Q

What is the four step strategy of microbial pathogenesis?

A
  1. Find the best place to invade: concept of site
  2. Colonization
  3. Initial Invasion (Infection)
  4. Invasion
  5. Spread
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5
Q

_____ is a part of normal skin flora but can be highly infectious spreading by direct contact, aerosols and contaminated food.

A

Staphylococcus aureus

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6
Q

_____ is part of the endogenous flora that colonizes the skin and oropharynx. It is of the most frequent human pathogens and causes many diverse diseases including: pharyngitis, scarlet fever, impetigo, cellulitis, and sepsis.

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

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7
Q

_____ causes meningitis and can disseminate throughout the body causing septicemia.

A

Nisseria meningitis

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8
Q

_____ causes gonorrhea, one of the most common sexually transmitted diseases.

A

Nisseria gonorrheae

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9
Q

_____ is an acute suppurative infection of the genital tract which is reflected in urethritis among men and endocervicitis among women. It also causes neonatal conjunctivitis

A

Gonorrhea

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10
Q

_____ is part of out normal flora but can cause enteric infections, urinary tract infection, blood infections, meningitis.

A

E. Coli

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11
Q

_____ causes shigellosis. Signs include watery diarrhea mediated by enterotoxin, abdominal cramps, fever, bloody stool.

A

Shigella dysenteriae

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12
Q

____ causes typhoid fever, a severe, prolonged, systemic illness. Spread through contaminated water and food or chronic carriers.

A

Salmonella typhi

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13
Q

_____ is transmitted via water and shellfish. Symptoms include diarrhea and vomiting, massive fluid loss, dehydration, metabolic acidosis, hypovolemic shock, cardiac arrhythmia, renal failure.

A

Vibrio cholera

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14
Q

_____ causes disease when ingested and is resistant to stomach acid.

A

helicobacter pylori

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15
Q

____ attaches to mucosal epithelial cells and causes stomach ulcers and create a slow inflammatory response.

A

helicobacter pylori

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16
Q

____ causes pulmonary infections, burn wounds, urinary tract infections, otitis media, eye infection due to contacts.

A

Pseudomonas

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17
Q

______ has many strains that are resistant to a wide range of antibiotics.

A

Psuedomonas

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18
Q

____ is a major cause of morbidity and mortality in cystic fibrosis.

A

Psuedomonas

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19
Q

_____ enters the lung.

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

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20
Q

____ is a chronic, slow-progressing infection for years or decades.

A

Tuberculosis

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21
Q

______ causes lyme disease and is transmitted by ticks.

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

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22
Q

An expanding circular rash known as erythema migrams that begins at the site of infection is a classic sign of what bacterium?

A

borrelia burgdorferi

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23
Q

If untreated, ____ can cause loss of ability to move one or both sides of the face, joint pain, sever headaches with neck stiffness.

A

borrelia burgdorferi

24
Q

____ is caused by anaerobic bacteria including bacteriodes fragilis, prophyromonas gingivalis, fusobacterium nucleatum.

A

periodontal diseases

25
Q

_____ is caused by actinomyces species and is a slow progressive, suppurative infection resulting from jaw injury, dental extraction or manipulation.

A

cervicofacial actinomycosis

26
Q

_____ is the most common cause of viral pneumonia.

A

Influenza

27
Q

Influenza vaccine consists of _____ and _____ that are prepared from dominant variants of the previous year.

A

inactivated, attenuated live viruses

28
Q

Influenza virus undergoes ______ through mutations in its surface proteins.

A

antigenic shift

29
Q

____ subtype occurs mainly in birds and is highly contagious and deadly to them.

A

H5N1 (Avian Flu)

30
Q

_____ is a large family of DNA viruses.

A

Herpes viruses

31
Q

_____ upon first exposure produces chickenpox with generalized skin eruption, becomes latent and when reactivated causes herpes zoster or “shingles.

A

varicella-zoster

32
Q

____ is transmitted through oral secretions and causes oral, facial and ocular lesions.

A

HSV-1

33
Q

_____is transmitted in genital secretions and causes genital ulcers.

A

HSV-2

34
Q

____ causes infectious mononucleosis.

A

Epstein-Barr virus

35
Q

____ is a congenital and opportunistic pathogen that uncommonly produces disease, however, it had destructive effects on fetuses and immunocompromised individuals,

A

Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

36
Q

_____ is transmitted to humans by bite of female Anopheles mosquitoes.

A

Malaria

37
Q

_____ has a complex life cycle, partly in mosquitoes, partly in humans,

A

Malaria

38
Q

____ phase in humans can be cyclic and thus give rise to relapses over several years. Treatment is difficult and resistance to drug therapy is highly problematic.

A

Malaria

39
Q

Malaria is caused by _____.

A

protozoa

40
Q

_____ is caused by toxoplasma gondii. Mostly asymptomatic but necrotizing disease may occur in fetuses and immunocompromised hosts.

A

Toxoplasmosis

41
Q

____ ranks second only to malaria as a cause of disabling disease and death. Causes liver, urogenital, and bladder disease.

A

Schistosomiasis (parasitic infection)

42
Q

_____ tapeworms, roundworms and flatworms; acquired by congestion, insect bites or direct skin penetration.

A

Helminthic infections

43
Q

____ an inflammatory, parasitic infection of lymphatic vessels caused by the filarial worms Wuchereria bancrofti transmitted by misquitoes.

A

Lymphatic Filariasis

44
Q

____ causes inflammatory response that lead to massive edema of he affected tissues (elephantiasis).

A

Lymphatic filariasis

45
Q

____ is present in the oral cavity of almost half of the population and does not become a problem until there is a change in the chemistry of the oral cavity>

A

Candida

46
Q

What are the 7 risk factors for candidiasis?

A
  • newborn babies (thrush)
  • dentures (denture stomatitis)
  • diabetes or other metabolic disturbance
  • antibiotic or chemotherapy treatment
  • drug users
  • poor nutrition
  • HIV
47
Q

_____ presents as a red, flat, subtle lesion. Tends to be symptomatic with patients complaining of oral burning, most frequently while eating salty or spicy foods or drinking acidic beverages.

A

Erythematous candidiasis

48
Q

_____ white curd-like plaques on the buccal mucosa, tongue, and other oral mucosal surfaces that will wipe away, leaving a red or bleeding underlying surface.

A

Pseudomembranous candidiasis

49
Q

True or False? Diagnosis of oral candidiasis is based on clinical appearance and confirmed by the presence of fungal hyphae or yeast cells by microscopy.

A

True

50
Q

____ erythema and/or fissuring of the corners of the mouth. Treatment involves the use of topical antifungal cream directly applied to the affected areas four times a fay for a 2 week treatment period.

A

Angular Cheilitis

51
Q

_____ candida-associated denture stomatitis is prevalent in up to 70% of denture wearers, mostly the upper denture, this conditions tends to be persistent and recurrent as it is a consequence of the ability of c. albicans to adhere and colonize the denture surfaces leading to inflammation of the denture-exposed palatal mucosa.

A

Denture Stomatitis

52
Q

____ is caused by inhalation of spores, skin exposure, or GI absorption. Inhalation is fatal.

A

Anthrax

53
Q

_____ is a large virus that can survive outside the human host for days. Is more dangerous than anthrax. High fatality rate.

A

Smallpox

54
Q

_____ is transmitted by flea. Causes inflammation and necrosis of lymph nodes and nose, lips, fingers, and toes gangrene.

A

Yersinia pestis (Plague)

55
Q

____ is an acute severe and often-fatal diseas first characterized by internal and external bleeding.

A

Viral hemorrhagic fevers (Ebola, Marburg)

56
Q

_____ are bugs, through the natural process of genetic mutations and evolutionary selection, are proving increasingly resistant to medicine’s arsenal of antibiotics and drugs.

A

Superbugs

57
Q

_____ is moving DNA from one organism to another to create a new form of life.

A

Gene splicing