Infectious Diseases Flashcards

1
Q

measles

A

Notify department of health
– Take blood for measles serology-in Australia measles vaccine is given at the age of 12 months.
– Discuss the nasal swab PCR for measles with the department of health.
– Isolate her in the community from other contacts.
– There is no need to send the patient to the emergency department as it would risk the spread of measles to other susceptible patients in the hospital.

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2
Q

Zostavax

A

vaccine used to prevent herpes zoster infection
live attenuated vaccine

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3
Q

Zostavax contraindications

A

– Severely immunocompromised patients such as this patient who is on long term
steroids for his rheumatoid arthritis.

– Hematological malignancy.

– Recipients of haemopoietic stem cell transplantation.

-HIV infection and immunosuppression (below 15% CD4 lymphocytes).

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4
Q

Genital chlamydial infection

A

sexually transmitted
is commonly asymptomatic until severe salpingitis or urethritis occurs
common cause of infertility due to
tubal obstruction

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5
Q

cat scratch disease

A
  • B.henselae from cats to humans through a contaminated
    cat scratch wound or across a mucosal surface
  • Symptoms occurs 3 to 10 days after initial injury.
  • papulopustular lesions at the bite site
  • enlarged tender regional lymph nodes.
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6
Q

Axillary vein thrombosis

A

sportsmen
after strenuous exercise like wrestling.
oedema and redness
No tender lymphadenopathy

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7
Q

JE vaccination for shorter-term travellers, particularly if:

A

travel is during the wet season
travel may be repeated
the person will spend a lot of time outdoors
the person’s accommodation has no air-conditioning, screens or bed nets

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8
Q

Typhoid vaccine may be recommended for travellers ≥2 years of age travelling to
endemic regions, including:

A

the Indian subcontinent
most Southeast Asian countries
several South Pacific nations, including Papua New Guinea

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9
Q

cholera vaccine

A

Most travellers do not need
not officially recommended by WHO

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10
Q

if the traveller has never received a dose of traveller has never received a dose of dTpa.

A

offer dTpa vaccine

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11
Q

if the last dose was more than 10 years ago

A

Adults are recommended to receive a booster dose of tetanus-containing vaccine

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12
Q

Fever with rigors and chills

A

Biliary sepsis, lymphoma, pyelonephritis and pneumococcal pneumonia

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13
Q

Thailand + fever + rash + joint pain + low platelets + low WBC

A

Dengue fever

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14
Q
A
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15
Q

Dengue fever treatment

A

Suppurative treatment

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16
Q

Zika virus

A

microcephaly
- SEEN IN BABIES

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17
Q

shingles (herpes zoster infection)

A
  • within 72 hours= famciclovir or acyclovir for
    7-10 days after taking the viral swab.

after 72 hours since the onset of rash= no
benefit with antiviral treatment.

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18
Q

key serological feature of hepatitis D

A

Anti-LKM3 (liver, kidney microsomes)

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19
Q

autoimmune hepatitis.

A

anti-LKM1

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20
Q

outcome of liver transplantation

A

chronic hepatitis D is better than that for
chronic hepatitis B

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21
Q

Chronic hepatitis D infection

A

increases the severity and progression of chronic hepatitis

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22
Q

if HDV infection occurs in acute hepatitis B

A

Chronic hepatitis D infection is unlikely

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23
Q

malaria incubation period

A
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24
Q

Malaria DX

A

Thick smear - Malaria diagnostic
Thin smear - species

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25
Q

malaria prevention

A
  • Doxycycline 100mg daily one day before the trip and continuing for four weeks after leaving malaria zone.
  • Atovaquone/proguanil( Malarone) 250mg/100mg tablet started 1-2 days before travel and continued for
    seven days after leaving malaria area
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26
Q

clinical diagnosis of herpes zoster infection

A
  • maxillary nerve of the trigeminal nerve in this patient with a rash without an eruption.
    Severe unilateral facial pain may be the first symptom of acute herpes zoster (shingles) and precedes the skin rash by a few days
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27
Q

Trigeminal neuralgia

A

sudden, brief and very severe paroxysms of
pain on one side of the face, in the distribution of one or more branches of the
trigeminal) nerve.

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28
Q

Definitive diagnosis of N. gonorrhoea infection

A

nucleic-acid amplification testing of a urethral or urine sample

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29
Q

Appropriate therapy for gonococcal urethritis

A

single dose of ceftriaxone 250 mg
intramuscularly plus a single dose of azithromycin 1 gram orally

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30
Q

Treatment of Chlamydia

A
  • Single dose of 1-gram Azithromycin or Doxycycline for
    seven days.
  • Should not have sex until at least a week has passed after the treatment.
  • notifiable disease
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31
Q

Post-exposure prophylaxis for hepatitis B (hepatitis B vaccine and immunoglobulins)
recommended

A

– The exposed person has been vaccinated in the past and the post-vaccination antiHBs level is below 10 mIU/ml.

– Un-vaccinated exposed individuals.

– Unknown vaccination status of the exposed person.

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32
Q

previously vaccinated persons exposed + response to previous vaccination is unknown

A

the anti-HBs level should be
determined as quickly as possible

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33
Q

previously vaccinated persons exposed+
protective response anti-HBs level =10
mIU/mL at any time after previous vaccination

A

post-exposure prophylaxis is
not necessary

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34
Q

Live attenuated zoster vaccine is contraindicated in persons

A

– Chemotherapy.
– Radiation therapy.
– Oral corticosteroids (asthma, COPD, etc)
– Disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (DMARDs).
– Malignant conditions of the reticuloendothelial system (such as lymphoma, leukaemia, Hodgkin’s disease).
– AIDS or symptomatic HIV infection.

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35
Q

positive HBsAg
positive HBcAb (IgM)

A

Acute infection

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36
Q

HBeAg positive

A

high infectivity in recent infection

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37
Q

influenza vaccine

A
  • Protection for the mother and the
    newborn baby for the first six months after birth
  • free to all pregnant woman in Australia.
  • recommended for all pregnant women regardless of
    gestation.
  • recommended for a woman planning a pregnancy.
  • An unvaccinated pregnant woman should be immunised at any time during influenza season
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38
Q

unsafe sex + for HIV checkup

A

wait for 12 weeks before a test can
reliably confirm or rule out HIV infection

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39
Q

Contraindications for administering
pertussis-containing vaccinations

A
  • severe allergic reaction to the vaccine (or
    to one of its components)
  • encephalopathy not due to any other cause within 7
    days of a prior vaccination.
  • Uncontrolled neurological disorders should prompt a
    delay of the vaccination until the condition has been sufficiently assessed
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40
Q

Post sexual assault victim + STI prophylaxis

A

ceftriaxone 250 mg intramuscular as a single dose,
azithromycin 1 gram as a single dose and metronidazole 2 gram as a single
dose

to cover gonorrhoea, chlamydia species
and trichomonas vaginalis

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41
Q

most commonly seen symptom in botulism

A

Dysarthria

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42
Q

needle stick injury + exposure to an HIV positive person

A

PEP is recommended. ASAP
PEP should not be offered more than 72
hours after exposure.

health care worker should have
follow-up HIV-antibody testing at baseline, 6 weeks,
3months up to 6 months

43
Q

medication of choice for prophylaxis
of malaria

A

Doxycyclin and atovaquone-proguanil

44
Q

Current recommendations about chlamydia infection of urogenital tract

A

– Treat the patient with oral antibiotics.
– Do contact tracing and treat the patient’s all sexual contacts in last six months.
– Notify health department (GP responsibility).
– Repeat testing for chlamydia in 3-12 months for reinfection.

45
Q

Most common pneumonia with HIV/AIDS

A

Pneumocystis Jiroveci (PJP)

46
Q

dry cough + slow onset of pneumonia symptoms + CD4 < 200

A

Pneumocystis Jiroveci (PJP)

47
Q

HIV + rapid onset acute pneumonia symptoms + lung consolidation

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

48
Q

hospital-acquired
pneumonia (HAP

A

Staphylococcus aureus

49
Q

Streptococcus pneumoniae

A

community-acquired pneumonia

50
Q

high grade fever + chills after recovering from pneumonia

A

IV cannula bacteraemia

51
Q

copious yellow-green sputum + underlying condition (pneumonia)

A

Bronchiectasis

52
Q

Bronchiectasis management

A

Ticarcillin-clavulanate.

53
Q

foul-smelling productive cough + Fever + Weight loss + Malaise

A

lung abscess

54
Q

high fever + respiratory symptoms precipitated from pneumonia treatment

A

Superinfection by a different type of bacteria.

55
Q

fever + arthralgia/arthritis + skin rash precipitated by pneumonia treatment

A

Serum sickness (hypersensitivity reaction to penicillin)

56
Q

lung abscess management protocol

A
  1. chest X-ray
  2. sputum stains and
    cultures
  3. Chest CT
    Uncomplicated: IV antibiotics
    Complicated: Transpleural drainage/lobectomy
57
Q

eyebrow and eyelash loss with no loss of scalp hair; skin changes +
history of paresthesias

A

Hansens disease/ leprosy

58
Q

Standard treatment for lepromatous leprosy

A

dapsone, rifampin, and clofazimine administered for 12 to 24 months.

59
Q

Gonorrhea infection management

A

– Ceftriaxone 500mg IM in 2ml of 1% lignocaine Plus Azithromycin 1000mg stat
orally.
– Advise no sex even with condoms for 7 days and no sex with recent or previous
partners until they have been tested and treated.
– Contact tracing for gonorrhoea is recommended for the previous 2 months.
– Offer test of cure in 4 weeks.

60
Q

patient on high-dose corticosteroids +
positive CSF India ink stain

A

Cryptococcal meningitis

61
Q

patient with hemolytic uremic syndrome,

A

stool culture on sorbitol MacConkey will
help diagnose E coli O157:H7

62
Q

Primary syphilis

A

-10-90 days after contact
- glans penis/vulva-cervix

63
Q

Secondary syphilis

A

2-10 weeks
- headache, anorexia, vomiting, fever, neck stiffness
- non-pruritic bilateral maculopapular rash
- generalised non-tender lymphadenopathy
patchy alopecia/condylomata lata

64
Q

Latent syphilis

A
65
Q

Syphilis tests

A

dark field microscopy
rapid plasma reagin (RPR) test
fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption (FTA-ABS) tes

66
Q

erythema nodosum + weight loss + productive cough/blood

A

Tuberculosis

67
Q

Tuberculosis steps in investigation

A
  1. QuantiFERON-TB/Tuberculin test
  2. Chest X-ray
  3. 3 sputum (AFB)
68
Q

history of pulmonary tuberculosis +
MRI shows a right frontal lesion +
biopsied which shows

A

Caseating granulomas

69
Q

patients with HIV + CD4 below 50 cells/μ
prophylaxis?

A

prophylaxis against Mycobacterium Avium
Complex (MAC) should also be commenced, after exclusion of active MAC Complex (MAC) should also be commenced, after exclusion of active MAC
or Mycobacterium Tuberculosis (TB)

70
Q

opportunistic infections in HIV infected patients

A
  • Pneumocystis jiroveci: Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
  • Toxoplasmosis: Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
  • Mycobacterium avium: Azithromycin
71
Q

80-year-old + 3-day history of a painful rash +
forehead and down to his left eyelid + weeping vesicular lesions

A

Herpes zoster

72
Q

Giardia lamblia

A

bloating, loose stools and weight loss.

73
Q

mainstay of Vibrio cholerae therapy

A

Oral glucoseelectrolyte solution rehydration

74
Q

First-line treatment of PHN (Postherpetic neuralgia)

A

(TCAs)

75
Q

Investigations for Men who have sex with Men (MSM)

A

– Pharyngeal swab for gonorrhoea
– Anal swab gonorrhoea and chlamydia PCR
– Urine PCR for chlamydia
– Serology for HIV, Syphilis, Hepatitis B and C.
– Vaccinate for hepatitis B if not immune
– Repeat test for HIV in 12 weeks (window period).

76
Q

peripheral blood film in infectious mononucleosis (glandular fever)

A

lymphocytosis with >10% atypical/reactive
lymphocytes (Downey cells).

77
Q

Elevated
aminotransferases + pharyngitis

A

possibility of IM.

78
Q

Resuming activity in IM

A

resume non-contact sports after >3
weeks and contact sports >4 weeks after illness onset to prevent splenic rupture.

79
Q

high grade fever+ swollen tonsils with exudate + rash precipitated by penicillin

A

Epstein-Barr infectious mononucleosis (EBV IM)

80
Q

Epstein-Barr infectious mononucleosis (EBV IM) investigation

A
  • Most appropriate: FBC to see lymphocytosis (>50% lymphocytes)
  • Diagnostic: Paul-Bunnell test / Monospot test
81
Q

EBV associated cancers

A

Burkitt lymphoma and nasopharyngeal CA.

82
Q

Rocky Mountain spotted fever

A

tick bite
fever, headache, malaise, myalgia, nausea, vomiting,
and anorexia as the most common symptoms
Involvement of the palms and
soles is considered important for diagnosis of Rocky Mountain spotted fever.

83
Q

Lyme
disease

A

Borrelia burgdorferi
erythema chronicum migrans, a target-shaped lesion
chronic
meningitis preceded by an arthralgia
Facial weakness may be the only neurologic sign of Lyme disease.
Optic neuritis

84
Q

significantly decreased CSF glucose + high protein level + elevated CSF opening pressure

A

bacterial, TB, fungal and carcinomatosis meningitis,

85
Q

bacterial meningitis treatment

A
  1. IV antibiotics
  2. Corticosteroids (dexamethasone)
  3. analgesics
86
Q

bacterial meningitis + Listeria
monocytogenes

A

ampicillin plus gentamicin.

87
Q

infant + drowsiness + fever + petechial rash

A

meningococcaemia (life threatening)

88
Q

meningococcaemia treatment

A

IV fluids + supplemental oxygen

89
Q

sleeping sickness + tsetse flies

A

Human African trypanosomiasis
Pentamidine is used in the treatment

90
Q

investigations in female sexual health workers

A

– HPV test 5-yearly (unless abnormal)
– HIV screening (if negative, proceed with HIV serology), then perform serology test annually
– First-catch urine for chlamydia and gonorrhoea PCR
– Syphilis serology and 12-monthly
– Endocervical swabs for Chlamydia and gonorrhoea 3 monthly (if 100% condom
use, more frequently if <100% condom use)
-Hepatitis A and B serology, (if hep A and B status unknown and patient has not
completed a course of hep A and B vaccination, offer testing and if no serological
evidence of immunity (i.e., anti-HA negative and/or anti-HBs negative, offer
appropriate immunisation) –> only perform annual serology test for hepatitis A and
B if not immunised)
– Hepatitis C serology and 12-monthly
If there is a history of oral sex without condoms, consider doing throat swab for
gonorrhoea and chlamydia.

91
Q

immunity status is unknown in measles

A

recommended that all
immunocompetent. non-pregnant patient receive MMR of vaccine with in 72 hours
of exposure. A second dose should then follow at least 4 weeks later.

92
Q

head injury to the left temporal region + unresponsive after a lucid interval + progressive right-sided weakness

A

epidural hematoma

features Rapid expansion expansion of
the EH:
Increase intracranial pressure (eg, Cushing triad of hypertension, bradycardia, and bradypnea),
compress compress the temporal lobe leads to uncal herniation

93
Q

(in epidural hematoma)uncal herniation in temporal lobe causes:

A
  • Ipsilateral fixed and dilated pupil from compression of the ipsilateral
    oculomotor nerve (CN III)
  • Contralateral hemiparesis Contralateral hemiparesis (compression of the ipsilateral cerebral peduncle)

-Contralateral homonymous hemianopsia with macular sparing from
compression of the ipsilateral posterior cerebral artery

worsening herniation = psilateral hemiparesis, a false localizing sign known as Kernohan phenomenon

94
Q

Local tenderness + erythema + IV drug abuse

A

osteomyelitis

95
Q

osteomyelitis investigation

A

MRI

96
Q

acute dacryocystitis treatment

A

oral di/flucloxacillin, amoxicillin-clavulanate, or cephalexin
-IV if severe cellulitis,
orbital involvement (orbital cellulitis) or severe adjacent facial/periseptal cellulitis.

97
Q

UTI treatment in renal impairment

A

Trimethoprim

98
Q

HACEK

A

H Hemophilus,
A Aggregatibacter actinomycetmcomitans,
C Cardiobacterium hominis,
E Eikenella corrodens
K Kingella kingae.

99
Q

HACEK in infective endocarditis complications

A

mycotic (infective) aneurysms

100
Q

HACEK investigation

A

CT angiography

101
Q

most common cause of epididymoorchitis

A

<35: Chlamydia
>35: E.coli

102
Q

inflammation of meibomian glands

A

Internal hordeolum (meibomian
abscess).

103
Q

Internal hordeolum infection pathogen

A

Staphylococcus aureus)