Infectious Diseases Flashcards

1
Q

measles

A

Notify department of health
– Take blood for measles serology-in Australia measles vaccine is given at the age of 12 months.
– Discuss the nasal swab PCR for measles with the department of health.
– Isolate her in the community from other contacts.
– There is no need to send the patient to the emergency department as it would risk the spread of measles to other susceptible patients in the hospital.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Zostavax

A

vaccine used to prevent herpes zoster infection
live attenuated vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Zostavax contraindications

A

– Severely immunocompromised patients such as this patient who is on long term
steroids for his rheumatoid arthritis.

– Hematological malignancy.

– Recipients of haemopoietic stem cell transplantation.

-HIV infection and immunosuppression (below 15% CD4 lymphocytes).

Zostavax is a vaccine used to prevent shingles (herpes zoster) in older adults. However, it’s a live attenuated vaccine, meaning it contains a weakened form of the virus. Because it’s a live vaccine, there are certain groups of people for whom Zostavax is contraindicated, meaning they should not receive it.

  1. Severely Immunocompromised Patients:
    • Why: These patients have weakened immune systems that can’t effectively control even the weakened virus in the vaccine. This includes people on long-term steroids (like the patient with rheumatoid arthritis), which suppress the immune system and make it risky to receive live vaccines. The weakened virus could potentially cause serious illness in these individuals.
  2. Hematological Malignancy (e.g., leukemia, lymphoma):
    • Why: These cancers affect the blood and immune system, significantly impairing the body’s ability to fight infections. Receiving a live vaccine like Zostavax could lead to the reactivation of the virus, causing illness rather than preventing it.
  3. Recipients of Hematopoietic Stem Cell Transplantation:
    • Why: After a stem cell transplant, the immune system is often extremely weakened and rebuilding. During this period, the body may not be able to handle a live vaccine, increasing the risk of complications from the vaccine itself.
  4. HIV Infection with Severe Immunosuppression (CD4 Count Below 15%):
    • Why: In patients with HIV, especially when their CD4 count (a type of immune cell) is very low, their immune system is compromised. A CD4 count below 15% indicates severe immunosuppression, meaning the patient’s body would struggle to control the weakened virus in the vaccine. This could lead to an actual shingles infection, rather than protecting against it.

Zostavax is contraindicated in these groups because their weakened immune systems may not be able to handle the live virus in the vaccine. Instead of providing protection, it could potentially cause a serious infection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Genital chlamydial infection

A

sexually transmitted
is commonly asymptomatic until severe salpingitis or urethritis occurs
common cause of infertility due to
tubal obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

cat scratch disease

A
  • B.henselae from cats to humans through a contaminated
    cat scratch wound or across a mucosal surface
  • Symptoms occurs 3 to 10 days after initial injury.
  • papulopustular lesions at the bite site
  • enlarged tender regional lymph nodes.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Axillary vein thrombosis

A

sportsmen
after strenuous exercise like wrestling.
oedema and redness
No tender lymphadenopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

JE vaccination for shorter-term travellers, particularly if:

A

travel is during the wet season
travel may be repeated
the person will spend a lot of time outdoors
the person’s accommodation has no air-conditioning, screens or bed nets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Typhoid vaccine may be recommended for travellers ≥2 years of age travelling to
endemic regions, including:

A

the Indian subcontinent
most Southeast Asian countries
several South Pacific nations, including Papua New Guinea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

cholera vaccine

A

Most travellers do not need
not officially recommended by WHO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

if the traveller has never received a dose of traveller has never received a dose of dTpa.

A

offer dTpa vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

if the last dose was more than 10 years ago
Tetanus

A

Adults are recommended to receive a booster dose of tetanus-containing vaccine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Fever with rigors and chills

A

Biliary sepsis, lymphoma, pyelonephritis and pneumococcal pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Thailand + fever + rash + joint pain + low platelets + low WBC

A

Dengue fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Dengue fever treatment

A

Suppurative treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Zika virus

A

microcephaly
- SEEN IN BABIES

Symptoms:
•	Many people infected with Zika virus are asymptomatic.
•	When symptoms do occur, they are generally mild and include fever, rash, conjunctivitis, muscle and joint pain, headache, and malaise.
•	Symptoms typically last for 2-7 days.
3.	Complications:
•	Microcephaly: Zika virus infection during pregnancy can cause severe birth defects, including microcephaly, where babies are born with smaller heads due to abnormal brain development.
•	Guillain-Barré Syndrome: There is also an association between Zika virus and Guillain-Barré syndrome, a rare condition where the immune system attacks the nerves.
4.	Diagnosis:
•	Diagnosed through laboratory tests like RT-PCR (Reverse Transcriptase Polymerase Chain Reaction) or serological tests to detect Zika virus RNA or antibodies.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

shingles (herpes zoster infection)

A
  • within 72 hours= famciclovir or acyclovir for
    7-10 days after taking the viral swab.

after 72 hours since the onset of rash= no
benefit with antiviral treatment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

key serological feature of hepatitis D

A

Anti-LKM3 (liver, kidney microsomes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

autoimmune hepatitis.

A

anti-LKM1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

outcome of liver transplantation

A

chronic hepatitis D is better than that for
chronic hepatitis B

When comparing the outcomes of liver transplantation for chronic hepatitis D versus chronic hepatitis B, the key point is:

  • Hepatitis D: Patients with chronic hepatitis D generally have better outcomes after liver transplantation compared to those with chronic hepatitis B. This means they tend to have fewer complications and a higher chance of long-term survival.
  • Hepatitis B: Although liver transplantation can be life-saving, patients with chronic hepatitis B are more likely to experience complications after the transplant, such as a recurrence of the virus in the new liver, which can affect their overall outcome.

In simple terms, liver transplant patients with chronic hepatitis D usually do better in the long run than those with chronic hepatitis B.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Chronic hepatitis D infection

A

increases the severity and progression of chronic hepatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

if HDV infection occurs in acute hepatitis B

A

Chronic hepatitis D infection is unlikely

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

malaria incubation period

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

malaria prevention

A
  • Doxycycline 100mg daily one day before the trip and continuing for four
    weeks after leaving malaria zone.
  • Atovaquone/proguanil 250mg/100mg tablet started 1-2 days before travel and continued for
    seven days after leaving malaria area
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

clinical diagnosis of herpes zoster infection

A
  • maxillary nerve of the trigeminal nerve in this patient with a rash without an eruption.
    Severe unilateral facial pain may be the first symptom of acute herpes zoster (shingles) and precedes the skin rash by a few days
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Trigeminal neuralgia

A

sudden, brief and very severe paroxysms of
pain on one side of the face, in the distribution of one or more branches of the
trigeminal) nerve.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Definitive diagnosis of N. gonorrhoea infection

A

nucleic-acid amplification testing of a urethral or urine sample

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Appropriate therapy for gonococcal urethritis

A

single dose of ceftriaxone 250 mg
intramuscularly plus a single dose of azithromycin 1 gram orally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Treatment of Chlamydia

A
  • Single dose of 1-gram Azithromycin or Doxycycline for
    seven days.
  • Should not have sex until at least a week has passed after the treatment.
  • notifiable disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Post-exposure prophylaxis for hepatitis B (hepatitis B vaccine and immunoglobulins)
recommended

A

– The exposed person has been vaccinated in the past and the post-vaccination antiHBs level is below 10 mIU/ml.

– Un-vaccinated exposed individuals.

– Unknown vaccination status of the exposed person.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

previously vaccinated persons exposed + response to previous vaccination is unknown

A

the anti-HBs level should be
determined as quickly as possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

previously vaccinated persons exposed+
protective response anti-HBs level =10
mIU/mL at any time after previous vaccination

A

post-exposure prophylaxis is
not necessary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Live attenuated zoster vaccine is contraindicated in persons

A

– Chemotherapy.
– Radiation therapy.
– Oral corticosteroids (asthma, COPD, etc)
– Disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (DMARDs).
– Malignant conditions of the reticuloendothelial system (such as lymphoma, leukaemia, Hodgkin’s disease).
– AIDS or symptomatic HIV infection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

positive HBsAg
positive HBcAb (IgM)

A

Acute infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

HBeAg positive

A

high infectivity in recent infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

influenza vaccine

A
  • Protection for the mother and the
    newborn baby for the first six months after birth
  • free to all pregnant woman in Australia.
  • recommended for all pregnant women regardless of
    gestation.
  • recommended for a woman planning a pregnancy.
  • An unvaccinated pregnant woman should be immunised at any time during influenza season
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

unsafe sex + for HIV checkup

A

wait for 12 weeks before a test can
reliably confirm or rule out HIV infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Contraindications for administering
pertussis-containing vaccinations

A
  • severe allergic reaction to the vaccine (or
    to one of its components)
  • encephalopathy not due to any other cause within 7
    days of a prior vaccination.
  • Uncontrolled neurological disorders should prompt a
    delay of the vaccination until the condition has been sufficiently assessed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Post sexual assault victim + STI prophylaxis

A

ceftriaxone 250 mg intramuscular as a single dose,
azithromycin 1 gram as a single dose and metronidazole 2 gram as a single
dose

to cover gonorrhoea, chlamydia species
and trichomonas vaginalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

most commonly seen symptom in botulism

A

Dysarthria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

needle stick injury + exposure to an HIV positive person

A

PEP is recommended. ASAP
PEP should not be offered more than 72
hours after exposure.

health care worker should have
follow-up HIV-antibody testing at baseline, 6 weeks,
3months up to 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

medication of choice for prophylaxis
of malaria

A

Doxycyclin and atovaquone-proguanil

42
Q

Current recommendations about chlamydia infection of urogenital tract

A

– Treat the patient with oral antibiotics.
– Do contact tracing and treat the patient’s all sexual contacts in last six months.
– Notify health department (GP responsibility).
– Repeat testing for chlamydia in 3-12 months for reinfection.

43
Q

Most common pneumonia with HIV/AIDS

A

Pneumocystis Jiroveci (PJP)

44
Q

dry cough + slow onset of pneumonia symptoms + CD4 < 200

A

Pneumocystis Jiroveci (PJP)

45
Q

HIV + rapid onset acute pneumonia symptoms + lung consolidation

Organism

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

46
Q

hospital-acquired
pneumonia (HAP

A

Staphylococcus aureus

47
Q

Streptococcus pneumoniae

A

community-acquired pneumonia

48
Q

high grade fever + chills after recovering from pneumonia

A

IV cannula bacteraemia

49
Q

copious yellow-green sputum + underlying condition (pneumonia)

A

Bronchiectasis

50
Q

Bronchiectasis management

A

Ticarcillin-clavulanate.

51
Q

foul-smelling productive cough + Fever + Weight loss + Malaise

A

lung abscess

52
Q

high fever + respiratory symptoms precipitated from pneumonia treatment

A

Superinfection by a different type of bacteria.

53
Q

fever + arthralgia/arthritis + skin rash precipitated by pneumonia treatment

A

Serum sickness (hypersensitivity reaction to penicillin)

54
Q

lung abscess management protocol

A
  1. chest X-ray
  2. sputum stains and
    cultures
  3. Chest CT
    Uncomplicated: IV antibiotics
    Complicated: Transpleural drainage/lobectomy
55
Q

eyebrow and eyelash loss with no loss of scalp hair; skin changes +
history of paresthesias

A

Hansens disease/ leprosy

56
Q

Standard treatment for lepromatous leprosy

A

dapsone, rifampin, and clofazimine administered for 12 to 24 months.

57
Q

Gonorrhea infection management

A

– Ceftriaxone 500mg IM in 2ml of 1% lignocaine Plus Azithromycin 1000mg stat
orally.
– Advise no sex even with condoms for 7 days and no sex with recent or previous
partners until they have been tested and treated.
– Contact tracing for gonorrhoea is recommended for the previous 2 months.
– Offer test of cure in 4 weeks.

58
Q

patient on high-dose corticosteroids +
positive CSF India ink stain

A

Cryptococcal meningitis

59
Q

patient with hemolytic uremic syndrome,

A

stool culture on sorbitol MacConkey will
help diagnose E coli O157:H7

60
Q

Primary syphilis

A

-10-90 days after contact
- glans penis/vulva-cervix

61
Q

Secondary syphilis

A

2-10 weeks
- headache, anorexia, vomiting, fever, neck stiffness
- non-pruritic bilateral maculopapular rash
- generalised non-tender lymphadenopathy
patchy alopecia/condylomata lata

62
Q

Latent syphilis

A
63
Q

Syphilis tests

A

dark field microscopy
rapid plasma reagin (RPR) test
fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption (FTA-ABS) tes

64
Q

erythema nodosum + weight loss + productive cough/blood

A

Tuberculosis

65
Q

Tuberculosis steps in investigation

A
  1. QuantiFERON-TB/Tuberculin test
  2. Chest X-ray
  3. 3 sputum (AFB)
66
Q

history of pulmonary tuberculosis +
MRI shows a right frontal lesion +
biopsied which shows

A

Caseating granulomas

67
Q

patients with HIV + CD4 below 50 cells/μ
prophylaxis?

A

prophylaxis against Mycobacterium Avium
Complex (MAC) should also be commenced, after exclusion of active MAC Complex (MAC) should also be commenced, after exclusion of active MAC
or Mycobacterium Tuberculosis (TB)

68
Q

opportunistic infections in HIV infected patients

A
  • Pneumocystis jiroveci: Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
  • Toxoplasmosis: Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
  • Mycobacterium avium: Azithromycin
69
Q

80-year-old + 3-day history of a painful rash +
forehead and down to his left eyelid + weeping vesicular lesions

A

Herpes zoster

70
Q

Giardia lamblia

A

bloating, loose stools and weight loss.

71
Q

mainstay of Vibrio cholerae therapy

A

Oral glucoseelectrolyte solution rehydration

72
Q

First-line treatment of PHN (Postherpetic neuralgia)

A

(TCAs)

73
Q

Investigations for Men who have sex with Men (MSM)

A

– Pharyngeal swab for gonorrhoea
– Anal swab gonorrhoea and chlamydia PCR
– Urine PCR for chlamydia
– Serology for HIV, Syphilis, Hepatitis B and C.
– Vaccinate for hepatitis B if not immune
– Repeat test for HIV in 12 weeks (window period).

74
Q

peripheral blood film in infectious mononucleosis (glandular fever)

A

lymphocytosis with >10% atypical/reactive
lymphocytes (Downey cells).

75
Q

Elevated
aminotransferases + pharyngitis

A

possibility of IM.

76
Q

Resuming activity in IM

A

resume non-contact sports after >3
weeks and contact sports >4 weeks after illness onset to prevent splenic rupture.

77
Q

high grade fever+ swollen tonsils with exudate + rash precipitated by penicillin

A

Epstein-Barr infectious mononucleosis (EBV IM)

78
Q

Epstein-Barr infectious mononucleosis (EBV IM) investigation

A
  • Most appropriate: FBC to see lymphocytosis (>50% lymphocytes)
  • Diagnostic: Paul-Bunnell test / Monospot test
79
Q

EBV associated cancers

A

Burkitt lymphoma and nasopharyngeal CA.

80
Q

Rocky Mountain spotted fever

A

tick bite
fever, headache, malaise, myalgia, nausea, vomiting,
and anorexia as the most common symptoms
Involvement of the palms and
soles is considered important for diagnosis of Rocky Mountain spotted fever.

81
Q

Lyme
disease

A

Borrelia burgdorferi
erythema chronicum migrans, a target-shaped lesion
chronic
meningitis preceded by an arthralgia
Facial weakness may be the only neurologic sign of Lyme disease.
Optic neuritis

82
Q

significantly decreased CSF glucose + high protein level + elevated CSF opening pressure

A

bacterial, TB, fungal and carcinomatosis meningitis,

83
Q

bacterial meningitis treatment

A
  1. IV antibiotics
  2. Corticosteroids (dexamethasone)
  3. analgesics
84
Q

bacterial meningitis + Listeria
monocytogenes

A

ampicillin plus gentamicin.

85
Q

infant + drowsiness + fever + petechial rash

A

meningococcaemia (life threatening)

86
Q

meningococcaemia treatment

A

IV fluids + supplemental oxygen

87
Q

sleeping sickness + tsetse flies

A

Human African trypanosomiasis
Pentamidine is used in the treatment

88
Q

investigations in female sexual health workers

A

To organize the screening and immunization protocol outlined, here’s a clear and structured approach:

  • Frequency: Every 5 years.
  • Action: Perform HPV testing unless there is a history of abnormal results.
  • Initial Screening: If the HIV test is negative, proceed with HIV serology.
  • Follow-up: Annual HIV serology testing.
  • Urine Test: First-catch urine sample for Chlamydia and Gonorrhoea PCR.
  • Endocervical Swabs:
    • Frequency: Every 3 months if 100% condom use; more frequently if less than 100% condom use.
  • Frequency: Serology every 12 months.
  • Initial Testing: Perform serology if hepatitis A and B status is unknown and the patient has not completed vaccination.
  • Action: If there is no serological evidence of immunity (anti-HA negative and/or anti-HBs negative), offer the appropriate immunization.
  • Follow-up: Only perform annual serology testing for hepatitis A and B if not immunized.
  • Frequency: Serology every 12 months.
  • Consideration: Perform if there is a history of oral sex without condoms.

This organized protocol ensures comprehensive screening and vaccination for sexually transmitted infections (STIs), tailored to individual risks and behaviors. Regular follow-ups and adherence to the recommended timelines are crucial for effective prevention and early detection.

– HPV test 5-yearly (unless abnormal)
– HIV screening (if negative, proceed with HIV serology), then perform serology test annually
– First-catch urine for chlamydia and gonorrhoea PCR
– Syphilis serology and 12-monthly
– Endocervical swabs for Chlamydia and gonorrhoea 3 monthly (if 100% condom
use, more frequently if <100% condom use)
-Hepatitis A and B serology, (if hep A and B status unknown and patient has not
completed a course of hep A and B vaccination, offer testing and if no serological
evidence of immunity (i.e., anti-HA negative and/or anti-HBs negative, offer
appropriate immunisation) –> only perform annual serology test for hepatitis A and
B if not immunised)
– Hepatitis C serology and 12-monthly
If there is a history of oral sex without condoms, consider doing throat swab for
gonorrhoea and chlamydia.

89
Q

immunity status is unknown in measles

A

recommended that all
immunocompetent. non-pregnant patient receive MMR of vaccine with in 72 hours
of exposure. A second dose should then follow at least 4 weeks later.

90
Q

head injury to the left temporal region + unresponsive after a lucid interval + progressive right-sided weakness

A

epidural hematoma

features Rapid expansion expansion of
the EH:
Increase intracranial pressure (eg, Cushing triad of hypertension, bradycardia, and bradypnea),
compress compress the temporal lobe leads to uncal herniation

91
Q

(in epidural hematoma)uncal herniation in temporal lobe causes:

A
  • Ipsilateral fixed and dilated pupil from compression of the ipsilateral
    oculomotor nerve (CN III)
  • Contralateral hemiparesis Contralateral hemiparesis (compression of the ipsilateral cerebral peduncle)

-Contralateral homonymous hemianopsia with macular sparing from
compression of the ipsilateral posterior cerebral artery

worsening herniation = psilateral hemiparesis, a false localizing sign known as Kernohan phenomenon

92
Q

Local tenderness + erythema + IV drug abuse

A

osteomyelitis

93
Q

osteomyelitis investigation

A

MRI

94
Q

acute dacryocystitis treatment

A

oral di/flucloxacillin, amoxicillin-clavulanate, or cephalexin
-IV if severe cellulitis,
orbital involvement (orbital cellulitis) or severe adjacent facial/periseptal cellulitis.

95
Q

UTI treatment in renal impairment

A

Trimethoprim

96
Q

HACEK

A

H Hemophilus,
A Aggregatibacter actinomycetmcomitans,
C Cardiobacterium hominis,
E Eikenella corrodens
K Kingella kingae.

97
Q

HACEK in infective endocarditis complications

A

mycotic (infective) aneurysms

98
Q

HACEK investigation

A

CT angiography

99
Q

most common cause of epididymoorchitis

A

<35: Chlamydia
>35: E.coli

100
Q

inflammation of meibomian glands

A

Internal hordeolum (meibomian
abscess).

101
Q

Internal hordeolum infection pathogen

A

Staphylococcus aureus)