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Daisy Finals Revision > Infectious Diseases > Flashcards

Infectious Diseases Flashcards

1
Q

what are the features of trichomonas vaginalis?

A

offensive, yellow/green, frothy discharge
vulvovaginitis
strawberry cervix
pH > 4.6
motile trophozoites

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1
Q

what is the management for trichomonas?

A

oral metronidazole
5-7d

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2
Q

what is the management for primary syphilis?

A

IM benzathine benzylpenicillin

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3
Q

what is the management for legionella?

A

macrolides eg clarithromycin

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4
Q

what condition does pneumonia with peripheral blood smear showing red cell agglutination suggest?

A

mycoplasma pneumoniae

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5
Q

which organisms cause bloody diarrhoea?

A

SAC
shigella
amoebiasis
campylobacter

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6
Q

which organism causes diarrhoea from BBQs?

A

campylobacter
(you usually BBQ your food when CAMPing)

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7
Q

way to remember management for gonorrhoea

A

GMC
gonorrhoea
muscular
ceftriaxone

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8
Q

what is the management for toxoplasmosis in immunocompromised patients?

A

pyrimethamine plus sulphadiazine

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9
Q

what antibiotic should be given in cellulitis in penicillin allergy?

A

clarithryomycin, erythromycin (preg), or doxycycline

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10
Q

common gram positive diplococci?

A

enterococcus

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11
Q

common gram positive clustered cocci?

A

staphylococcus

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12
Q

common gram positive cocci chains?

A

streptococcus

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13
Q

2 types of highly resistant bacteria?

A

MRSA
ESBLs - extended spectrum beta-lactamases

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14
Q

stain used to highlight gram positive bacteria?

A

crystal violet

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15
Q

site of action of penicillins?

A

cell wall synthesis

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16
Q

site of action of macrolides?

A

protein synthesis

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17
Q

site of action of trimethoprim?

A

folic acid metabolism

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18
Q

site of action of metronidazole?

A

nucleic acid synthesis

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19
Q

most common cause of UTI?

A

e. coli

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20
Q

most common cause of cellulitis?

A

staph aureus

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21
Q

most common cause of tonsillitis?

A

strep pyogenes

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22
Q

most common cause of otitis media?

A

strep pneumoniae

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23
Q

first line tx for cellulitis?

A

flucloxacillin

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24
Q

first line for chest infections?

A

amoxicillin

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25
Q

first line for UTI?

A

nitrofurantoin/trimethoprim

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26
Q

first line for tonsillitis?

A

phenoxymethylpenicillin

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27
Q

classification system for cellulitis?

A

eron classification

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28
Q

blood test for tissue perfusion?

A

lactate

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29
Q

reason to test clotting in sepsis?

A

causes disseminated intravascular coagulopathy

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30
Q

initial management in sepsis?

A
  1. blood cultures
  2. lactate
  3. urine output
  4. fluids
  5. oxygen
  6. antibiotics
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31
Q

most common cause of septic arthritis?

A

staph aureus

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32
Q

most common cause of septic arthritis in young sexually active pt?

A

n. gonorrhoeae

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33
Q

differentials for septic arthritis?

A
  1. gout
  2. reactive arthritis
  3. pseudogout
  4. haemarthrosis
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34
Q

diagnostic test in septic arthritis?

A

joint aspiration

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35
Q

treatment for septic arthritis?

A

IV antibiotics

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36
Q

treatment options for influenza?

A

oseltamivir
zanamivir

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37
Q

dx: 19 year old student with fever, vomiting and diarrhoea

A

gastroenteritis

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38
Q

viral causes of gastroenteritis?

A

norovirus
rotavirus

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39
Q

cause of diarrhoea most associated with foreign travel?

A

campylobacter

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40
Q

cause of diarrhoea most associated with eggs/poultry?

A

salmonella

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41
Q

cause of diarrhoea most associated with old fried rice?

A

bacillus cereus

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42
Q

cause of diarrhoea most associated with small intestines of mammals?

A

giardia

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43
Q

cause of diarrhoea most associated with undercooked pork?

A

yersinia

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44
Q

features of HUS?

A

anaemia
AKI
low platelets

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45
Q

causes of HUS?

A

shiga toxin - e coli and shigella

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46
Q

post gastroenteritis complications?

A
  1. lactose intolerance
  2. IBS
  3. reactive arthritis
  4. GBS
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47
Q

dx: 25 year old with fever headache photophobia neck stiffness and altered consciousness

A

meningitis/CNS infection

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48
Q

most common bacterial causes of meningitis?

A

neisseria meningitidis
strep pneumoniae

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49
Q

special clinical tests for meningitis?

A

kernig’s
brudzinski’s

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50
Q

investigation for meningitis?

A

lumbar puncture

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51
Q

what would raised protein in CSF suggest?

A

bacterial cause

52
Q

what would raised lymphocytes in CSF suggest?

A

viral cause

53
Q

what would low WCC in CSF suggest?

A

normal

54
Q

what would low glucose in CSF indicate?

A

bacterial

55
Q

which cause of meningitis requires post exposure prophylaxis?

A

meningococcus

56
Q

what post exposure prophylaxis is given for meningococcal meningitis?

A

ciprofloxacin

57
Q

key complication of meningitis?

A

hearing loss

58
Q

what is the diagnosis when acid fast bacilli are seen on microscopy?

A

tuberculosis

59
Q

what bacteria causes TB?

A

mycobacterium tuberculosum

60
Q

what is the special stain used for TB?

A

ziehl-nielson stain

61
Q

what is the name for disseminated TB infection?

A

miliary TB

62
Q

TB vaccine?

A

BCG

63
Q

what type of vaccine is the BCG vaccine?

A

live attenuated

64
Q

what is the test for a previous immune response to TB?

A

mantoux test

65
Q

what are the drugs for TB?

A

rifampicin
isoniazid
pyrazinamide
ethambutol

66
Q

key side effect of rifampicin?

A

red/orange urine/tears

67
Q

key side effect of isoniazid?

A

peripheral neuropathy

68
Q

key side effect of pyrazinamide?

A

hyperuricaemia

69
Q

key side effect of ethambutol?

A

colour blindness/optic neuritis

70
Q

which cell type is targeted in HIV?

A

cd4 t-helper cells

71
Q

screening test for HIV?

A

CD4 count
viral load

72
Q

what is the treatment for HIV?

A

highly active anti-retroviral therapy

73
Q

aim of treatment in HIV?

A

normal cd4 count
undetectable viral load

74
Q

when and why is co-trimoxazole used in HIV?

A

when CD4 count is <200mm3
for prophylaxis against PCP (pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia)

75
Q

purple skin lesions in HIV?

A

kaposi’s sarcoma

76
Q

dx: 22yo student presents with high fevers every 2 days, myalgia and headaches. She visited family in nigeria 3 weeks ago

A

malaria

77
Q

what is the disease vector of malaria?

A

female anopheles mosquito

78
Q

what is the most severe form of malaria?

A

falciparum malaria

79
Q

clinical signs of malaria?

A

pallor (anaemia)
hepatosplenomegaly
jaundice

80
Q

investigation for malaria?

A

malaria blood film

81
Q

how can malaria be excluded?

A

3 negative blood films over 3 days

82
Q

treatment when malaria is severe?

A

artesunate

83
Q

prevention options for malaria?

A

proguanil and atovaquone (malarone)
mefloquine
doxycycline

84
Q

what is the most common organism found in central line infections?

A

staph epidermidis

85
Q

which organism is most likely in a patient with HIV with gastroenteritis sx?

A

cryptosporidium parvum

86
Q

how does yellow fever present?

A

flu like illness then brief remission then jaundice and haematemesis

87
Q

what are the early features of lymes disease?

A

erythema migrans - bulls eye rash
systemic - fever, headache, lethargy, arthralgia

88
Q

what are the late features of lymes disease?

A

heart block
peri/myocarditis
facial nerve palsy
radicular pain
meningitis

89
Q

what is the management of lymes disease?

A

doxycycline (or amoxicillin) if early
ceftriaxone if disseminated dx

90
Q

management of asymptomatic tick bite?

A

no treatment, reassure

91
Q

what is the antibiotic mgt for syphilis?

A

benzylpenicillin

92
Q

antibiotic for animal bite?

A

co-amox

93
Q

typical history of mycoplasma pneumonia?

A

worsening flu like symptoms and dry cough
erythema multiforme on examination

94
Q

first line tx for early lyme disease?

A

14-21 day course of oral doxycycline

95
Q

pneumonia in an alcoholic likely organism?

A

klebsiella

96
Q

management of syphilis in pregnancy?

A

IM benzathine penicillin G

97
Q

BV in pregnancy mgt?

A

still oral metronidazole
400mg BD for 5-7days

98
Q

trichomonas presentation?

A

yellow green foul smelling discharge
strawberry cervix - erythematous, punctate and papilliform

99
Q

trichomonas management?

A

oral metronidazole

100
Q

management of asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women?

A

immediate abx tx
7 days nitrofurantoin

101
Q

management for bacterial meningitis for adults >50?

A

IV cefotaxime/ceftriaxone and amoxicillin

102
Q

features of legionella pneumonia?

A

flu like sx
dry cough
relative bradycardia
confusion
lymphopenia
hyponatraemia
deranged LFTs

103
Q

features of PCP?

A

dyspnoea
cough
fever
very few chest signs
-> desat on exercise
can have hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, choroid lesions

104
Q

mgt PCP?

A

co-trimoxazole

105
Q

mgt gonorrhoea?

A

IM ceftriaxone

106
Q

mgt chlamydia?

A

doxycycline 7d
azithromycin if pregnant

107
Q

antibiotics for animal bite?

A

co-amoxiclav
if pen allergy - doxy and metronidazole

108
Q

management for cellulitis if penicillin allergic?

A

clarithromycin

109
Q

management of necrotising fasciitis?

A

IV abx and immediate surgical debridement

110
Q

which hepatitis’s are spread via faecal-oral route?

A

A and E
hepatitis with a vowel spreads via the bowel

111
Q

ongoing diarrhoea, lethargy, bloating, flatulence, steatorrhoea, weight loss +/- recent travel ?

A

giardiasis

112
Q

treatment for MRSA skin infections?

A

vancomycin

113
Q

when and who gets HPV vaccine for first time?

A

boys and girls aged 12-13 years

114
Q

parvovirus IgG positive meaning?

A

immunity to parvovirus

115
Q

parvovirus IgM positive meaning?

A

recent parvovirus in past 4 weeks

116
Q

what type of organism is n.meningitidis?

A

gram negative diplococcus

117
Q

what type of organism is strep pneumoniae?

A

gram positive diplococci/chain

118
Q

what type of organism is e. coli?

A

gram negative bacilli

119
Q

what type of organism is h. influenzae?

A

gram negative coccobacilli

120
Q

what type of organism is l. monocytogenes?

A

gram positive rod

121
Q

most common cause of travellers diarrhoea?

A

e.coli

122
Q

at what cd4 count should patients receive co-trimoxazole for PCP prophylaxis?

A

below 200/mm3

123
Q

how long is PEP for HIV?

A

4 weeks

124
Q

what is seen on blood film in infectious mononucleosis?

A

atypical lymphocytes

125
Q

which HSV is more associated with lip ulcers?

A

hsv1

126
Q

which hsv typically occurs on genitals and not lips?

A

hsv2

127
Q

cough and sob with flu like sx and erythematous rash with ‘target’ lesions??

A

mycoplasma pneumoniae

128
Q

abx mgt for erysipelas?

A

flucloxacillin

Daisy Finals Revision (25 decks)

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