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Daisy Finals Revision > Haematology > Flashcards

Haematology Flashcards

1
Q

what specific markers are raised in beta thalassaemia major?

A

HbA2 and HbF - raised

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2
Q

which marker is absent in beta thalassaemia major?

A

HbA

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3
Q

which factors are in the extrinsic pathway?

A

VII and VIII

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4
Q

which factors are in the intrinsic pathway?

A

IX, XI and XIII

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5
Q

which blood test is prolonged in extrinsic factor causes of blood disorders?

A

PT

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6
Q

which blood test is prolonged in intrinsic factor causes of blood disorders?

A

APTT

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7
Q

reversal agent for dabigatran?

A

idarucizumab

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8
Q

which virus causes hodgkins and burkitts lymphoma?

A

EBV

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9
Q

virus associated with nasopharyngeal carcinoma?

A

EBV

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10
Q

virus associated with adult t cell leukaemia/lymphoma?

A

HTLV-1

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11
Q

virus associated with high grade B cell lymphoma?

A

HIV-1

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12
Q

bacteria associated with gastric lymphoma (MALT)?

A

h pylori

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13
Q

protozoa associated with burkitt’s lymphoma?

A

malaria

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14
Q

LN biopsy showing starry sky appearance?

A

burkitts lymphoma

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15
Q

lifespan of RBCs?

A

3 months

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16
Q

lifespan of platelets?

A

10 days

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17
Q

what does anistocytosis suggest?

A

myelodysplastic syndrome

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18
Q

what do target cells suggest?

A

IDA
post-splenectomy

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19
Q

what do heinz bodies suggest?

A

G6PG deficiency
alpha-thalassaemia

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20
Q

what do howell-jolly bodies suggest?

A

post splenectomy
severe anaemia

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21
Q

what do reticulocytes suggest?

A

haemolytic anaemia

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22
Q

what do smudge cells suggest?

A

chronic lymphocytic leukaemia

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23
Q

causes of microcytic anaemia?

A

TAILS
thalassaemia
anaemia of chronic disease
iron deficiency
lead poisoning
sideroblastic anaemia

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24
Q

staging system for lymphoma?

A

ann arbor

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25
cells seen in hodgkins lymphoma?
reed-sternberg
26
examination findings in hodgkins lymphoma?
splenomegaly hepatomegaly enlarged LNs
27
facial swelling in lymphoma?
SVC obstruction
28
staging investigations for lymphoma?
CXR, CTTAP, bone marrow biopsy
29
clinical signs of anaemia?
tachypnoea pale conjunctiva tachycardia ejection systolic murmur
30
clinical signs of iron deficiency anaemia?
angular cheilosis koilonychia atrophic glossitis
31
which drugs would you expect a patient with SCD to be on?
hydroxyurea (hydroxycarbamide) penicillin folic acid
32
precipitants of sickle cell crisis?
exposure to cold dehydration hypoxia acidosis infection
33
management of sickle cell crisis?
oxygen analgesia IV fluids empirical abx
34
what is multiple myeloma?
malignant clonal proliferation of Beta-lymphocytic plasma cells
35
sx of multiple myeloma?
recurrent infections bruising easily tiredness polydipsia abdo pain bone pain confusion
36
investigations for multiple myeloma?
FBC blood film serum calcium serum immunoglobulins BM sampling urine + serum electrophoresis
37
immunoglobulin overexpressed in multiple myeloma?
IgG
38
why are patients with multiple myeloma at inc risk of bacterial infections?
possible bone marrow infiltration immunoparesis secondary to overexpression of one Ig and underexpression of others
39
acute complications of multiple myeloma?
hypercalcaemia spinal cord compression hyperviscosity acute renal failure
40
causes of splenomegaly?
malaria myelofibrosis lymphoma liver cirrhosis with portal htn haemolytic anaemia mononucleosis amyloidosis
41
white cell count in chronic leukaemia?
high
42
how do you differentiate between acute and chronic leukaemia on blood film?
chronic - mature WCs and full spectrum of lineage acute - only blast cells
43
chromosome translocation name in CML?
philadelphia chromosome (9 and 22)
44
drug for CML?
imatinib (taken PO)
45
moa of imatinib?
tyrosine kinase inhibitor
46
blood film findings in myeloma?
rouleaux formation = stacking of red blood cells
47
urine finding in myeloma?
bence jones proteins (monoclonal igA/igG proteins)
48
relative causes of polycythaemia?
dehydration stress: gaisbock syndrome
49
secondary causes of polycythaemia?
COPD altitude OSA excessive EPO: cerebellar haemangioma, hepatoma, uterine fibroids
50
blood presentation in sickle cell crisis?
high reticulocyte count severe anaemia
51
features of an aplastic crisis in sickle cell?
caused by infection with parvovirus sudden fall in hb bone marrow suppression causes reduced reticulocyte count
52
features of post thrombotic syndrome?
painful, heavy calves pruritus swelling varicose veins venous ulceration
53
most likely diagnosis in spontaneous haemarthrosis?
haemophilia A (or B)
54
inheritance of haemophilia?
X linked recessive
55
deficiency in haemophilia A?
Factor VIII (a - eight - ay)
56
deficiency in haemophilia B?
Factor IX (9 comes after 8 and B comes after A)
57
features of haemophilia?
haemarthroses haematomas prolonged bleeding after surgery or trauma
58
blood tests results in haemophilia?
prolonged APTT bleeding time, thrombin time, prothrombin time normal
59
features of beta thalassaemia major?
presents in the first year of life with failure to thrive and hepatosplenomegaly microcytic anaemia HbA2 & HbF raised HbA absent
60
mgt of beta thalassaemia major?
repeated transfusion > leads to iron overload -> organ failure iron chelation therapy important
61
benefit of using irradiated blood products?
depleted in t lymphocytes - reduce risk of graft vs host disease
62
blood film picture in hyposplenism (post splenectomy, coeliac) ?
target cells howell-jolly bodies pappenheimer bodies siderotic granules acanthocytes
63
drug to reduce bleeding risk in Von Willebrand disease?
desmopressin
64
schistocytes?
haemolytic anaemia
65
features of acute graft versus host disease?
painful maculopapular rash jaundice watery or bloody diarrhoea persistent N+V
66
mgt of acute chest syndrome in sickle cell?
pain relief oxygen therapy antibiotics transfusion
67
DIC blood picture?
plt count low PT, APTT, Bleeding time prolonged
68
features of an acute haemolytic reaction during transfusion?
fever abdo pain hypotension
69
mechanism of action of rivaroxaban?
direct factor Xa inhibitor
70
management of autoimmune haemolytic anaemia?
steroids +/- rituximab

Daisy Finals Revision (25 decks)

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