Haematology Flashcards

1
Q

what specific markers are raised in beta thalassaemia major?

A

HbA2 and HbF - raised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

which marker is absent in beta thalassaemia major?

A

HbA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

which factors are in the extrinsic pathway?

A

VII and VIII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

which factors are in the intrinsic pathway?

A

IX, XI and XIII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

which blood test is prolonged in extrinsic factor causes of blood disorders?

A

PT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

which blood test is prolonged in intrinsic factor causes of blood disorders?

A

APTT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

reversal agent for dabigatran?

A

idarucizumab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

which virus causes hodgkins and burkitts lymphoma?

A

EBV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

virus associated with nasopharyngeal carcinoma?

A

EBV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

virus associated with adult t cell leukaemia/lymphoma?

A

HTLV-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

virus associated with high grade B cell lymphoma?

A

HIV-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

bacteria associated with gastric lymphoma (MALT)?

A

h pylori

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

protozoa associated with burkitt’s lymphoma?

A

malaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

LN biopsy showing starry sky appearance?

A

burkitts lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

lifespan of RBCs?

A

3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

lifespan of platelets?

A

10 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what does anistocytosis suggest?

A

myelodysplastic syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what do target cells suggest?

A

IDA
post-splenectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what do heinz bodies suggest?

A

G6PG deficiency
alpha-thalassaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what do howell-jolly bodies suggest?

A

post splenectomy
severe anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what do reticulocytes suggest?

A

haemolytic anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what do smudge cells suggest?

A

chronic lymphocytic leukaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

causes of microcytic anaemia?

A

TAILS
thalassaemia
anaemia of chronic disease
iron deficiency
lead poisoning
sideroblastic anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

staging system for lymphoma?

A

ann arbor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

cells seen in hodgkins lymphoma?

A

reed-sternberg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

examination findings in hodgkins lymphoma?

A

splenomegaly
hepatomegaly
enlarged LNs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

facial swelling in lymphoma?

A

SVC obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

staging investigations for lymphoma?

A

CXR, CTTAP, bone marrow biopsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

clinical signs of anaemia?

A

tachypnoea
pale conjunctiva
tachycardia
ejection systolic murmur

30
Q

clinical signs of iron deficiency anaemia?

A

angular cheilosis
koilonychia
atrophic glossitis

31
Q

which drugs would you expect a patient with SCD to be on?

A

hydroxyurea (hydroxycarbamide)
penicillin
folic acid

32
Q

precipitants of sickle cell crisis?

A

exposure to cold
dehydration
hypoxia
acidosis
infection

33
Q

management of sickle cell crisis?

A

oxygen
analgesia
IV fluids
empirical abx

34
Q

what is multiple myeloma?

A

malignant clonal proliferation of Beta-lymphocytic plasma cells

35
Q

sx of multiple myeloma?

A

recurrent infections
bruising easily
tiredness
polydipsia
abdo pain
bone pain
confusion

36
Q

investigations for multiple myeloma?

A

FBC
blood film
serum calcium
serum immunoglobulins
BM sampling
urine + serum electrophoresis

37
Q

immunoglobulin overexpressed in multiple myeloma?

A

IgG

38
Q

why are patients with multiple myeloma at inc risk of bacterial infections?

A

possible bone marrow infiltration
immunoparesis secondary to overexpression of one Ig and underexpression of others

39
Q

acute complications of multiple myeloma?

A

hypercalcaemia
spinal cord compression
hyperviscosity
acute renal failure

40
Q

causes of splenomegaly?

A

malaria
myelofibrosis
lymphoma
liver cirrhosis with portal htn
haemolytic anaemia
mononucleosis
amyloidosis

41
Q

white cell count in chronic leukaemia?

A

high

42
Q

how do you differentiate between acute and chronic leukaemia on blood film?

A

chronic - mature WCs and full spectrum of lineage
acute - only blast cells

43
Q

chromosome translocation name in CML?

A

philadelphia chromosome (9 and 22)

44
Q

drug for CML?

A

imatinib (taken PO)

45
Q

moa of imatinib?

A

tyrosine kinase inhibitor

46
Q

blood film findings in myeloma?

A

rouleaux formation
= stacking of red blood cells

47
Q

urine finding in myeloma?

A

bence jones proteins (monoclonal igA/igG proteins)

48
Q

relative causes of polycythaemia?

A

dehydration
stress: gaisbock syndrome

49
Q

secondary causes of polycythaemia?

A

COPD
altitude
OSA
excessive EPO: cerebellar haemangioma, hepatoma, uterine fibroids

50
Q

blood presentation in sickle cell crisis?

A

high reticulocyte count
severe anaemia

51
Q

features of an aplastic crisis in sickle cell?

A

caused by infection with parvovirus
sudden fall in hb
bone marrow suppression causes reduced reticulocyte count

52
Q

features of post thrombotic syndrome?

A

painful, heavy calves
pruritus
swelling
varicose veins
venous ulceration

53
Q

most likely diagnosis in spontaneous haemarthrosis?

A

haemophilia A (or B)

54
Q

inheritance of haemophilia?

A

X linked recessive

55
Q

deficiency in haemophilia A?

A

Factor VIII (a - eight - ay)

56
Q

deficiency in haemophilia B?

A

Factor IX (9 comes after 8 and B comes after A)

57
Q

features of haemophilia?

A

haemarthroses
haematomas
prolonged bleeding after surgery or trauma

58
Q

blood tests results in haemophilia?

A

prolonged APTT
bleeding time, thrombin time, prothrombin time normal

59
Q

features of beta thalassaemia major?

A

presents in the first year of life with failure to thrive and hepatosplenomegaly
microcytic anaemia
HbA2 & HbF raised
HbA absent

60
Q

mgt of beta thalassaemia major?

A

repeated transfusion
> leads to iron overload -> organ failure
iron chelation therapy important

61
Q

benefit of using irradiated blood products?

A

depleted in t lymphocytes - reduce risk of graft vs host disease

62
Q

blood film picture in hyposplenism (post splenectomy, coeliac) ?

A

target cells
howell-jolly bodies
pappenheimer bodies
siderotic granules
acanthocytes

63
Q

drug to reduce bleeding risk in Von Willebrand disease?

A

desmopressin

64
Q

schistocytes?

A

haemolytic anaemia

65
Q

features of acute graft versus host disease?

A

painful maculopapular rash
jaundice
watery or bloody diarrhoea
persistent N+V

66
Q

mgt of acute chest syndrome in sickle cell?

A

pain relief
oxygen therapy
antibiotics
transfusion

67
Q

DIC blood picture?

A

plt count low
PT, APTT, Bleeding time prolonged

68
Q

features of an acute haemolytic reaction during transfusion?

A

fever
abdo pain
hypotension

69
Q

mechanism of action of rivaroxaban?

A

direct factor Xa inhibitor

70
Q

management of autoimmune haemolytic anaemia?

A

steroids +/- rituximab