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Daisy Finals Revision > Cardio > Flashcards

Cardio Flashcards

1
Q

What operation might a central vertical chest scar indicate?

A

Midline sternotomy -
CABG
Aortic valve replacement
Mitral valve replacement

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2
Q

Gold standard investigation for stable angina?

A

CT Coronary angiogram

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3
Q

What medication provides immediate symptomatic relief in angina?

A

GTN spray

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4
Q

What medication is used for long term symptom control in angina?

A

Beta blockers (bisoprolol)
CCBs eg amlodipine

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5
Q

What medication is used for secondary prevention in angina?

A

Statins
Aspirin
ACE inhibitors
Beta blockers

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6
Q

What surgical options are available for angina?

A

PCI
CABG

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7
Q

What are the criteria for a STEMI?

A

New st elevation or new left bundle branch block

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8
Q

Anterolateral MI artery?

A

LCA

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9
Q

Anterolateral MI ecg leads?

A

I, aVL, V3-V6

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10
Q

Anterior MI artery?

A

LAD

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11
Q

Anterior MI ecg leads?

A

V1-V4

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12
Q

Lateral MI artery?

A

Circumflex

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13
Q

Lateral MI ecg leads?

A

I, aVL, V5-V6

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14
Q

Inferior MI artery?

A

RCA

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15
Q

Inferior MI ECG leads?

A

II, III, aVF

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16
Q

Protein tested for cardiac muscle damage?

A

Troponin

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17
Q

STEMI tx options?

A

Primary PCI
Thrombolysis

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18
Q

Initial NSTEMI tx?

A

BATMAN
Beta blockers
Aspirin
Ticagrelor
Morphine
Anticoagulant (fondaparinux)
Nitrates (GTN)

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19
Q

Complications of MI?

A

DREAAD
Death
Rupture
Oedema
Arrhythmia
Aneurysm
Dressers syndrome

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20
Q

initial non pharma mgt of SVT?

A

valsalva
carotid sinus massage

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21
Q

main drug in tx of SVT?

A

adenoside

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22
Q

contraindications to adenosine?

A

asthma/copd
heart failure
heart block
severe hypotension

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23
Q

side effect of adenosine?

A

feeling of dying/doom

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24
Q

treatment if pharma mgt of SVT fails?

A

DC cardioversion

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25
Q

doses of adenosine in SVT?

A

initially 6mg, then 12 then 18

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26
Q

procedural tx of SVT?

A

radiofrequency ablation

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27
Q

what medications are used for pharma cardioversion in AF?

A

flecanide
amiodarone

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28
Q

5 most common causes of AF?

A

hypertension
ischaemic ht disease
mitral valve pathology
sepsis
thyrotoxicosis?

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29
Q

which rhythms are shockable?

A

v fib
v tach

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30
Q

which rhythms are non shockable?

A

PEA
asystole

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31
Q

4 types of pacemakers?

A

single chamber
dual chamber
biventricular (triple chamber)
implantable cardioverter defibs

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32
Q

indications for pacemaker? (5)

A
  1. symptomatic brady
  2. mobitz type 2 av block
  3. 3rd degree ht block
  4. severe ht failure
  5. hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (ICD)
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33
Q

what is dresslers syndrome?

A

2-6 weeks post MI
autoimmune reaction against antigenic proteins formed as the myocardium recovers

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34
Q

features of dresslers syndrome?

A

fever
pleuritic pain
pericardial effusion
raised ESR

35
Q

management of dresslers syndrome?

A

NSAIDs

36
Q

management of massive PE when hypotensive?

A

thrombolysis

37
Q

provoked PE anticoag time?

A

3 months

38
Q

unprovoked PE anticoag time?

A

6 months

39
Q

secondary prevention medications post MI?

A

all patients:
dual antiplatelets (aspirin + other)
ACE inhibitor
Beta blocker
Statin

40
Q

management of acute pericarditis?

A

NSAIDs and colchicine

41
Q

presentation of acute pericarditis?

A

pleuritic chest pain L sided
relieved by sitting forward
saddle shaped widespread ST elevation

42
Q

acute HF with respiratory failure not responding to treatment?

A

consider CPAP

43
Q

causative organism of infective endocarditis in IVDU or acute presentation?

A

staph aureus

44
Q

causative organism of infective endocarditis linked to dental procedure/poor dental hygiene?

A

strep viridans (mitis/sanguinis)

45
Q

causative organism of infective endocarditis in patient post valve surgery/with indwelling lines?

A

staph epidermidis

46
Q

causative organism of infective endocarditis linked to colorectal cancer?

A

streptococcus bovis (subtype gallolyticus)

47
Q

non infective causes of IE?

A

SLE (libman-sacks)
malignancy - marantic endocarditis

48
Q

culture negative causes of IE?

A

prior abx therapy
coxiella burnetii
bartonella
brucella
HACEK (haemophilus, actinobacillus, cardiobacterium, eikenella, kingella)

49
Q

what is dresslers syndrome?

A

autoimmune pericarditis
pain worse on inspiration
raised ESR
low grade fever
4-6wks post MI

50
Q

features of rheumatic fever?

A

recent strep infection
erythema marginatum
sydenhams chorea
polyarthritis
carditis and valvulitis (murmur)
subcut nodules

51
Q

score used in suspected obstructive sleep apnoea?

A

epworth scale

52
Q

most common CXR findings in PE?

A

normal

53
Q

adenosine doses for narrow complex tachycardia?

A

6 -> 12 -> 18

54
Q

cause of AV block post inferior MI?

A

occlusion of right coronary artery -> ischaemia of the AV node

55
Q

new BP over 180/120 + retinal haemorrhage/papilloedema management?

A

admit for specialist assessment

56
Q

initial non pharma management of SVT?

A

valsalva manoeuvre
carotid sinus massage

57
Q

main drug in tx of SVT?

A

adenosine

58
Q

contraindications to adenosine?

A

asthma
copd
HF
heart block
severe hypotension

59
Q

if adenosine fails to resolve SVT?

A

DC cardioversion

60
Q

prodedural tx of recurrent episodes of SVT?

A

radiofrequency ablation

61
Q

secondary prevention after MI 6 As?

A

Aspirin
Another antiplatelet eg clopi or ticag
Atorvastatin
ACE-i
Atenolol
Aldosterone antagonist in those with clinical HF

62
Q

inheritance of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy?

A

autosomal dominant

63
Q
A
64
Q
A
65
Q

hypertension: already taking ACE-i, CCB, thiazide - what next?

A

add spiro if potassium in good range

66
Q

most common ECG change in PE?

A

sinus tachycardia

67
Q

NSTEMI with grace score >3%?

A

immediate coronary angiography (+/- PCI) if unstable, within 72h if stable

68
Q

echocardiographic features in takotsubo cardiomyopathy?

A

apical ballooning of the myocardium ‘octopus pot’

69
Q

murmur in aortic regurgitation?

A

diastolic
-»> also get head bobbing (de mussets sign)

70
Q

score to assess whether PE pt can be discharged?

A

PESI score

71
Q

abx that should be avoided in long QT?

A

erythromycin

72
Q

which medication increases risk of gout?

A

thiazide diuretics eg bendro
-> dec uric acid excretion from kidneys

73
Q

ECG features of hypokalaemia?

A

small or absent T waves
prolonged PR interval
ST depression
long QT

74
Q

what is torsades de pointes?

A

polymorphic ventricular tachycardia associated with long QT interval
may deteriorate into Vfib

75
Q

treatment of torsades de pointes?

A

mag sulf

76
Q

ECG changes in brugada syndrome?

A

convex ST segment elevation >2mm in >1 of V1-V3 followed by a negative T wave

77
Q

scoring system for infective endocarditis?

A

modified duke criteria

78
Q

ECG changes in WPW syndrome?

A

short PR interval
wide QRS complexes with a slurred upstroke - ‘delta wave’
left axis deviation

79
Q

management of WPW syndrome?

A

radiofrequency ablation of the accessory pathway

80
Q

valve problem associated with collapsing pulse and wide pulse pressure?

A

aortic regurgitation

81
Q

cardiac condition associated with marfans syndrome?

A

aortic regurg
mARfans
= AR

82
Q

hypercalcaemia ECG abnormality?

A

SHORT QT

83
Q
A

Daisy Finals Revision (25 decks)

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