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Clinical Nursing May Exam > Infectious diseases > Flashcards

Infectious diseases Flashcards

1
Q

define infectious

A

able to be passed from one person, animal, plant to another

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2
Q

define zoonosis

A

disease that can be passed from animals to humans

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3
Q

define reverse zoonosis

A

disease passed from humans to animals

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4
Q

define community acquired

A

disease acquired in the community

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5
Q

define nosocomial

A

disease acquired in hospital

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6
Q

define commensal

A

organism that inhibits a specific mucosal surface in the body normally and is non-pathogenic

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7
Q

define pathogenic

A

disease causing

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8
Q

what type of organisms are bacteria?

A

single celled prokaryotic

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9
Q

how do bacteria reproduce?

A

binary fission

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10
Q

list shapes of bacteria

A

coccoid- spherical
bacillus- rods
spiral

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11
Q

how are bacterial infections diagnosed?

A

organism detection by microscope or culture

demonstration of antibody

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12
Q

how are pathogenic bacteria treated?

A

antibiotics

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13
Q

how does viruses cause disease?

A

replicates in living host causing it to become virus factory and eventually cell death

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14
Q

how are viruses diagnosed?

A

PCR to demonstrate virus

demonstration of antibody

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15
Q

how are viruses treated?

A

antivirals

supportive therapy

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16
Q

describe the structure of fungi

A

multicellular eukaryotes with complex cell structures

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17
Q

define heterotrophic fungi

A

cant make their own food

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18
Q

what is significant about heterotrophic fungi?

A

rely on host for nutrients

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19
Q

how do fungi and parasites reproduce?

A

asexual or sexual

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20
Q

when do fungi typically cause infection?

A

if immunocompromised

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21
Q

how are fungal infections diagnosed?

A

organism identification by microscope, culture or DNA

antibody demonstration

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22
Q

how are fungal infections treated?

A

antifungals

often is long treatment

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23
Q

what are examples of types of parasites?

A

protozoa
ectoparasites
worms

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24
Q

describe general structure of parasites

A

eukaryotic multicellular organisms

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25
Q

how are parasites diagnosed?

A

identification by microscope, gross visualisation

identifying antigens or DNA

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26
Q

how are parasites treated?

A

anti parasitics

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27
Q

what is the structure of protozoa?

A

single celled eukaryotic with complex cell structures

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28
Q

what is the normal affect caused by protozoa?

A

GI effects

multisystemic disease

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29
Q

what is the usual two forms of protozoa?

A

cyst

trophozoite

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30
Q

how are protozoa diagnosed?

A

organism detection by microscopy, antigens, DNA

demonstrating antibodies

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31
Q

how are protozoa treated?

A

antiprotozoals

some antibiotics

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32
Q

state measures for controlling spread of infection

A 
PPE
barrier nursing
handwashing
single use equipment
thorough cleaning
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33
Q

when is cat flu most common?

A

over crowding or multi cat households

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34
Q

what are the main causes of cat flu which cause the most severe disease?

A

FHV-1

FCV

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35
Q

what are other less common causes of cat flu?

A

chlamydia felis
bordetella bronchiseptica
secondary bacterial infection

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36
Q

what is the structure of FHV-1?

A

enveloped DNA virus

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37
Q

how long does FHV-1 effect cats once infected?

A

become latent carriers lifelong with stressful events triggering reactivation of shedding

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38
Q

when does FHV-1 transmit from cats?

A

4-12 days after reactivation of shedding for 1 week

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39
Q

how does FHV-1 transmit?

A

fomites

close contact

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40
Q

do all cats shedding FHV-1 or FCV have clinical signs?

A

not all

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41
Q

list clinical signs of FHV-1 shedding cats

A 
conjunctivitis
ocular discharge
sneezing
nasal discharge
salivation
lethargy
inappetence
fever
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42
Q

what is the structure of FCV?

A

non-enveloped DNA virus

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43
Q

how does infection of FCV persist in cats?

A

stays in oropharyngeal tissues for over a month, may last whole life
in this time is shedding continually

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44
Q

what are symptoms of FCV shedding cats?

A 
sneezing
nasal congestion
fever
drooling
nasal and ocular discharge
mouth ulcers
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45
Q

how is FCV spread?

A

fomites
close contact
aerosols

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46
Q

how is cat flu transmitted?

A

direct or indirect contact
respiratory secretions entering URT
FCV in excretions as is in systemic tissues

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47
Q

how long is the incubation period for FHV-1 and FCV?

A

2-6 days with no clinical signs

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48
Q

what cats are most affected by FHV-1 and FCV infections?

A

kittens
immunocompromised
secondary infections present

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49
Q

how are FHV-1 and FCV diagnosed?

A

swabs
PCR
virus isolation
culture

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50
Q

list nursing care for cat flu patients

A

keep face clean and comfortable
barrier cream to prevent discharge scalding
eye lube if ulcers or discharge
nebulisation to loosen secretions

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51
Q

what medications may be used for patients with cat flu?

A 
antivirals
antibiotics if secondary infections
analgesia
appetite stimulants
mucolytics if very thick mucus
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52
Q

what is the best way to give medication to cat flu patients and why?

A

injectable as oral may be uncomfortable

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53
Q

what are handling considerations for patients with cat flu?

A

dont restrain with hand under chin as may put pressure on pharyngeal inflammation
moving head could cause pharyngeal obstruction if inflamed

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54
Q

what are nursing considerations for nutrition of cat flu patients?

A

maintain hydration and electrolytes
oral food preferred, hand feeding if needed or feeding tube
consider anti-emetics, analgesia and appetite stimulants

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55
Q

name some antiviral drugs that can be used to treat cat flu

A

famciclovir
lysine
recombinant feline interferon

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56
Q

when are secondary bacterial infections suspected in cats with cat flu?

A

thick mucous discharge

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57
Q

how is environment managed in cat flu patients?

A

through cleaning of fomites and cages

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58
Q

how do you clean to kill FHV-1 and FCV?

A

FHV-1- most disinfectants

FCV- bleach, hydrogen peroxide as resistant to most disinfectants

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59
Q

how long do FHV-1 and FCV last in environment?

A

FHV-1- 18 hours

FCV- up to a month

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60
Q

how should cat flu patients be managed in hospital?

A

isolation if clinical signs or suspected carrier
ideally only one staff member in contact
barrier nursing
good hygiene

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61
Q

what ways are there to prevent cat flu?

A

vaccination
immunity
population management

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62
Q

how do vaccines prevent cat flu?

A

core vaccines mostly protect so reduces severity and incidence

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63
Q

what type of vaccines are used for cat flu?

A

live attenuated

inactivated

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64
Q

what is the protocol for vaccinating against cat flu?

A

6-8 weeks old
every 3-4 weeks until 16 weeks
every 1-3 years
queen before mating

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65
Q

how is immunity against cat flu achieved?

A

local humoral
cell mediated
colostrum gives 6-16 weeks protection with MDA

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66
Q

what population management measures can reduce incidence of cat flu?

A

minimise stress
quarantine new arrivals to multi cat households for 3-4 weeks to give chance to show signs if asymptomatic
dont breed if clinically affected

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67
Q

what is highly virulent calicivirus?

A

virulent systemic disease

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68
Q

what are signs of highly virulent calicivirus?

A 
ulcers
crusting
alopecia
oedema
pulmonary oedema
pleural effusion 
icterus
vomiting
diarrhoea
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69
Q

what are signs of severe highly virulent calici virus?

A 
pyrexia
anorexia
lethargy
weight loss
death
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70
Q

state the two forms of chlamydia felis?

A

elementary body

reticulate body

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71
Q

what is chlamydia felis?

A

obligate intracellular bacteria

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72
Q

what is the difference between the elementary and reticulate body form of chlamydia felis?

A

elementary- infectious form

reticulate- non-infectious form

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73
Q

how does elementary become reticulate body of chlamydia felis?

A

attaches to host epithelial cells
internalised to inclusion
morphs to reticulate body

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74
Q

how is elementary form of chlamydia felis transmitted?

A

direct contact mainly but can survive few days in environment

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75
Q

how does reticulate become elementary body of chlamydia felis?

A

replicates in host cells
matures into EB
released from cell causing damage to host

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76
Q

what is the incubation period for chlamydia felis?

A

2-5 days

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77
Q

how does chlamydia felis present?

A

feline conjunctivitis

URT signs

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78
Q

how is chlamydia felis diagnosed?

A

PCR from conjunctiva swab

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79
Q

how is chlamydia felis treated?

A

oral doxycycline for 4 weeks, at least 2 weeks past clinical resolution
nursing hygiene
non-core vaccine

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80
Q

what type of bacteria is bordetelle bronchiseptica?

A

aerobic
gram negative
cocco-bacilli

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81
Q

where is bordetella bronchiseptica most prevalant?

A

high density populations

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82
Q

how long does bordetella bronchiseptica survive in the environment?

A

10 days

killed by most disinfectants

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83
Q

how is bordetella bronchiseptica transmitted?

A

airborne
fomites
infected water

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84
Q

how long is incubation period of bordetella bronchiseptica?

A

2-10 days

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85
Q

what is the effect of respiratory colonisation of bordetella bronchiseptica?

A

inflammation
mucus production
impairs host defence so prone to secondary infections

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86
Q

what are signs of bordetella bronchiseptica infection?

A

URT infection
sneezing
mucus nasal discharge
harsh cough

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87
Q

how is bordetella bronchiseptica diagnosed?

A

culture and sensitivity and PCR of bronchoalveolar lavage

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88
Q

how is bordetella bronchiseptica treated?

A

doxycycline when needed for 1-4 weeks

non-core vaccine

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89
Q

what is the structure of FIV and FeLV?

A

enveloped RNA virus

retrovirus

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90
Q

what is meant by retrovirus

A

viral RNA is reverse transcribed in cell to proviral DNA

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91
Q

how is FIV and FeLV treated?

A

home management

supportive management

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92
Q

what supportive management measures should be in place for FIV and FeLV?

A 
good hydration and nutrition
manage manifestations of disease
may use antivirals
regular health checks
give core vaccines
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93
Q

what home management measures should be in place for FIV and FeLV?

A

indoors to prevent transmission and limit risk of opportunistic infections
separate positive and negative cats
no hunting or raw food as susceptible to bacteria

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94
Q

how long do cats with FIV typically live?

A

normal life length

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95
Q

how is FIV transmitted?

A

bite wounds
saliva
mother to kittens
infected blood products

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96
Q

what is signalment for FIV?

A

fighters
outdoor cats
older cats
males

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97
Q

what is the general infection period for FIV?

A

lifelong with long asymptomatic period

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98
Q

what are the 3 phases of infection of FIV?

A

acute
asymptomatic
terminal

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99
Q

what is the acute phase of FIV infection?

A

replicates in local lymphoid tissue
peak viraemia 8-12 post infection
some mild illness

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100
Q

define viraemia

A

viral replication

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101
Q

what is the asymptomatic phase of FIV infection?

A

impaired lymphocyte response to infectious agents as attacks CD4+ cells
may last lifetime but normally months to years

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102
Q

what is the terminal phase of FIV infection?

A

progression from asymptomatic phase where become highly susceptible to other disease

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103
Q

what are clinical signs of FIV?

A 
skin infection
carcinoma
skin or ocular lesions
anaemia
secondary infection
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104
Q

how is FIV diagnosed?

A

detection of antibodies against FIV

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105
Q

what does positive FIV test result mean?

A

FIV infection unless vaccinated as produces same antibodies or kitten as may still have maternal antibodies
confirm with different method

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106
Q

when are false negative results for FIV possible?

A

early disease
terminal disease as antibodies impaired
kittens with rapidly progressing disease

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107
Q

if negative FIV test result but disease is suspected what should you do?

A

recheck after 2 months

PCR blood for FIV

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108
Q

when should you test for FIV?

A 
known exposure
rehoming to multi cat household
before blood screening
before vaccinating against FIV
seropositive kittens once 6 months to confirm
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109
Q

how is FIV prevented?

A

vaccinate for some protection in seronegative cats

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110
Q

what is the prognosis for cats with FIV when sick and healthy?

A

sick- less than a year
healthy- normal life usually
euthanasia if other infection compromises health

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111
Q

why if FeLV more strongly associated with clinical disease than FIV?

A

more pathogenic

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112
Q

how is FeLV transmitted?

A 
allogrooming
fomites
prolonged oronasal salivary exposure
mother to kittens
infected blood products
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113
Q

what is signalment for FeLV?

A

close contact cats
outdoor
young cats
unvaccinated

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114
Q

what is the result of strong immune response to FeLV infection?

A

abortive infection so becomes immune

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115
Q

what are signs of initial FeLV infection?

A

non-specific- inappetence, pyrexia, lethargy

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116
Q

what is the result of immune system failing to respond to FeLV infection?

A

haematogenous spread around the body

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117
Q

how is regressive infection of FeLV achieved once spread is haematogenous or in bone marrow?

A

effective immune response

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118
Q

what is the result of failed immune response when FeLV is haematogenous?

A

infects bone marrow

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119
Q

what is the result of inadequate immune response to bone marrow infection of FeLV or regressive infection progressing?

A

infection progresses
persistent viraemia
manifestation of FeLV related disease

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120
Q

what are clinical manifestations of FeLV?

A

anaemia
bone marrow disorders
neoplasia
immunosuppression

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121
Q

what is the effect of FeLV associated immunosuppression?

A

opportunistic infections
gingivostomatitis
URT infection

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122
Q

what are the typical FeLV related bone marrow disorders?

A

non-regenerative anaemia
neutropenia
thrombocytopenia

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123
Q

what are the most common FeLV related neoplasia?

A

lymphoma

leukaemia

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124
Q

what are other FeLV related diseases?

A 
anisocoria
reproductive failure
neurological signs
immune mediated disease
GI signs
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125
Q

how is FeLV diagnosed?

A

ELISA for FeLV antigen then redo as false positive possible
confirmed with immunofluorescent antibody test of blood and bone marrow to look for FeLV antigens, PCR of blood, bone marrow, tissues

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126
Q

how often should you reassess healthy FeLV positive cats for regressive infection?

A

4-6 month intervals

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127
Q

why are FeLV test false negatives possible?

A

can take 1 month for antigen to be detectable

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128
Q

when should you retest if have negative FeLV test result?

A

suspected exposure

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129
Q

why doesnt maternal antibodies or vaccination affect test for FeLV?

A

tests antigens not antibodies

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130
Q

how is FeLV prevented?

A

non-core vaccine every 1-3 years which also prophylactically protects from progressive infection

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131
Q

which cats should be vaccinated against FeLV?

A

outdoors

multi cat house

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132
Q

what is prognosis for FeLV?

A

if regressive leads to FeLV associated disease in 3-5 years

when sick rapidly deteriorate

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133
Q

what is the structure of coronaviruses?

A

RNA virus

large and enveloped

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134
Q

define quasispecies

A

slightly different variations of something

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135
Q

what causes quasispecies of coronaviruses?

A

frequent mistakes in replication

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136
Q

what are the effects of the different virulences of coronaviruses?

A

low- GI infection, no disease
medium- GI infection and disease
high- affects macrophages, multisystemic, fatal disease

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137
Q

how is FCoV transmitted?

A

faeco-orally

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138
Q

what is the process of FCoV infection in cats?

A

replicates in intestine, occasionally causing SI diarrhoea

1 week later virus shed in faeces, can be lifelong

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139
Q

what is the prevalence of FCoV infection?

A

high prevalence of infection up to 100% of cats

low prevalence of clinical disease

140
Q

what happens if FCoV mutates?

A

becomes FIP

141
Q

what type of disease is FIP?

A

sporadic in 5% cats so happens in vivo in individuals and doesn’t spread

142
Q

how does FIP replicate?

A

in macrophages so is systemic

143
Q

what are the two types of FIP and which is most common?

A

wet- most common

dry

144
Q

how is wet FIP caused?

A

inflammation of vessels causes fluid leakage

145
Q

what are the signs of wet FIP?

A 
pleural, pericardial and abdominal effusions
tachypnoea
dyspnoea
jaundice
lethargy
pyrexia
weight loss
inappetence
146
Q

how is dry FIP caused?

A

inflammation around vessels causes granulomas in multiple organs

147
Q

where do granulomas tend to form in dry FIP?

A 
lymph nodes
brain 
eyes
intestines
liver
kidneys
148
Q

what are the signs of dry FIP?

A 
organ dysfunction
organomegaly
effusions leading to wet FIP
jaundice
lethargy
inappetence
weight loss 
pyrexia
149
Q

how is FIP diagnosed?

A

no test, but look at history, biochem, effusion analysis, haematology

150
Q

why cant tests distinguish between FCoV and FIP and how can you?

A

same virus

look at if affecting macrophages or causing multisystemic disease

151
Q

what is signalment for FIP?

A 
young pure breeds
multi cat households
1-3 years old
geriatric
stressors
152
Q

what are general findings of FIP cats?

A 
weight loss
jaundice
effusions
ocular changes
neurological change
enlarged lymph nodes, kidney, liver
153
Q

what is typically seen in haematology of FIP cats?

A

normal
lymphopenia
anaemia

154
Q

what is typically seen in biochemistry of FIP cats?

A

hyperproteinaemia
low albumin
high bilirubin
high alpha 1 acid glycoprotein

155
Q

what are signs of FIP seen on imaging?

A

fluid development
effusions
lymphadenomegaly
organ changes

156
Q

what does exudate tend to look like for FIP cats?

A

thick and yellow

157
Q

why is testing for FCoV not beneficial?

A

shows antibodies but most cats already have previous exposure even if healthy

158
Q

what is aim of treatment for FIP?

A

improve quality of life as fatal

159
Q

what is prognosis for FIP?

A

most ill enough for euthanasia within weeks of diagnosis

160
Q

what is the consequence of lack of cell mediated immunity against FCoV?

A

partial or no protection

161
Q

describe immunity against FCoV

A

kittens have 6 weeks MDA

immunity is short lasting

162
Q

why is vaccination against FCoV not reccomended?

A

only licenced one is at 16 weeks but most infected by then
may not provide systemic protection
FIP developing after vaccination may make signs worse

163
Q

how long can FCoV survive in the environment and how is it managed?

A

up to 7 weeks

susceptible to most disinfectants

164
Q

what measures are needed if cat dies from FIP?

A

inform breeder
if single cat house wait 2 months before new cat so FCoV dies
if multicat reduce stress and keep clean but probably already exposed

165
Q

what are breeder considerations for FCoV positive cats?

A

queens kept from other cats
may wean early before MDA wane
avoid breeding if multiple FIP kittens as may be in lineage
quarantine house for 6 months with no breeding

166
Q

how can you prevent FCoV?

A 
minimise stress
separate major events
avoid over crowding
good hygiene to prevent spread in faeces 
almost impossible to be FCoV free
167
Q

what is toxoplasmosis?

A

protozoal parasite

168
Q

what is the definitive and intermediate hosts of toxoplasmosis?

A

DH- cats

IH- warm blooded vertebrates, cats, people

169
Q

define definitive host

A

host parasite is sexually mature and reproduces in

170
Q

define intermediate host

A

host one or more stages of parasitic development occurs

171
Q

define transport host

A

host parasite can survive but wont develop in

vector to other hosts

172
Q

what are the lifestages of toxoplasmosis?

A

oocyst
merozoites
tachyzoites
bradyzoites

173
Q

what oocyst forms of toxoplasmosis are there?

A

unsporulated/non-infectious

sporulated/infectious

174
Q

what is schizogony for toxoplasmosis?

A

asexual reproduction of oocyst to produce merozoites

175
Q

how does toxoplasmosis transform from merozoites to bradyzoites?

A

merozoites differentiate to macrogamete/female or microgamete/male which sexually reproduce
tachyzoites are formed in the dividing stage and is active infection
once slowly dividing are bradyzoites and latent infection
if ingested transform to merozoites in GI tract

176
Q

how do cats tend to be infected with toxoplasmosis?

A

hunting and ingesting bradyzoites in prey

177
Q

how does infection of toxoplasmosis spread from IH?

A

faecally shed for up to 3 weeks post infection

178
Q

how does toxoplasmosis spread in IH?

A

ingested to GIT
penetrates tract and spread in blood and lymph
enters cells and rapidly asexually replicates as tachyzoites causing clinical disease
bradyzoites produced which may persist or reactivate

179
Q

what are clinical signs of toxoplasmosis infection in IH?

A

related to site of replication

180
Q

what is the immune response against toxoplasmosis?

A

antibodies produced

in most IH enough to prevent replication and disease but may reactivate later

181
Q

what are risks for toxoplasmosis?

A

faecal ingestion
hunting
raw food
age as more opportunity for exposure

182
Q

what are clinical signs of toxoplasmosis?

A 
organ related
uveitis
chorioretinitis
neurological signs
hepatic
pancreatic
dyspnoea
GI signs
183
Q

how can toxoplasmosis be diagnosed?

A

cytology or histology to look for organism
CSF analysis
effusion analysis
PCr

184
Q

how is toxoplasmosis treated?

A

clindamycin for 4 weeks

supportive care

185
Q

what is prognosis for toxoplasmosis?

A

treatment supresses but doesnt eliminate infection so may recur
poor if CNS, pulmonary or hepatic involvement, immunosuppression or other disease
if survive may have some dysfunction

186
Q

what is the main risk of catching toxoplasmosis in people?

A

eating raw meat with tissue cysts

187
Q

what is the pathogenic form of haemoplasmosis?

A

mycoplasma haemofelis

188
Q

what are other forms of haemoplasmosis?

A

candidatus mycoplasma haemominutum

candidatus mycoplasma turicensis

189
Q

how can haemoplasmosis be transmitted?

A

blood transfusions
fleas
bite wounds
mother to kittens

190
Q

what are risks for haemoplasmosis?

A 
outdoors
males
non-pedigree
young
FIV or FeLV positive
191
Q

what type of pathogen is mycoplasma haemofelis?

A

erythrocytic cell surface pathogen

192
Q

how long is incubation for mycoplasma haemofelis?

A

2 days to 1 month

193
Q

what is the pathogenesis of mycoplasma haemofelis?

A 
lasts 1-4 weeks
cyclical pathogen present with anaemia
rapidly replicates
varied disease severity and duration
removed by immune system
194
Q

how do cats survive mycoplasma haemofelis?

A

treatment

natural recovery by clearing organisms from blood

195
Q

what are clinical signs of mycoplasma haemofelis?

A 
anaemia
weakness
lethargy
inappetence
tachypnoea
icterus
tachycardia
splenomegaly
pyreixa
196
Q

what can be found in haematology of mycoplasma haemofelis patients?

A

anaemia
reticulocytes
autoagglutination from antibodies on RBC surface

197
Q

how is mycoplasma haemofelis diagnosed?

A

blood smear

PCR to look for DNA

198
Q

how is mycoplasma haemofelis treated?

A

doxycycline for 2 weeks

blood transfusions as needed

199
Q

what are the effects of CPV2 infection?

A

haemorrhagic gastroenteritis

200
Q

how is CPV2 spread?

A

faeco oral spread, especially diarrhoea

201
Q

what inactivates CPV2?

A

bleach

202
Q

what tissues does CVP2 effect?

A

rapidly dividing tissues
neonatal myocardium
bone marrow
intestinal crypt cells

203
Q

what is signalment for CVP2?

A

inadequately protected puppy in immunity gap

unvaccinated adults

204
Q

how does CPV2 cause haemorrhagic gastroenteritis?

A

prevents production of intestinal enterocytes so villi become uncovered, ulcerated and bleed

205
Q

what are signs of CPV2?

A 
haemorrhagic diarrhoea
vomiting
anorexia
depression
abdominal pain
neutropenia
sepsis
pyrexia
death
206
Q

how is CPV2 diagnosed?

A

clinical suspicion
faecal parvovirus antigen ELISA
post mortem

207
Q

how is CPV2 treated?

A 
aggressive IVFT
monitor electrolytes and glucose
NO tube feeding
anti-emetics
antibiotics to prevent sepsis
208
Q

what are nursing considerations for CPV2?

A 
keep comfortable, clean and warm
ensure euvolaemic and euhydrated
monitor for pyrexia and hypothermia
early nutrition
company
barrier nurse
209
Q

how can CPV2 be prevented?

A

barrier nursing

vaccination

210
Q

what affects prognosis for CPV2?

A

patient
viral load
provision of supportive care

211
Q

what is feline parvovirus?

A

feline leukopenia or infectious enteritis

closely related to canine parvo

212
Q

what is leptospirosis and how does it present?

A

zoonotic bacterial infection

acute hepatic or renal injury

213
Q

how is leptospirosis found in the environment and how is it inactivated?

A

infected urine

heat, frost, UV radiation

214
Q

describe how dogs become infected with leptospirosis

A

contaminated urine contacts MM or compromised skin
replicates in blood then infects kidney and sheds in urine
1 week incubation

215
Q

what is presentation of leptospirosis?

A 
jaundice
renal failure
lethargy
inappetance
V+, D+
pyrexia
an or polyuria
216
Q

what are lab findings in patients infected with leptospirosis?

A

thrombocytopenia
high liver enzymes
azotaemia

217
Q

how is leptospirosis diagnosed?

A

demonstrate serologic conversion

PCR of blood or urine to identify organism

218
Q

how is leptospirosis treated?

A

doxycycline for 2 weeks
amoxicillin clavulanate
supportive therapy
treat if suspected even if not confirmed

219
Q

what is prognosis for leptospirosis?

A

50% full recovery
chronic disease
death

220
Q

state nursing care for leptospirosis patients

A 
hygiene
barrier nursing
cage signs
urination area to limit spread and monitor UOP
avoid contact with fluids
221
Q

what can be the effect in humans if infected with leptospirosis?

A

weils disease

mild and flu like to multisystemic disease and abortion

222
Q

what is canine distemper virus?

A

enveloped RNA morbillivirus

223
Q

what does CDV effect in the body?

A

GI, respiratory, neuro and dermatological systems

224
Q

what dogs are mainly at risk of CDV?

A

unvaccinated dogs

225
Q

how is CDV spread?

A

oronasal secretions

226
Q

how does CDV infection spread in the body?

A

enters tonsils or lymphoid tissue of URT
replicates
enters monocytes
moves into reticuloendothelial system/liver, spleen, lungs
shed in body secretions and excretions before signs

227
Q

where does CDV tend to localise?

A 
epithelial tissue
resp
GI
CNS
urinary
skin
blood cells
228
Q

what is acute presentation of CDV?

A 
pyrexia
lethargy
cough
oronasal discharge
vomiting
diarrhoea
neuro signs
secondary infection
229
Q

what affects variability for CDV?

A

host
pathogenicity
dose

230
Q

what are signs of chronic CDV?

A 
CNS signs
seizures
blindness
enamel and dentin hypoplasia
dermatological signs
231
Q

how is CDV diagnosed?

A

lymphopenia
organism identification by swabs, cytology, ELISA, PCR
antibody detection

232
Q

how is CDV treated?

A

barrier nurse

supportive therapy

233
Q

how do you get immunity to CDV?

A

cell mediated from natural infection which is lifelong

234
Q

what is CAV-1?

A

infectious canine hepatitis

235
Q

how long odes CAV-1 survive in environment and how is it deactivated?

A

months

disinfectants

236
Q

who is at risk for CAV-1

A

juvenile

unvaccinated

237
Q

how is CAV-1 transmitted?

A

shed in saliva, faeces and urine

direct or fomite transmission

238
Q

how does CAV-1 act in the body?

A 
enters oropharynx
replicates in tonsils
enters lymph system and blood
enters hepatocytes and endothelial cells
replicates in cell nucleus and causes cell injury and lysis
239
Q

how long is CAV-1 incubation?

A

4-9 days

240
Q

what is seen in acute clinical disease of CAV-1?

A

severe disease for 1-2 weeks

30% mortality

241
Q

when do dogs get subclinical signs of CAV-1?

A

immunologically competent
vaccinated
immune

242
Q

what is seen in per-acute clinical disease of CAV-1?

A

circulatory collapse and death in 1-2 days

243
Q

what are clinical signs of CAV-1?

A 
hepatic injury
petechial or GI haemorrhage
ocular signs
pyrexia
lethargy
tachypnoea
kidney damage
244
Q

what is the antibody response against CAV-1?

A

from 7 days after infection unless poor immune system as dies before this

245
Q

how is CAV-1 diagnosed?

A 
leukopenia
neutropenia
biochemistry showing hepatocellular injury and dysfunction
coagulopathic
viral identification by PCR
246
Q

how is CAV-1 treated?

A

barrier nurse

supportive therapy

247
Q

what is prognosis for CAV-1?

A

depends on severity and immune response
if survive my have chronic liver or renal illness
survival means life long protections

248
Q

what is CAV-2?

A

respiratory pathogen part of kennel cough complex causing mild disease

249
Q

what is CHV-1?

A

fading puppy syndrome

latent infection of neural ganglia which reactivates at times of stress

250
Q

how is CHV-1 transmitted?

A

sexually

251
Q

why does CHV-1 disease tend to be just in puppies?

A

replicates less than 37 degrees and adults body temperature is warmer

252
Q

what makes up kennel cough/canine infectious respiratory disease complex?

A

bordetella brocnhiseptica
canine parainfluenza
CAV-2

253
Q

what is typical presentation of kennel cough?

A

acute URT cough

sometimes oculonasal signs or pneumonia

254
Q

how is kennel cough transmitted?

A

aerosols

direct or fomite contact highly contagious to unvaccinated

255
Q

how are systemically well dogs with kennel cough managed?

A

keep away from other dogs
NSAIDs if needed
resolve in 1-2 weeks

256
Q

how are systemically unwell dogs with kennel cough managed?

A

antibiotics
radiography LRT
check for other diseases

257
Q

what are risks for bacterial enterocolitis

A

raw fed
young
unclean environment

258
Q

what is nursing care for bacterial enterocolitis?

A 
barrier nursing
hygiene
IVTF
analgesia
anti-emetics
temperature
259
Q

what is bacterial enterocolitis?

A

infection by bacteria that normally resides in GI tract

260
Q

what are clinical signs of bacterial enterocolitis?

A

haemorrhagic vomiting and diarrhoea
pyrexia
sepsis
endotoxemia

261
Q

what bacteria can cause bacterial enterocolitis?

A

campylobacter spp.
salmonella spp.
E coli
clostridium perfringens

262
Q

what are signs of salmonella infection?

A

pyrexia
leucocytosis
GI signs

263
Q

how is salmonella infection diagnosed?

A

faecal culture
blood culture
PCR

264
Q

what is significant about cases of bacterial enterocolitis?

A

presence of bacteria doesnt mean cause of illness

265
Q

how and when is salmonella infection treated?

A

antibiotics if systemically unwell

266
Q

how is E coli diagnosed?

A

faecal culture

evaluate for pathogenicity genes

267
Q

how is E coli infection treated?

A

antimicrobials

268
Q

how does E coli infection present?

A

diarrhoea

granulomatous colitis

269
Q

how is clostridium perfringens infection diagnosed?

A

LI diarrhoea
ELISA test
PCR for genes

270
Q

how is clostridium perfringens treated?

A

metronidazole or ampicillin if systemically ill

271
Q

how does acute haemorrhagic diarrhoea syndrome/AHDS cause illness?

A

cause pore in enterocytes so water leaks into intestinal tract causing haemoconcentration, hypovolaemia, dehydration

272
Q

what is presentation of AHDS?

A 
acute haemorrhagic vomiting and diarrhoea
abdominal pain
obtunded
hypovolaemic shock
parvovirus
273
Q

how is AHDS diagnosed?

A

clinical signs
high PCV with normal proteins
other causes excluded

274
Q

how is AHDS treated?

A

IVFT
treat hypovolaemia
antibiotics if systemic illness

275
Q

when does clostridium difficile likely cause disease?

A

secondary to toxin production

276
Q

how is clostriduim difficile infection diagnosed?

A

faecal culture
antigen test
ELISA for toxins

277
Q

how is clostridium difficile infection treated?

A

metronidazole if indicated

278
Q

define vaccine

A

substance administered to stimulate immune response and immunological memory in host against specific disease

279
Q

why do we vaccinate?

A

protection from life threatening clinical disease

herd immunity

280
Q

define homeoprophylaxis

A

attempting to protect animal by homeopathic method

isnt classed as vaccination

281
Q

define immunity

A

protection from disease

282
Q

define active immunity

A

immunity acquired through vaccination

283
Q

define passive immunity

A

immunity acquired through maternally derived antibody

284
Q

what types of vaccines are considered infectious?

A

live
modified live
live attenuated

285
Q

how does infectious vaccines produce immune response?

A

modified whole pathogen circulates and infects cells at low levels triggering strong immune response

286
Q

state the types of non-infectious vaccines

A

killed

inactivated

287
Q

how do non-infectious vaccines produce immune response?

A

adjuvents stimulate weak immune response to pathogen so multiple doses are needed for strong immune response

288
Q

define antigen

A

substance immune system produces antibodies against

289
Q

what is the active component of vaccines?

A

antigens

290
Q

define antibody

A

immunoglobulin part of specific immune attack against specific antigen

291
Q

how are vaccines usually stored?

A

fridge at 2-8 degrees

292
Q

define adjuvent

A

substance added into vaccines

293
Q

list routes of admin of vaccines

A

SC
intranasal
IM
oral

294
Q

what are examples of mild adverse events after vaccinating?

A 
pyrexia
lethargy
inappetence
local swelling
2-3 days post vaccine
295
Q

what are examples of severe adverse events after vaccinating?

A

anyphylaxis

FISS

296
Q

define FISS

A

feline injection site sarcoma

tumour at site of injection

297
Q

when shouldn’t you vaccinate?

A

unhealthy
on steroids or immunosuppressants
evidence of prior reaction to vaccines
already infected or recovered from disease

298
Q

what is in the core canine vaccines and what type are they?

A

CDV- MLV
CAV-2- MLV
CPV-2- MLV
leptospirosis- inactivated

299
Q

why are puppies vaccinated at 6-8 weeks initially?

A

low enough MDA so own immune system can produce response

300
Q

what is the recommended schedule for virus puppy vaccinations following the first and why?

A

every 2-4 weeks until 16 weeks to catch puppies with high MDA

301
Q

what is typical virus vaccination schedule for puppies?

A

6-8 weeks old then 2-4 weeks later no earlier than 10 weeks old

302
Q

what is the difference between L2 and L4 vaccine?

A

L4 covers more species of leptospirosis

303
Q

when are leptospirosis vaccines given to puppies?

A

2 doses 2-4 weeks apart with core vaccines

304
Q

when are canine adult vaccines given?

A

annually from 12 months old
core vaccines- 3 years
leptospirosis- yearly

305
Q

define titre

A

levels of antibody in the blood

306
Q

what are classed as non-core canine vaccines?

A 
kennel cough- MLV, live, avirulent
CPiV
CHV
Coronavirus
Rabies
307
Q

list the core feline vaccines and the types they are

A

FHV-1- MLV
FCV- MLV
FPV- MLV

308
Q

when are kittens recommended to be vaccinated?

A

6-8 weeks then 2-4 weeks until 16 weeks

309
Q

what is the typical schedule for kitten vaccinations?

A

8-9 weeks then 3-4 weeks later no earlier than 12 weeks

310
Q

when are adult cats vaccinated?

A

annual vaccine from 12 months
FPV- 3 years
FHV-1 and FCV- annually

311
Q

list feline non-core vaccines

A 
FeLV
chlamydia felis
bordetella bronchiseptica
FCoV
rabies
312
Q

what is the purpose of import legislation for pets?

A

prevents spreading disease to countries free of the disease

313
Q

what is the aim of PETS?

A

protect UK from disease

314
Q

what is needed for entry to the UK?

A

pet passport
microchip
rabies vaccine and boosters- 21 days before unless non-listed 3rd country then 30 days after vaccine blood test to test Ab levels then 3 months after that allowed in

315
Q

what is the requirement for tapeworm for entry to UK?

A

treatment ideally praziquantel 1-5 days before entering given by vet and stamped in passport

316
Q

what is advice for ticks when travelling?

A

not legal but recommend up to date prevention

317
Q

what is leishmania infantum?

A

intracellular protozoan parasite using sand flies as vectors

zoonotic

318
Q

what is the effect of leishmania infantum?

A

multisystemic disease

319
Q

what are signs of leishmaniosis?

A

alopecia
crusty lesions
ulceration
eye inflammation

320
Q

what is sub-clinical disease of leishmaniosis

A

chronic disease reservoir

321
Q

what is found in clinical disease of leishmaniosis?

A

life threatening chronic complications
dermatological lesions
inflammation of kidney, joints, eyes
general illness signs

322
Q

how is leishmaniosis diagnosed?

A

cytology to visualise organisms
PCR to detect DNA
serology for antibodies

323
Q

define serology

A

blood test to measure level of antibodies in blood against specific organism

324
Q

how is leishmaniosis treated?

A

1st month- daily injections of meglumine antimonate
for 6-12 months- daily allopurinol tablets
manage complications
rare to eliminate fully

325
Q

how can leishmaniosis be prevented?

A

dont travel
control sandflies
leisguard
vaccinate to reduce risk of developing disease

326
Q

state examples of tick borne diseases

A

babesia spp
ehrlichia spp
anaplasma spp

327
Q

what does anaplasma and ehrlichia spp infect in the body?

A

neutrophils
platelets
monocytes

328
Q

what are clinical signs of anaplasma and ehrlichia spp?

A

asymptomatic to severe thrombocytopenia
pancytopenia
multisystemic disease

329
Q

how is anaplasma and ehrlichia spp diagnosed?

A

cytology
PCR
serology

330
Q

how is anaplasma and ehrlichia spp treated?

A

2-4 weeks doxycycline

tick control

331
Q

what is prognosis for ehrlichia spp?

A

guarded if chronic

332
Q

what type of parasite is babesia spp?

A

intraerythrocytic protozoa

333
Q

how can babesia spp be spread?

A

ticks
dog fights
iatrogenically

334
Q

what are clinical signs of babesia spp?

A 
haemolytic anaemia
jaundice
pigmenturia
thrombocytopenia 
splenomegaly
multiorgan failure
death
335
Q

how is babesia spp diagnosed?

A

cytology
blood smear
PCR
serology

336
Q

how is babesia spp treated?

A

drugs

supportive treatment

337
Q

what is prevention for babesia spp?

A

tick control

338
Q

what is dirofilariasis?

A

heart worm that causes right sided heart disease

339
Q

where is dirofilariasis found?

A

pulmonary arteries

340
Q

what is the life cycle of dirofilariasis?

A 
matures from L1 to L3 in 1-3 weeks
L3 infects dog
matures to L5 over few months
L5 migrates to vascular system
mates to produce L1 in circulation
341
Q

what are signs of dirofilariasis?

A 
asymptomatic at first
exercise intolerance
coughing
tachypnoea
dyspnoea
lethargy
fluid accumulation
342
Q

how is dirofilariasis diagnosed?

A

blood smear to detect L1
ELISA for antigens
imaging

343
Q

how is dirofilariasis treated?

A

vet cardiologist gives drugs to kill worms or removes surgically

344
Q

what is prognosis for dirofilariasis?

A

high risk of thromboembolism and death

345
Q

how can dirofilariasis be prevented?

A

prevention treatment if going to endemic country

manage mosquitos as vectors

Clinical Nursing May Exam (22 decks)

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