Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Clinical Nursing May Exam > Dermatology > Flashcards

Dermatology Flashcards

1
Q

state some dermatology problems

A 
pruritus
scale
alopecia
crusting
ulceration
nodules
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

define pruritus

A

itchy skin causing self trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what can be causes of pruritus?

A

allergy
parasites
microbial infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what can cause scale?

A

keratinisation disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is mean by primary skin lesions?

A

develop in skin of own accord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

define alopecia

A

hair loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

define bullae

A

localised collection of fluid over 0.5cm diameter

larger than vesicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

define erythema

A

diffuse or localised redness of skin which disappears with diascopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

define macule

A

flat circumscribed skin discolouration less than 1cm diameter without surface elevation and depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

define nodule

A

circumscribed solid elevation greater than 1cm usually extends into dermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

define papule

A

small solid elevation of the skin up to 1cm diameter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what causes papules?

A

infiltration of inflammatory cells, fluid, foreign material with oedema and epidermal hyperplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

define patch

A

big macule, localised flat change in skin pigment larger than 1cm in diameter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

define plaque

A

flat topped elevation of skin usually over 0.5cm, formed by coalition of papules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

define pustule

A

small circumscribed elevation of epidermis filled with purulent material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

define vesicle

A

small circumscribed elevation of epidermis filled with clear fluid, less than 0.5cm diameter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

define wheal

A

sharply circumscribed raised lesion consisting of oedema, usually appears and disappears within hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

list primary skin lesions

A 
alopecia
bullae
erythema
macule
nodule
papule
patch
plaque
vesicle
wheal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

list secondary skin lesions

A 
comedone
crust
epidermal collarette
fissure
hyperkeratosis
hyper and hypopigmentation
lichenification
scale
scar
ulcer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what are potential causes of secondary skin lesions?

A

self trauma
trauma
infections
regressing primary lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

define comedone

A

dilated hair follicle filled with cornified cells and sebaceous material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

define crust

A

dried exudate, cells, pus and scale adherent to surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

define epidermal collarette

A

erosion, superficial damage to epidermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

define fissure

A

linear cleavage into the epidermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

define hyperkeratosis

A

increase in thickness of cornified layer of skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

define lichenification

A

thickening of skin resulting in cobblestone appearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

define scale

A

accumulation of loose fragments of cornified layer of skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

define ulceration

A

full thickness loss of epidermis exposing the dermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

how do you approach diagnosing dermatological conditions?

A 
history
flea status
physical exam
problem list
differential diagnosis of possible causes
diagnostic plan for definitive cause
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

list diagnostic techniques for dermatology

A 
acetate tape for cytology
skin scrapings
impression smear
flea comb
trichogram
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what can be seen on acetate tape for cytology?

A

malassezia
bacteria
inflammatory cells squames

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what can you see on skin scrapings?

A

demodex if deep
cheyletiella if superficial
sarcoptes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what can be seen on impression smears?

A

inflammatory cells
malassezia
bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what can trichogram show?

A 
anagen
telogen 
mite and lice eggs
pruritus
dermatophytosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what animals is dermatophytosis mainly found?

A

perisian cats but is zoonotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what are signs of dermatophytosis?

A

hair loss

scaling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

how is dermatophytosis diagnosed?

A

woods lamp to see fluorescence
microscopy to see spores
dermatophyte test medium
culture for 2 weeks at room temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

how can dermatophytosis be treated?

A

products for small localised lesions
can use topical therapy
clipping to reduce load but can spread on host
systemic therapy for general or chronic infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what is the main cause of dermatophytosis contaminating the environment?

A

fungal spores on hair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

how can you reduce environmental contamination of dermatophytosis?

A 
cleaning
chemical agents
throw away toys, bedding etc
wash in antifungal disinfectant
thorough vacuuming
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what are indications for skin biopsies?

A 
neoplasia
generalised dermatosis
conditions poorly responsive to therapy
no results from other tests
vesicles
bullae
erosions
ulcers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

describe how skin biopsies are done

A

LA, sedation or GA
clip hair but dont prepare skin as removes pathogens
take from multiple sites and fully developed lesions
avoid traumatised lesions
punch 4-8mm wide and excise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

where do skin biopsies get sent?

A

histopathology
culture
cytology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what can be results from submitting skin biopsies?

A

diagnosis
compatible with clinical diagnosis
not compatible with clinical diagnosis
non-diagnostic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what is meant by the itch scratch cycle?

A

once itchy continues to scratch

itching influenced by flare factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

list flare factors

A 
fleas
bacteria
yeast
dry skin
sweating
psychological factors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

how is pruritus clinically assessed?

A

visual analogue scale from normal to itching taking over normal tasks
itching behaviours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

how do animals develop clinical signs of allergic dermatitis?

A

increase in allergic load pushes over amount they can tolerate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what are clinical signs of canine atopic dermatitis?

A 
alopecia
erythema
excoriation
hyperpigmentation
lichenification
self trauma
secondary infections
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

how is canine atopic dermatitis diagnosed?

A

rule out other pruritic causing conditions

intradermal and blood testing to select allergens for immunotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what is the purpose of canine atopic dermatitis allergy testing?

A

doesnt diagnose
identify allergens of clinical significance
basis for allergen specific immunotherapy and desensitisation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what are examples of microbial infection?

A

pyoderma

malassezia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what are clinical signs of pyoderma?

A

intraepidermal pustules easily disrupted
transient primary lesions
secondary crusting, erosion lesions
peripheral spread with peeling epidermal collarette
recurring disease if underlying cause unmanaged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what are common underlying disorders of pyoderma?

A

ectoparasites
allergy
endocrinopathies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what are the two types of pyoderma?

A

superficial

deep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what is the main cause and signs of deep pyoderma?

A

demodex

weepy skin, infection in skin follicle

57
Q

list antibiotics used for pyoderma treatment

A

clindamycin
trimethoprim
clavulanic acid and amoxicillin
cefalexin

58
Q

how long does it normally take to treat superficial pyoderma?

59
Q

how can topical treatments help treat pyoderma?

A

remove scale, crust and exudate
reduce bacterial number
promote drainage of deeper lesions
reduce pain and pruritus

60
Q

what is malassezia pachydermatitis?

A

opportunistic yeast pathogen

61
Q

where does malassezia normally live?

A

external ear canal
chin
perioral
interdigital

62
Q

what is the effect of malassezia infection?

A

hypersensitivity to microbes agents

63
Q

what predisposes to malassezia infection?

A

alteration in skin microclimate, sebum, moisture

allergic and bacterial skin disease

64
Q

what are clinical signs of malassezia infection?

A 
pruritus
effects ventral region, feet, face, skin folds
erythema
scale
hyperpigmentation
malodour
65
Q

how is malassezia infection diagnosed?

A

impression smears
acetate strip preparations
culture

66
Q

how can you treat malassezia?

A

topical chlorhexidine therapy 2x weekly

systemic itraconazole therapy for 7 days

67
Q

what is main sign of malassezia otitis?

A

otitis externa

68
Q

what is the cause of malassezia otitis?

A

ceruminous glands provide lipid rich material for bacteria to survive

69
Q

how can you treat malassezia otitis?

A

steroids to control cerumen production

70
Q

describe the lifecycle of fleas

A

intermediate stages found in environment

fleas stay on host unless removed by scratching etc

71
Q

what is flea bite hypersensitivity?

A

clinical condition in animals sensitised to antigenic components of flea saliva

72
Q

how is flea bite hypersensitivity diagnosed?

A 
history
compatible clinical signs
flea evidence
dipylidium caninum infestation
positive response to flea treatment
elimination of differential diagnoses
serology testing for flea saliva antigen
73
Q

what can affect the efficacy of flea control?

A 
formulation
application
hair length
bathing
insect growth development inhibitors in environment
74
Q

what are control measures for fleas in environment?

A

thorough vacuuming to remove eggs, debris and faeces

75
Q

what is the main aim of flea control and how is it achieved?

A

prevention using prophylaxis

76
Q

how are animals with flea allergy dermatitis treated?

A 
insecticides
long term insect growth inhibitor
glucocorticoids
antibiotics if needed
preventative control
77
Q

what prevents management of fleas?

A

not treating all animals contacted
not preventing
not removing all fleas from environment

78
Q

what are signs of demodex?

A

itchy skin
alopecia
crusting
secondary infection

79
Q

what can be seen on histology caused by demodex?

A

folliculitis
furunculosis
nodular dermatitis

80
Q

how is demodex diagnosed?

A

deep skin scraping
hair plucks
skin biopsy
observation of lesions general or local

81
Q

what is prognosis for generalised demodicosis?

A

50% spontaneously recover as immune system matures

good with treatment

82
Q

when does localised demodicosis affect animals?

83
Q

what is the effect of localised demodicosis?

A

mild disease rarely becoming generalised

focal alopecia and erythema

84
Q

where does local demodicosis normally affect?

A

legs and head

85
Q

why is localised demodicosis normally not treated?

A

spontaneously resolve

86
Q

what animals are prone to adult onset demodex?

A 
immunocompromised
corticosteroids
hyperadrenocorticism
neoplasia
hypothyroidism
87
Q

how is demodex treated?

A

acaridicidal treatment

manage bacterial pyoderma with oral cefalexin and chlorhexidine baths

88
Q

describe the lifecycle of sarcoptes scabei?

A

3 weeks long

eggs laid in deep burrows in host

89
Q

what are signs of sarcoptes scabei infection?

A

pruritus

hypersensitivity

90
Q

how is sarcoptes scabei diagnosed?

A

skin scrapings
skin biopsies, rarely diagnostic
ELISA blood test
transmission between contacts or environment

91
Q

how is sarcoptes scabei treated?

A

treat concurrent staphylococcal infections
corticosteroids for pruritus
treat mites

92
Q

state an example of ear mites

A

otodectes cynotis

93
Q

what are signs of ear mites?

A

irritation

hypersensitivity

94
Q

how are ear mites treated?

A

give to all animals in house

remove wax before applying topical treatment

95
Q

what is cheyletiellosis?

A

large surface mites
obligate parasites
zoonotic and highly contagious

96
Q

where does cheyletiellosis live?

A

epidermal pseudo-tunnels feeding on tissue fluids

eggs attached to hair

97
Q

what are signs of cheyletiellosis?

A 
hypersensitivity
lesions
scaling
mild pruritus
dermatitis
alopecia
98
Q

how is cheyletiellosis diagnosed?

A

microscopy to identify mites or eggs
hair plucks
superficial skin scrapings
acetate tape impressions

99
Q

how us cheyletiellosis treated?

A

selamectin monthly
moxidectin
baths or sprays

100
Q

what are harvest mites?

A

6 legged larvae of trombicula autumnalis

101
Q

describe the life cycle of harvest mites

A

most prevalent in autumn as orange larvae on vegetation
attach to host and feed for 3 days
complete lifecycle in environment

102
Q

what are signs of harvest mite infection?

A

erythema
papules
crusting
hypersensitivity

103
Q

where do harvest mites tend to live on animals?

A

pinnae
pre-auricular regions
interdigital spaces
eyelids

104
Q

how is harvest mite infestation diagnosed?

A

observing 6 legged orange larvae confirmed by microscopy

105
Q

how are harvest mites treated?

A

flea products
glucocorticoids for hypersensitivity
fipronil spray to prevent attachment

106
Q

describe typical lice lifecycle

A

2-3 weeks
eggs attach to hairs
hatch
3 nymph stages before adult

107
Q

what are clinical signs of lice?

A

pruritus
scaling of dorsum
self trauma

108
Q

how are lice infestations diagnosed?

A

exam for eggs or adults
acetate tape impression
coat brushings
hair pluckings

109
Q

how are lice treated?

A

selamectin
moxidectin
clip heavily infested animals to reduce burden and allow topical therapy to be effective

110
Q

what is the problem of ticks?

A

carry tick borne diseases such as encephalitis, lyme

111
Q

how are ticks prevented?

A

monthly tick control

112
Q

what are the hosts for echinococcus granulosus?

A

DH- carnivores

IH- humans, sheep that ingest DH

113
Q

what is the effect of echinococcus granulosus infection on IH?

A

humans- cysts in liver and lungs

sheep- production losses

114
Q

how is echinococcus granulosus infection diagnosed in IH?

A

post mortem
ultrasound
radiography

115
Q

how is echinococcus granulosus treated?

A

DH- praziquantel

IH- no treatment

116
Q

how can echinococcus granulosus be controlled?

A

dog treatment and control
meat inspection before consumption
disposal of offal

117
Q

what stage of taenia causes issues?

A

intermediate stage

118
Q

how can you control taenia infection?

A

prevent dogs eating offal
stop sheep eating eggs in dogs defecations
up to date worming

119
Q

what are the hosts for taenia?

A

DH- dog

IH- sheep

120
Q

what is the effect of taenia infection in sheep?

A

space occupying lesions
destruction of coenurus cerebralis
head tilt

121
Q

what are the hosts for echinococcus multiocularis?

A

DH- dog, fox, cat
IH- rodents, humans
spend some time not on host

122
Q

what is the lifecycle of toxocara canis?

A

hepato tracheal migration
somatic arrest in various body tissue in adults
reactivation by transplacental and transmammary infection

123
Q

how is toxocara canis treated and controlled?

A

routine worming

early worming puppies

124
Q

what are worming products used for toxocara canis prevention?

A

benzimidazoles
endectocides
piperazine citrate
praziquanal

125
Q

what is normal puppy worming protocol for toxacara canis?

A

week 2, 4, 6, 9, 12

every 3 months

126
Q

what is the protocol for worming pregnant bitches?

A

fenbendazole daily from day 42 to 2 weeks post whelping

only reduces not removes so assume all pups infected

127
Q

what is routine worming protocol in dogs?

A

monthly to 3 monthly
test and treat
remove faeces

128
Q

how are kittens treated for worms and why?

A

from 3-4 weeks as only transmammary not transplacental transmission

129
Q

why do you need to worm cats?

A

hunt and eat hosts containing worm

130
Q

what are signs of early angiostrongylus infection?

A 
coughing
dyspnoea
anaemia
depression
anorexia
coagulopathy
131
Q

what are signs of chronic angiostrongylus infection?

A

verminous pneumonia
anorexia
emaciation
pulmonary hypertension

132
Q

how is angiostrongylus diagnosed?

A

faecal exam

blood test

133
Q

define macroscopic

A

visible with naked eye but need microscope to distinguish

134
Q

how do lice eggs attach to host?

A

attach to hairs with cement

135
Q

how is identity of surface mites confirmed?

A

magnification

136
Q

state type of fur mites

A

cheyletiella spp

137
Q

state type of ear mites

138
Q

where do ear mites reside?

A

superficially feeding on ear debris

eggs in ear canal

139
Q

define microscopic

A

need microscope to see and identify

Clinical Nursing May Exam (22 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions