infection session 2-6 Flashcards

1
Q

Gram staining process

A

first step- crystal violet solution is added
then iodine. rinsed off. acetone added and washed with water. safranin pink added last. > so gram negative will take this up and appear pink

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2
Q

what is the effect of adding iodine in gram staining?

A

the peptidoglycan layer of gram positive bacteria will take up the stain

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3
Q

what is the endotoxin of Neisseria meningitidis?

A

part of the lipopolysaccharide found in the outermembrane

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4
Q

what is the structural difference of gram negative vs gram positive?

A

gram negative have a lipopolysaccharide wall whereas gram positive DO NOT

+ outermost layer is peptidoglycan

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5
Q

how do monocytes appear??

A

kinds granular with large blobs in middle like a heart or just one blob BUT different to lymphocyte which has one large well circumscribed blob!

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6
Q

Between which two layers is the CSF found?

A

between the arachnoid mater and Pia mater

within the subarachnoid space

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7
Q

where is CSF produced?

A

by the choroid plexus in the ventricles

  • specialised layer of epithelial cells with capillaries and loose connective tissue

> plasma filtered from the blood by the epithelial cells to produce CSF

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8
Q

important virulence factor of N. meningitidis? its role?

A
polysaccharide capsule (prevents phagocytosis)
>its chemical composition determines the serogroup 
  • ACWY- capsule is antigenic and determines the vaccine
  • B- capsule doesn’t trigger good response so number of sub capsular antigens are added to the vaccine
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9
Q

indicators of bacterial meningitis?

A
rash
cloudy CSF lumbar puncture
low glucose count
raised white cell count (neutrophils)
normal protein

> meningococcal meningitis

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10
Q

example of glycopeptide antibiotic?

A

vancomycin

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11
Q

example of macrolide antibiotic?

A

clarithromycin

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12
Q

Trimethoprim mode of action?

A

inhibit folic acid synthesis

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13
Q

main target group for gentamicin is?

A

gram negative bacteria

used against SOME gram positive e.g. Viridans streptococci but have profound activity on gram NEGATIVE

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14
Q

What is opsonisation?

A

the process of antibody enhanced attachment to the phagocyte

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15
Q

monocytes response to bacteria?

A

produce cytokines (e.g. IL6) and trigger fever and other responses

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16
Q

Where does MRSA commonly colonise?

A

nose

17
Q

what is a strong risk factor for C. diff?

A

inflammatory bowel disease

hospitalisation too

18
Q

If antibodies against a virus have high IgM to IgG this indicates?

A

that the patient has NOT encountered the virus previously (second exposure)

19
Q

which immune components of the adaptive immune response are activated by the flu virus ?

A
  • Cytotoxic T lymphocytes
  • T1 Helper cells (TH1)
  • antibodies
20
Q

why is TH1 response essential in virus infections?

A

T1 helper cells activate CD8 T cells and stimulate their differentiation and expansion into cytotoxic T lymphocytes

> also regulate the production of antibodies against the virus

21
Q

first step of host response to viral infections?

A

viral peptide presented by MHC class 1 molecule

22
Q

organism usually responsible for bacterial endocarditis on prosthetic heart valves?

and its features

A

staphylococcus epidermis

  • Gram positive
  • coagulase negative
    > ability to adhere to and colonise the prosthetic material and form a biofilm!!
23
Q

mechanism of action of Beta lactam ? and example?

A

cell wall synthesis inhibitor.

Flucloxicillin for staph aureus

24
Q

mechanism of action of glycopeptide ? and example?

A

cell wall synthesis inhibitor

Vancomycin for MRSA

25
Q

HIV binds to lymphocyte via which mechanism?

A

gp120 docking glycoprotein binds to CD4 receptor

26
Q

which blood test is most useful in diagnosing malaria?

A

blood film> blood smeared and look at the RBCs

27
Q

complication of strep sore throat or bacterial pharyngitis?

A

peritonsillar abscess (quinsy)

28
Q

when is IgM usually raised?

A

in the acute infection

29
Q

when do IgG antibodies appear?

A

after few weeks

30
Q

what does a pattern of high IgG and absent IgM indicate?

A

past infection

31
Q

what can cause rupture of the spleen?

A

EBV

32
Q

in which cell is EBV maintained for life?

A

B lymphocyte (latent infection)

33
Q

cell characteristics of acute EBV?

A
  • large inc in CD8+ T cells

> T cells recognise EBV cells and coordinate immune response

34
Q

aortic stenosis- which murmur is heard?

A

an ejection systolic murmur in the 2nd intercostal space on the right

> abnormalities heard when blood is pumped OUT the left ventricle when it contracts in systole.

  • classic crescendo-decrescendo systolic murmur
35
Q

recognition of Neisseria meningitidis is based on?

A

lipopolysaccharide (LPS) recognised by toll-like receptor (TLR) on dendritic cells

36
Q

where are Toll-like receptors ?

A

occur on dendritic cells and macrophages

37
Q

which is heard on auscultation of the heart when a patient has endocarditis (tricuspid valve most commonly affected)?

A

systolic murmur in the lower left sternal border

> tricuspid regurgitation (incompetence)