Immunopathology Flashcards

1
Q

____ set: results in graft rejection in 10-20 days

A

First

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2
Q

____ set: results in graft rejection in 5-10 days

A

Second

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3
Q

_______: IgM that is anti-IgG, important biomarker in diagnosis of ______

A

Rheumatoid Factor (RF); Rhematoid arthritis

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4
Q

How to TB test for patients with BCG immunization?

A

QuantiFERON-TB Gold test

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5
Q

Mechanisms of Damage in Type II immunopathology

A

Complement-Mediated Damage and Stimulatory Hypersensitivity

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6
Q

Protective factors for increase in asthma and allergies (5)

A

Poor countries, equatorial countries, slums, rural populations, children of large families

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7
Q

Repeated grafts that are eventually rejected before they even heal in

A

Hyperacute Rejection

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8
Q

TGF-Beta + ____ stimulates differentiation of Th0 into _____.

A

IL-6; Th1, Th17, and Th2

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9
Q

TGF-Beta stimulates differentiation of Th0 into ____.

A

Treg

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10
Q

Transcription factor that has a critical interaction in negative selection to ensure that the thymus does not allow production of anti-self antibodies

A

Aire

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11
Q

Type _____ immune complex conditions show lumpy-bumpy immune complexes

A

III

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12
Q

Up to 8% of people treated with ______ to treat HIV develop a hypersensitivity syndrome, nearly all having the same ____.

A

abacavir; HLA-B allele

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13
Q

Use of worm ova can be used to stimulate an increase in ____ cells in the gut

A

Treg

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14
Q

Which enzyme is absent in SCID? What is its normal function?

A

Adenosine Deaminase, causes adenosine to accumulate in all cells

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15
Q

Which pathology? 10-15 times more common people with Celiac Disease

A

IgA Deficiency

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16
Q

Which pathology? Abnormal development of the great vessels of the heart

A

DiGeorge Syndrome

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17
Q

Which pathology? Antibodies to thyroid antigens and destructive attack by T cells, resulting in hypothyroidism

A

Hashimoto Disease

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18
Q

Which pathology? Antibody binding to RBCs following viral infection, autoimmune syndrome, cancer, or drugs

A

Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia

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19
Q

Which pathology? Antibody to gut endomysium against Transglutaminase 2 (TG2)

A

Celiac Disease

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20
Q

Which pathology? Antibody to nuclear and nucleolar proteins, DNA, RNA, erytrhocytes, clotting factors, platelets, skin, and T cells

A

Sytemic Lupus Erythematosus

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21
Q

Which pathology? Asymptomatic, though patients may have diarrhea, sinopulmonary infections, or an increased frequency and severity of allergies

A

IgA Deficiency

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22
Q

Which pathology? Autoantibodies to Type IV collagen in the basement membranes of the kidney and lung

A

Goodpasture Syndrome

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23
Q

Which pathology? B cells may act as antigen presenting cells to harmful T cells, antibody to beta cells detected in 90% of patients at time of diagnosis

A

Juvenile Diabetes

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24
Q

Which pathology? Block in B cell to plasma cell transition, normal pre-B cells and B cells, but B cells are difficult to trigger to make a specific antibody

A

Common Variable Immunodeficiency (CVID)

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25
Q

Which pathology? Block in development between the pre-B cell and B cell stages

A

Bruton’s X-linked Hypogammaglobulinemia

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26
Q

Which pathology? Block in development of the lymphoid stem cells or its maturation

A

Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID)

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27
Q

Which pathology? Block of normal differentiatio of the stroma of the thymus

A

DiGeorge Syndrome

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28
Q

Which pathology? Cause IBD

A

Crohn Disease and Ulcerative Colitis

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29
Q

Which pathology? Children rarely survive beyond a year, lymphopenia of B and T cells

A

Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID)

30
Q

Which pathology? CHRNA1 does not interact with Aire correctly in the thymus

A

Myasthenia Gravis

31
Q

Which pathology? Defect in CD40 on B cells or CD40-ligand on Tfh cells

A

X-Linked HyperIgM Syndrome

32
Q

Which pathology? Defect in IgM to IgG switch mechanism

A

X-Linked HyperIgM Syndrome

33
Q

Which pathology? Defective btk, indication against oral polio vaccine

A

Bruton’s X-linked Hypogammaglobulinemia

34
Q

Which pathology? Destruction of platelets by antibody, opsonization followed by rapid destruction in the spleen

A

Autoimmune Thrombocytopenia Purpura

35
Q

Which pathology? Development of dermatitis herptiformis with skin antibody to TG3, likely from epitope spreading

A

Celiac Disease

36
Q

Which pathology? Hypothesized that viral peptide similar to Myelin Basic Protein (MBP) may generate clones of T cells that may cross react and attack human CNS

A

Multiple Sclerosis

37
Q

Which pathology? Kidney disease and facial butterfly rash

A

Sytemic Lupus Erythematosus

38
Q

Which pathology? Low Igs, absent thymic shadow on x-ray, small tonsils

A

Severe Combined Immunodeficiency (SCID)

39
Q

Which pathology? Most common autoimmune disease

A

Rheumatoid Arthritis

40
Q

Which pathology? Most common immunodeficiency disease

A

IgA Deficiency

41
Q

Which pathology? Most patients have pre-B cells in bone marrow and a deficiency of B cells and antibody

A

Bruton’s X-linked Hypogammaglobulinemia

42
Q

Which pathology? Patient has absent T cells with normal B cells, 45 gene deletion on chromosme 22

A

DiGeorge Syndrome

43
Q

Which pathology? Patients make antibody to AChR

A

Myasthenia Gravis

44
Q

Which pathology? Persistent cardiac pain, fever, malaise, and pericardial effusion seen after heart attack resulting from immune response to pericardial or myocardial antigens

A

Dressler Syndrome

45
Q

Which pathology? Persistent glomerulonephritis and pneumonitis with pulmonary hemorrhages

A

Goodpasture Syndrome

46
Q

Which pathology? Progressive muscle weakness and appearance of germinal centers in the thymus

A

Myasthenia Gravis

47
Q

Which pathology? Results from a cross-reaction against Group A Streptococcus

A

Rheumatic Heart Disease

48
Q

Which pathology? Results in sharp and linear patterns in immunofluorescence

A

Goodpasture Syndrome

49
Q

Which pathology? Second most common autoimmune disease with reaction against exocrine glands resulting in dry eyes and mouth (seems to involve CTLs)

A

Sjogren Disease

50
Q

Which pathology? Seen in miners and machinists (esp. nuclear) that HLA-DP alleles that bind Be-coupled peptides

A

Chronic Beryllium Disease

51
Q

Which pathology? Symptoms fade and gut returns to normal with avoidance of gluten

A

Celiac Disease

52
Q

Which theory? Certain harmless microorganisms have been in humans so long that we rely on them to instruct our immune system to not overreact against commensal bacteria or low-grade pathogens

A

Old Friends Hypothesis

53
Q

Which type? ___ cell deficiency: high grade bacterial pathogens

A

B

54
Q

Which type? ___ cell deficiency: severe infections with intracellular pathogens

A

T

55
Q

IgE and mast cell-mediated reactions to environmental antigens

A

Allergy

56
Q

Antigens that stimulate an allergic response

A

Allergens

57
Q

An acute allergic reaction, characterized by symptoms ranging from dyspnea to diarrhea to shock

A

Anaphylaxis

58
Q

Incidence of atopic disease

A

General 15-20%, 35% (one parent), 65% (two parents

59
Q

Which pathology? Runny nose and itchy eyes, triggered by ragweed, pollens, pets, or other allergens

A

Allergic Rhinitis

60
Q

Which pathology? Dry and easily irritated skin, itch, and rash, that is self worsening due to itching and may be susceptible to secondary bacterial infection

A

Eczema

61
Q

Which pathology? Special case of food allergy in the mouth characterized by tingling lips and tongue, itching, and lip swelling

A

Oral Allergy Syndrome

62
Q

Which test? Add patient serum to a capsule containing allergen and quantify amount of bound IgE

A

CAP-FEIA

63
Q

Immediate Allergic Reaction Mediators (4)

A

Histamine, TNF, enzymes, heparin

64
Q

Late-Phase Allergic Reaction Mediators (3)

A

Leukotrienes, Prostaglandins, Cytokines

65
Q

Regions where there is most filtration of blood or net outflow of fluid: Most common locations of Type III Immunopathology symptoms (6)

A

Kidney, Choroid Plexus, Skin, Peritoneum, Pleura, Joints

66
Q

Which pathology? IgA and IgG bind abnormal IgA1, which has missing terminal sugars on the carbohydrate chains, resulting in a reactive epitope

A

IgA Neuropathy

67
Q

Which pathology? Co-deposition of IgA and IgG in the glomerulus, resulting in glomerulonephritis

A

IgA Neuropathy

68
Q

Immune complexes that are precipitated when serum is refrigerated (since complexes are less soluble at lower temperatures)

A

Cryoglobulins

69
Q

Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis shows a _____ pattern when treated with fluorescein-labeled goat antibodies to human IgG

A

lumpy-bumpy

70
Q

Which pathology? Exposure to thermophilic Actinomycetes, found in moldy hay and silage, resulting in formation of immune complexes in the lungs

A

Farmer’s Lung

71
Q

Which pathology? Sufficient antigen is inhaled such that antigen-antibody complexes form in the lungs

A

Hypersensitivity Pneumonitis