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Blood and Lymph > Immunomodulators, Immunohematology, Immunodiagnosis, AIDS, and Tumor Immunology > Flashcards

Immunomodulators, Immunohematology, Immunodiagnosis, AIDS, and Tumor Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

_____ have receptors for the Fc of IgG (FcγR), such that they interact with antibody on the targeted tumor cells in ADCC

A

NK cells

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2
Q

______ (anti-____) and ________ (anti-____) inhibit downregulators of CTL activity

A

Nivolumab (PD-1), Ipilimimab (CTLA-4)

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3
Q

______ phenotype individuals do not have H antigen on the core sugar chain

A

Bombay

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4
Q

_______ formation: virus makes _______ that inserts into the host cell membrane, which enables fusion of nearby uninfected CD4 cells

A

Syncytia; gp120/gp41

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5
Q

________ occurs in Rh(D)+ fetuses that are born to Rh(D)- mothers that have made anti-Rh(D) antibodies

A

Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn (HDN)

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6
Q

__% of individuals in the US living with AIDS have not been diagnosed

A

16

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7
Q

2/3 of Elite Controllers have the _____ allele.

A

HLA-B27

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8
Q

A subclass of TAAs that can be recognized by the immune system and used to clear the tumor

A

Tumor Rejection Antigens

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9
Q

Activated ______ allows virus to bind a co-receptor: _______ (chemokine receptors)

A

gp120; CCR5 or CXCR4

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10
Q

Activated TAA-specific ____ kill tumor cells by inducing apoptosis via perforin or Fas-mediated pathways

A

CTLs

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11
Q

Advantages of Passive Agglutination over Simple Precipitation

A

Determination of antibody titer, More sensitive (larger effective size of antigen)

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12
Q

Antibodies against TNF-alpha

A

infliximab, adalimumab, certolizumab pegol

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13
Q

Antibodies to one antigen that bind to another (cross-reactive antibodies)

A

Heterophiles

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14
Q

Antibody Source: -omab

A

Murine

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15
Q

Antibody Source: -umab

A

Fully Human

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16
Q

Antibody Source: -ximab

A

Chimeric (Mouse variable, Human constant)

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17
Q

Antibody Source: -zumab

A

Humanized (Mouse CDRs)

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18
Q

Antibody Technique: coupled antibodies that are anti-CD19 (on CD19+ B cell lymphoma cells) and anti-CD3

A

Bispecific T cell engager (BiTE)

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19
Q

Antibody Technique: high affinity antibody CDRs coupled to a transmembrane domain that has a T-cell intracellular signaling molecule

A

Chimeric Antigen Receptor (CAR)

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20
Q

Antigen used in monitoring therapy of colon cancer but not in diagnostic screening

A

Carcinoembryonic Antigen (CEA)

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21
Q

Antigens made in normal fetal tissue, not normally made in adults but may be re-expressed in a tumor

A

Oncofetal antigens

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22
Q

Antigens that are expressed uniquely on the malignant clone

A

Clonal antigens

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23
Q

Antigens that are overexpressed or abnormally expressed by tumor cells

A

Tumor Associated Antigens

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24
Q

Cell type: down-regulated if the target cell expresses Class I MHC

A

NK cells

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25
Q

Cell type: recognize stress-related markers on tumor cells, using a small number of innate receptors

A

NK cells

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26
Q

Cell type: recognize TAA presented by MHC Class I

A

CTLs

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27
Q

Cell type: recognize tumor antigens, make lymphokines, and attract M1 macrophages

A

Th1

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28
Q

Cross-reactive antibodies with phospholipids in beef heart enable diagnostic screening for ______.

A

Treponema Pallidum

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29
Q

CTLs have two checkpoint inhibitor surface receptors (_______) which can be engaged to downregulation cytotoxic activity

A

CTLA-4 and PD-1

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30
Q

Diagnostic Technique: add fluoroscein-labeled goat anti-human IgG to patient serum/sample, observe for fluorescence

A

Direct Immunofluorescence

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31
Q

Diagnostic Technique: add known antigen and patient serum to plate, add fluoroscein-labeled goat anti-human IgG, observe for fluorescence

A

Indirect Immunofluorescence

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32
Q

Diagnostic Technique: Adhere an anti-human antibody to a plate, add patient serum, wash, add another anti-human antibody (peroxidase labeled) that will bind another epitope on the particle of interest, observe for colorimetric result

A

Sandwich ELISA

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33
Q

Diagnostic Technique: take cells in suspension and pump them through a small orifice, such that cells emerge single file in a fine stream; lasers illuminate cells and light emitted or scattered is collected by photomultipliers

A

Flow Cytometry

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34
Q

Diagnostic Technique: couple antigen to a plate, add test serum, wash, add enzyme-coupled anti-human antibody, observe for enzymatic activity

A

Simple ELISA

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35
Q

Diagnostic Technique: couple antigens to RBCs or latex beads, add dilution of patient serum, observe for agglutination to determine antibody titer

A

Passive Agglutination

36
Q

Diagnostic technique: inject common antigens to which most people will have Delayed Type Hypersensitivity, observe at 24-48 hours

37
Q

Diagnostic Technique: often fluorescent-tagged antibodies to CD-3, CD-4, and CD-8 are used to determine the number, maturation, and type of T cell

A

Flow Cytometry

38
Q

Diagnostic Technique: paint dinitrofluorobenze on skin to cause sensitization

A

Challenge DTH test

39
Q

Diagnostic Technique: tools to evaluate T cell competence (3)

A

Skin Test, Challenge DTH test, Chest x-ray in infants

40
Q

Evidence for Immune Surveillance Theory

A

Higher incidence of tumors in immuodeficient patients, Activated T cells can recognize tumor-associated antigens, some tumors spontaneously regress (immune response decline?)

41
Q

HIV binds its _______ to _______ on the surface of Th cells, causing a conformational change in _____

A

envelope glycoprotein gp120; CD4; gp120

42
Q

HIV Common Infections: Fungal

A

Candida, pneumocystis jirovecii

43
Q

HIV Common Infections: Intracellular

A

mycobacterium, m. tuberculosis

44
Q

HIV Common Infections: Protozoa

A

toxoplasma, cryptosporidium, isospora

45
Q

HIV Common Infections: Viral

A

CMV, Hepatitis, HSV, zoster

46
Q

HIV has a mean incubation period ___ years

47
Q

HIV has development of high blood virus levels that peak at __ weeks and antibodies that peak at __ weeks

48
Q

HIV is a type of _______ (virus that causes slow ultimately fatal illness)

A

lentivirus

49
Q

HIV is characterized by a falling _____ ratio.

50
Q

HIV persistence is characterized by remaining in _____ cells

A

memory Tfh

51
Q

HIV-infected cells may: _______ (3)

A

Die rapidly, Become persistence virus producers, enter latency

52
Q

Hypothesis: Adaptive immune response evolved to detect changes in body’s own cell surfaces

A

Immune Surveillance Theory

53
Q

IgG antibody to Rh(D) that is administered to Rh(D)- mothers

54
Q

In the _____ immunofluorescence test, fluorescence is positive for presence of antibody

55
Q

In the _____ immunofluorescence test, fluorescence is positive for presence of antigen

56
Q

Individuals that are infected with HIV but do not progress to AIDs

A

Elite Controllers

57
Q

Infection of macrophages and microglia with HIV virus, leading to consequential cytokine release

A

AIDS dementia complex

58
Q

Lab Diagnosis of AIDS

A

ELISA, followed by Western Blot

59
Q

Lab Monitoring of HIV disease progression

A

PCR of virus RNA

60
Q

Large granular lymphocytes that recognize molecules on the surface of stressed or dysregulated cells

61
Q

Least frequent blood type in the US

62
Q

Limitations of Immune Surveillance Theory

A

Tumors that immunodeficient and immunosuppressed patients get are not a random sample of all tumors; Nude mice do not get tumors readily

63
Q

Lineage-specific tumor-associated antigens (most frequently identified TAA)

A

Differentiation Antigens

64
Q

Mix normal human RBCs with patient plasma, add anti-human IgG

A

Indirect Antiglobulin Test

65
Q

Most ABO isohemagglutinins are Ig___.

66
Q

Most frequent blood type in the US

67
Q

Number of AIDS cases in the US

A

1.1 million

68
Q

Patients that have antibodies to HIV in their serum

A

HIV-seropositive

69
Q

Reason for the apparent ineffectiveness of antibody in HIV infection

A

Syncytia formation

70
Q

Recipient plasma is mixed with red cells from the prospective donor

A

Major Cross-match

71
Q

Responds to a viral antigen and horse red blood cells, such that Monospot test can be used to diagnose _______ by mixing serum with horse RBCs

A

Infectious Mononucleosis

72
Q

Symptoms of opportunistic infections, Kaposi’s sarcoma, or Th cells <200/μL of blood

73
Q

Treatment strategy: BCG injection directly into tumor, used for superficial bladder carcinoma

A

Innocent Bystander Killing

74
Q

Treatment: cells that can fight the tumor are isolated, cultured outside the body, and reintroduced

A

Adoptive Cellular Transfer Therapy

75
Q

Treatment: fusion protein with prostate cancer TAA prostatic acid phosphatase and dendritic cells (treat prostate cancer)

76
Q

Tumor cells create an environment in which __ macrophages are favored

77
Q

Tumor decrease in Class I may increase ___ response

78
Q

Viral DNA migrates to the nucleus where it is inserted into the host DNA by a ______

A

viral integrase

79
Q

Wash patient RBCs and add anti-human IgG

A

Direct Antiglobulin Test

80
Q

With administration of _______, antibodies combine with fetal RBCs and destroy them before they are exposed to the mother to allow immunization against Rh(D)

81
Q
82
Q
A

Agammaglobulinemia

83
Q
A

Hypergammaglobulinemia

84
Q
A

Monoclonal Hyperglobulinemia

85
Q
A

Multiple Myeloma

Blood and Lymph (14 decks)

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