IMMUNE SYSTEM LECTURE Flashcards

1
Q

Describe an innate or “non-specific” immune defense system?

A

an innate defense system is broadly effective and has no prior exposure to the pathogen

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2
Q

What are examples of pathogens that your innate immune defense system may be exposed to?

A

some examples of pathogens are toxins and living organisms

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3
Q

What are the first lines of defense regarding the immune system?

A

the skin and mucous membrane are the first line of immune defense

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4
Q
A
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5
Q

Describe why the skin is effective in deterring pathogens.

A

the skin is effective because it is difficult to penetrate, dry, nutrient poor, and coated with antimicrobial chemicals such as defensins and a thin layer of lactic acid

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6
Q

What makes the skin difficult for pathogens to penetrate?

A

the skin is difficult to penetrate due to its keratin (protein)

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7
Q

Describe why the mucous membrane is effective in deterring pathogens.

A

the mucous membrane is effective due to the stickiness of the mucous traps and the lysosomes it contains

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8
Q

Where can the defensive mucous membrane be located?

A

mucous membranes line all of the body cavities that open to the exterior of the

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9
Q

What are examples of body cavities that open to the exterior?

A

examples of body cavities that open to the exterior are the digestive, respiratory, urinary, and reproductive systems tracts

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10
Q

What is the function of the stickiness of the mucous membrane traps within the immune defense system?

A

the stickiness of the mucous membrane traps harmful organisms

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11
Q

What is the function of the lysosomes in the defensive mucous membranes?

A

the lysosomes are enzymes that are responsible for destroying bacteria cell walls

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12
Q

What is the function of internal immune defenses?

A

internal immune defenses are responsible for targeting organisms that penetrate the skin/ mucous membrane barrier

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13
Q

What is the second line of immune system defense?

A

the second line of the immune system defense is the internal defenses

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14
Q

What are phagocytes?

A

phagocytes are white blood cells

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15
Q

What are some examples of phagocytes?

A

some examples of phagocytes are neutrophils, macrophages, and monocytes

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16
Q

Define phagocytosis.

A

phagocytosis is when phagocytes must attach to a pathogen in order to consume it

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17
Q

What do phagocytes use in order to be able to attach to a pathogen?

A

phagocytes use cytoplasmic extension in order to attach to pathogens

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17
Q

Describe the function of a pathogens carbohydrate signature.

A

a pathogens carbohydrate signature allows white blood cells to detect and connect to the pathogen

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18
Q

Describe the function of external capsules.

A

external capsules allow some bacteria to conceal their carb signatures

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19
Q

Why is it significant that some pathogens use external capsules to cover their carb signatures?

A

pathogens using external capsules to cover their carb signatures because it prevents phagocytes from grabbing on to the pathogen; phagocyte is unable to destroy pathogen

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20
Q

Describe the function of opsonins.

A

opsosnins coat the external capsules and provide “handles” for phagocytes to bind to

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21
Q

What are opsonins?

A

opsonins are complement proteins/ antibodies

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22
Q

Define opsonization.

A

is the process of phagocytes using opsonins to bind to the external capsules of pathogens

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23
Q

Define respiratory burst?

A

respiratory burst is when…

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24
Q

What is the function of natural killer (nk) cells?

A

natural killer cells are responsible for attacking and killing cancer and virus infected cells, bacteria, or cell transplanted tissues

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25
Q

What happens when a natural killer cell recognizes an abnormal cell?

A

when a natural killer recognizes an abnormal cell it secretes proteins which bind to the pathogen

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26
Q

What is the function of the chemicals that natural killer cells secrete?

A

the chemicals that natural killer cells secrete increase the inflammatory response

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27
Q

What are the two types of immunity?

A

the two types of immunity are cellular immunity and humoral immunity

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28
Q

Humoral immunity is also known as what?

A

humoral immunity is also known as “antibody-mediated” immunity

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29
Q

Cellular immunity is also known as what?

A

cellular immunity is also known as “cell-mediated” immunity

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30
Q

Describe what happens in a cellular (cell-mediated) immune response.

A

in a cellular immune response lymphocytes either directly attack diseased/ “suspicious” cells or indirectly activate other lymphocyte or macrophages with a chemical response

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31
Q

Describe what happens in a humoral (antibody-mediated) immune response.

A

in a humoral immune response circulating antibodies in bodily fluids bind to bacteria/ toxins/ viruses and inactivate or “tag” them for destruction

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32
Q

What produces the antibodies within the humoral immune system?

A

antibodies within the humoral immune system are produces by lymphocytes

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33
Q

How are bacteria/ toxins/ viruses inactivated or “tagged” within the humoral (antibody-mediated) immune system?

A

lymphocytes in the bodily fluids inactivate or “tag” bacteria/ toxins/ viruses by using phagocytes and complement

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34
Q

Describe the anatomical structure of antigens.

A

antigens are large, complex molecules

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35
Q

What are three different types of antigens?

A

three different types of antigens are proteins, polysaccharides, and glycoproteins

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36
Q

Describe the relationship between antigens and an immune response.

A

antigens are not normally present in the body but are responsible for triggering an immune response

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37
Q

What are the two functional properties of complete antigens?

A

the two functional properties of complete antigens are immunogenicity and reactivity

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38
Q

Define immunogenicity in reference to complete antigens.

A

immunogenicity is the ability to cause specific lymphocytes to multiply

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39
Q

Define reactivity in reference to complete antigens.

A

reactivity is the ability to react with the activated lymphocytes and antibodies

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40
Q

What is another term for incomplete antigens?

A

incomplete antigens are also termed “haptens”

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41
Q

What is the result of incomplete antigens (haptens)?

A

the result of incomplete antigens is a hypersensitivity to antibodies

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42
Q

What are the characteristics of incomplete antigens (haptens)?

A

incomplete antigens are small molecules

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43
Q

True or False: incomplete antigens are immunogenic.

A

false; incomplete antigens are not immunogenic

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44
Q

Describe what happens if an incomplete antigen links with the body’s own proteins.

A

if an incomplete antigen links with the bodies own protein the adaptive immune system will attack it causing more harm than good

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45
Q

What are some examples of the immune response of an incomplete antigen?

A

some examples of reactions like this are reactions to penicillin, poison ivy, animal dander, some detergents, and some cosmetics

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46
Q

Define what antigen determinants are.

A

antigen determinants are binding sites for antibodies or lymphocytes on antigen surfaces that stimulate an immune response

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47
Q

What are “self-antigens”?

A

“self antigens” are surface glycoproteins that mark cells as “self” for the immune system

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48
Q

What is the purpose of “self-antigens”?

A

“self-antigens” prevent the immune system from attacking it’s own cells

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49
Q

What are the glycoproteins within that are used in “self-antigens” called?

A

“self-antigens” use glycoproteins called major histocompatibility complexes

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50
Q

Where do (t) lymphocytes originate from?

A

(t) cells originate from stem cells in the bones marrow

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51
Q

Where do (t) lymphocytes develop?

A

(t) lymphocytes develop in the thymus

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52
Q

What is the function of (t) cells?

A

(t) cells provide cellular immunity

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52
Q

Where do (b) lymphocytes originate from?

A

(b) cells originate from stem cells in the bone marrow

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53
Q

Where do (b) cells develop?

A

(b) lymphocytes develop in the bones marrow

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54
Q

What is the function of (b) cells?

A

(b) cells release antibodies that provide humoral immunity

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55
Q

What is the function of antigen-presenting cells (APCs)?

A

antigen-presenting cells are responsible for internalizing antigens and presenting them to antigenic determinants on their surfaces for (t) cell recognition

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56
Q

Why are antigen-presenting cells important?

A

without antigen-presenting cells, (t) cells could not recognize which pathogens to eliminate

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57
Q

Describe the function/ structure of dendritic cells.

A

dendritic cells are also responsible for catching antigens due to their long wispy extensions

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58
Q

What level of (t) lymphocytes do dendritic cells present antigenic determinants to?

A

dendritic cells present antigenic determinants to (t) cells while they are in the lymph node

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59
Q

True or False: when macrophages present antigenic determinants to naive (t) cells, both can be activated.

A

true; when macrophages present antigen determinants to naive (t) cells both are activated

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60
Q

What happens to macrophages that are activated while presenting antigen determinants to naive (t) cells?

A

macrophages that are activated while presenting antigen determinants can become “killer” macrophages

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61
Q

What level of (t) lymphocytes do (b) lymphocytes present antigen-determinants to?

A

(b) lymphocytes present antigen determinants to “helper” lymphocytes

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62
Q

What is the purpose of (b) cells presenting antigen determinants to (t) cells?

A

(b) cells present antigen determinants to (t) cells in order to initiate their own activation

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63
Q

How long does it take both (t) and (b) lymphocytes to mature?

A

it take 2-3 days for both (t) and (b) lymphocytes to mature

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64
Q

Where do both (t) and (b) lymphocytes originate?

A

both (t) and (b) lymphocytes originate in the red bone marrow

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65
Q

Define immunocompetence in reference to (t) and (b) lymphocytes.

A

immunocompetence is the ability of a lymphocyte to recognize its specific antigen by using a unique type of receptor on their surface

66
Q

Define self-tolerance in reference to (t) and (b) lymphocytes.

A

self-tolerance is the ability for a lymphocyte to be unresponsive to the bodies self-antigens

67
Q

What is the importance of “self-tolerance”?

A

“self-tolerance” prevents the body from attacking its own cells

68
Q

Where are naive (t) and (b) cells taken to gain exposure to antigens?

A

(t) and (b) calls are taken to the lymph nodes, spleen, etc. to gain exposure to antigens

69
Q

Define clonal selection in reference to (t) and (b) cells.

A

clonal selection is when antigens bind to receptors on a specific lymphocyte

70
Q

How many receptor per lymphocyte are there?

A

there are ~100,000 receptors/ per lymphocyte

71
Q

Once activated, lymphocytes proliferate to form what?

A

once activated lymphocytes proliferate in order to form and “army” of clones

72
Q

What are effector cells?

A

effector cells are clones that do the fighting

73
Q

What are two types of effector cells?

A

two types of effector cells are (t) cells and (b) cells

74
Q

What is the responsibility of (t) cells as an effector cell?

A

(t) cells are responsible for fighting off antigens

75
Q

What is the responsibility of (b) cells as an effector cell?

A

(b) cells are responsible for releasing antibodies

76
Q

What are memory cells?

A

memory cells are long-living clones of effector cells that respond immediately pathogens and produce more cells

77
Q

Most (b) cell clones differentiate into what?

A

most (b) cell clones differentiate into plasma cells

78
Q

What are plasma cells?

A

plasma cells are antibody secreting effector cells

79
Q

Plasma cells secrete antibodies at what rate?

A

plasma cells secrete ~2000 antibodies/ second for 4-5 days

80
Q

What happens to plasma cells after 4-5 days?

A

they stop secreting antibodies and die

81
Q

What happens to the antibodies secreted by plasma cells?

A

antibodies secreted by plasma cells circulate the blood and lymph in order to bind to antigens and mark them for destruction

82
Q

Define a primary immune response.

A

a primary immune response is the cellular proliferation/ differentiation that occurs in the first exposure to an antigen

83
Q

How long does it take a primary immune response to occur?

A

a primary immune response typically takes 3-6 days after the antigen is discovered to occur

84
Q

How long does it take for the antibody levels to reach its peak during a primary immune response?

A

it takes ~10 days for the antibody levels to reach its peak before it declines

85
Q

Define a secondary immune response.

A

a secondary immune response is a re-exposure to an antigen that results in a faster, longer, and more effective response

86
Q

Which cells contribute to making the secondary immune response much faster than the primary immune response?

A

the secondary immune response is much faster than the primary immune response due to memory cells

87
Q

How long does it take for antibody levels to reach its peak during a secondary immune response?

A

it takes 2-3 days for antibody levels to reach its peak during a secondary immune response

88
Q

True or False: a secondary immune response produces fewer plasma cells than a primary immune response.

A

false; a secondary immune response produces more plasma cells than an immune response

89
Q

How long to antibody levels remain high after a secondary immune response?

A

antibody levels in the body can remain high for weeks/ months

90
Q

Define naturally-acquired active immunity.

A

naturally-acquired active immunity is the production of one’s own antibodies or (t) cells as a result of a prior infection

91
Q

True or False: a naturally-acquired active immunity produces memory cells

A

true; a naturally acquired active immunity produces memory cells

92
Q

Define an artificially-acquired active immunity.

A

an artificially acquired active immunity is the production of one’s own antibodies/ (t) cells as a result of a vaccination

93
Q

True or False: an artificially-acquired active immunity produces memory cells

A

true; an artificially-acquired active immunity produces memory cells

94
Q

Describe to content of vaccines.

A

most vaccines contain dead or weakened pathogens

95
Q

What is a result of a vaccine composed of pathogens that aren’t weakened enough?

A

a vaccine composed of pathogens that aren’t weakened enough may result in disease

96
Q

Define a naturally-acquired passive immunity.

A

a naturally-acquired passive immunity is when a fetus acquires temporary antibodies; immunity is borrowed

97
Q

Where does the fetus receive naturally-acquired passive immunity from?

A

the fetus receives naturally-acquired passive immunity from the mother during breast milk/ placenta

98
Q

What is the immune defense benefit of breast feeding infants?

A

breast fed infants are protected from all antigens that the mother was exposed to

99
Q

Define an artificially-acquired passive immunity.

A

an artificially acquired passive immunity is the injection of immune serum obtained from another individual or animal that has produced antibodies against an antigen; a mortality preventative vaccine

100
Q

What is the rationale behind receiving artificially-acquired passive immunity?

A

an individual would typically receive artificially-acquired passive immunity vaccines against diseases that would rapidly kill them in any other instance

101
Q

What are some examples of rapid approaching/ deadly diseases?

A

some examples of rapidly approaching/ deadly diseases are hepatitis, poison snake bites, rabies, and tetanus

102
Q

What is another term for antibodies?

A

another term for antibodies is “immunoglobins” (igs)

103
Q

What are immunoglobins (antibodies)?

A

immunoglobins are proteins produced by antigen-stimulated effector (b) plasma cells that prey on extracellular pathogens

104
Q

What is the anatomical structure of immunoglobins (antibodies)?

A

immunoglobins are made up of four looing polypeptide chains linked together by disulfide bonds

105
Q

Describe the heavy; light ratio in the polypeptide chain of an immunoglobin.

A

the four polypeptide chains have 2 heavy; 2 light polypeptide chains

106
Q

What are the five classes of immunoglobins?

A

the five classes of immunoglobins are: IgM, IgA, IgD, IgG, and IgE

107
Q

Which class of immunoglobins is most abundant?

A

IgG is the most abundant immunoglobin class

108
Q

Describe the IgG immunoglobin class.

A

the IgG immunoglobin class is the most abundant/ diverse antibody in a primary and secondary response

109
Q

True or False: the IgG crosses the placenta and enables passive immunity

A

true; the IgG crosses the placenta and enables passive immunity

110
Q

Describe what occurs during neutralization.

A

during neutralization an antibody blocks binding sites of viruses/ bacteria to prevent them from binding to tissue

111
Q

Describe what occurs during agglutination.

A

during agglutination an antibody uses multiple binding sites and clump things together

112
Q

Describe what occurs during precipitation.

A

during precipitation soluble molecules clump making it easier to clear the via phagocytosis

113
Q

Define the term “complement”.

A

complement is the primary antibody defense against cellular antigens

114
Q

Describe what occurs during complement.

A

during complement several antibodies bind close together on the same cell resulting in cell lysis

115
Q

How many tests must a developing (t) lymphocyte pass in order to survive?

A

the (t) lymphocytes must pass two tests

116
Q

What percentage of (t) cells fail the developmental tests?

A

98% of (t) lymphocytes fail their tests

117
Q

Define “positive selection”.

A

“positive selection” is where only (t) cells that are able to recognize and bind to “self” made cells

118
Q

What is the first test that (t) lymphocytes must go though?

A

the first test that (t) cells must go through is positive selection

119
Q

What is the second test that (t) lymphocytes must go through?

A

the second test that (t) lymphocytes must go though is negative selection

120
Q

Define “negative selection”.

A

“negative selection” is where (t) cells must not bind to any self-antigens that are presented within the (mhc) molecule

121
Q

Define “self tolerance”.

A

“self tolerance” is the destruction of a (t) lymphocyte if they attack self-made antigens

122
Q

What are the two major differentiation glycoproteins on a cells surface?

A

the two major glycoproteins on a cells surface are CD4 and CD8

123
Q

How are the two major populations of (t) cells defined?

A

the two major populations of cells are defined by differentiation glycoproteins on a cells surface

124
Q

Describe what occurs when CD4 cells are activated.

A

When CD4 cells are activated they typically become helper (t) cells

125
Q

What is the function of helper (t) cells/ CD4 cells?

A

when activated, helper (t) cells activate (b) cells, other (t) cells, macrophages, and direct the adaptive immune response

126
Q

As opposed to becoming helper (t) cells some CD4 cells become what?

A

some CD4 cells become regulatory (t) cells

127
Q

What is the responsibility of regulatory (t) cells?

A

regulatory (t) cells are responsible for moderating the immune system

128
Q

What is another term for regulatory (t) cells?

A

another term for regulatory (t) cells are “suppressor cells”

129
Q

Describe what occurs when CD8 cells are activated.

A

when activated CD8 cells become cytotoxic and directly destroy pathogens

130
Q

True or False: both CD4 cells and CD8 cells can become memory cells.

A

true; both CD4 cells and CD8 cells can become memory cells

131
Q

Where can class I MHC proteins be found?

A

class I (mhc) proteins can be found on the cell membrane of all nucleated body cells and (apcs)

132
Q

What are some examples of APCs that contain class I MHC proteins?

A

some examples of (apcs) that contain class I MHC proteins are dendritic cells, macrophages, and (b) cells

133
Q

Which antigen do class I MHC proteins contain?

A

class I MHC proteins contain endogenous antigens

134
Q

Which type of endogenous antigen do class I MHC proteins contain?

A

class I MHC proteins contain protein 8-9 AA long

135
Q

True or False: in healthy cells the antigens are self antigens

A

true; in healthy cells the antigens are self antigens

136
Q

True or False: in infected cells the antigen does not contain pieces that belong to the pathogen

A

false; in an infected cell the antigen contains pieces that belong to the pathogen

137
Q

Where can class II MHC proteins be found?

A

class II (mhc) proteins can be found only in (apcs)

138
Q

True or False: class II MHC proteins contain an exogenous antigen

A

true; class II (mhc) proteins contain an exogenous antigen

139
Q

what is the exogenous protein that class II MHC proteins contain?

A

class II (mhc) proteins contain protein 14-17 AA long

140
Q

Where does the protein 14-17 AA long come from?

A

the protein 14-17 AA long comes from outside the cell (pathogen) that was engulfed

141
Q

What happens once the engulfed antigen is displayed on an APCs surface?

A

once displayed on the (apcs) surface the antigen is recognized by CD4 cels signaling that help is needed

142
Q

What is the purpose of APCs cells displaying pathogens on their surface/

A

the (apc) cells display pathogens on their surface in order to show CD4 cells what to attack

143
Q

How many steps does it take for a (t) cells to be activated by an APC?

A

it takes two steps for a (t) cell to be activated by an (apc)

144
Q

Describe the first step of (t) cell activation by an APC?

A

the first step of (t) cell activation is that the (t) cell antigen receptor (trc) binds to an antigen (mhc) complex on the suface of the (apc)

145
Q

Describe the second step of (t) cell activation by an APC?

A

the second step of (t) cell activation is that the (t) cell must also bind to co-stimulatory molecules on the surface of the (apc)

146
Q

What happens to the co-stimulatory molecules when defenses are mobilized?

A

the co-stimulatory molecules begin to “sprout” to the cell surface when innate defenses are being mobilized

147
Q

Why is it important that (t) cells also bind to co-stimulatory molecules on a cells surface?

A

(t) cells also binding to co-stimulatory molecules is important to ensure that (t) cells do not attack healthy cells

148
Q

Describe what happens to a (t) cell once activated by antigen binding and co-stimulation.

A

once activated by antigen binding and co-stimulation a (t) cell enlarges and proliferates

149
Q

What happens when a (t) cells proliferates after being activated?

A

when a (t) cell proliferates after being activate it forms clones under the direction of cytokines

150
Q

Define cytokines.

A

cytokines is a chemical messenger

151
Q

What are two examples of cytokines?

A

two examples of cytokines are interferons and interleukins

152
Q

What is the timeframe of a response peak after (t) cell activation?

A

response peaks after a weak of exposure to the triggering antigen

153
Q

What is the timeframe of apoptosis?

A

apoptosis occurs between 7-30 days as the antigen levels drop

154
Q

How long do memory cells last after an exposure?

A

memory cells remain indefinitely after an exposure

155
Q

What is the function of helper (t) cells “coaches”?

A

once activated by (apc) they use cytokines to activate (t) and (b) cells and induce them to proliferate

156
Q

What is the function of cytotoxic (t) cells “players”?

A

cytotoxic (t) cells are the only cells that can directly attack other cells

157
Q

True or False: cytotoxic (t) cells hide until an infection occurs?

A

false; cytotoxic (t) cells roam the blood/ lymph/ and lymphoid tissue searching for body cells displaying antigens they recognize

158
Q

What are the main targets of cytotoxic (t) cells?

A

the main targets of cytotoxic (t) cells are viral infected cells, cancer cells, bacteria, parasites, and any other foreign cells

159
Q

Describe the methods of destruction for cytotoxic (t) cells.

A

cytotoxic (t) cells use perforins or bind to membrane receptors that cause its target to undergo apoptosis

160
Q

What is apoptosis?

A

apoptosis is programmed cell death; cell suicide

161
Q

Which two cells examine other cells for markers they might recognize?

A

both natural killer cells and cytotoxic (t) cells examine other cells for markers they might recognize

162
Q

Describe the difference between natural killer cells and cytotoxic (t) cells.

A

natural killer cells check proteins; cytotoxic (t) cells check superficial flags to make sure the cell looks normal

163
Q
A