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med school > IIIR3a > Flashcards

IIIR3a Flashcards

1
Q

What is the dominant cell in most chronic inflammation?

A

Macrophages.

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2
Q

Type I allergic rxns typically occur via what immune response?

A

IgE-mediated reactions.

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3
Q

Type II allergice rxns typically occur via what immune response?

A

Small molecules bind to self cell body, making it perceived as “foreign” by immune system. B-cells make IgG, complement system gets involved and phagocytosis.

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4
Q

What are the trades of Type III allergic rxns?

A

Foreign soluble proteins bind to IgG and it complexes. Then lodges in alveoli or vessels. Complement gets involved.

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5
Q

What are the trades of Type IV allergic rxns?

A

Caused by CD4Th1 cells (a minority caused by CD8 cells). Lipid soluble molecules crosses PM, binds to protein, then weird peptides made when it is degraded. Delayed onset (1-3 days after exposure).

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6
Q

What is a prerequisite for Type I sensitivity?

A

IgE antibody is made when a person first encounters theA Ag.

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7
Q

How does IgE bind to cells?

A

via FCepsilonRI, and it is a very tight association.

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8
Q

What makes a mast cell degranulate?

A

Cross-linking of FCepsilonRI.

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9
Q

What is the function of histamine and heparin?

A
  1. toxic to parasites
  2. increase vascular permeability
  3. smooth muscle contraction
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10
Q

What does TNFalpha do?

A
  1. promotes inflammation
  2. stimulates cytokine production
  3. activates endothelium
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11
Q

What do Tryptase, chymase, cathepsin G and carboxypeptidase to?

A

remodel connective tissue matrix.

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12
Q

What does IL-4 and IL-13 do?

A

increases Th2 cell response

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13
Q

What does IL-3, IL-5 and GM-CSF do?

A

eosinophil activation and production

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14
Q

What does TNF-alpha do?

A

promotes inflammation, causes cytokine production, activates endothelium

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15
Q

What does CCL3 do?

A

chemotactic for monocytes, macrophages and neutrophils

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16
Q

What do leukotrienes C4, D4 and E4 do?

A

smooth muscle contraction, increase vascular permeability, mucus secretion

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17
Q

What does PAF do?

A

chemotactic for leukocytes, amplifies production of lipid mediators, activates neutrophils, eosinophils and platelets.

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18
Q

Must a mast cell be activated by only one type of Ag?

A

No. If FCERI is cross linked is all that matters. It can even have different FAB regions that bind different Ags.

19
Q

Which are stronger, leukotrienes of histamine?

A

Leukotrienes are about 100x stronger.

20
Q

What is the difference between zoonotic and arbovirus?

A 
zoonotic = from animals
arbovirus = arthropod borne (ticks and mosquitos)
21
Q

What are 4 DNA viruses?

A
  1. adenovirus
  2. parvovirus
  3. small pox (variola)
  4. human papilloma virus
22
Q

What is special about B19 autonomous parvovirus?

A

infects cells of erythroid lineage.

23
Q

How many serotypes of variola are there?

A

1

24
Q

Where does variola carry out its lifecycle in the host cell?

A

cytoplasm

25
Q

What is E1A? How does it work?

A

The master regulator of adenovirus. E1A binds to Rb (host protein) and release E2f which is a TF for all of the viral proteins.

26
Q

What are the master regulatory genes for HPV?

A

E6 and E7. If these are lost, like when the viral DNA enters the host genome, it can become cancerous.

27
Q

All RNA viruses contain their own what?

A

replication machinery (RNA dependent RNA polymerase, reverse transcriptase)

28
Q

What are 4 +strand RNA viruses?

A
  1. picornovirus (polio, coxsackie, rhinovirus)
  2. togavirus (rubella, equine encephalitis)
  3. retroviruses
  4. flaviviruses
29
Q

What is a -strand RNA virus?

A

rhabdovirus (rabies)

30
Q

Tell me about polio virus.

A
  • 3 serotypes
  • non-envelope
  • part of enterovirus
  • fecal-oral
  • RNA virus
31
Q

Tell me about echovirus.

A
  • no envelope
  • asceptic meningitis
  • a type of enterovirus
  • RNA virus
32
Q

tell me about coxsackie virus.

A
  • human hosts (foot and mouth disease)
  • no vaccine and no drugs
  • a type of enterovirus
  • RNA virus
33
Q

Tell me about reoviruses.

A
  • Rotovirus
  • segmented dsRNA
  • no envelope
  • vaccine available and recommended by CDC
  • GI in small kids
34
Q

Tell me about picornoviruses

A

Picornovirus (no envelope)
-Enteroviruses (polio, echovirus, coxsackievirus)
-rhinovirus
all are RNA viruses

35
Q

tell me about rhinovirus

A
  • main cause of common cold
  • 100+ serotypes
  • bind to ICAM1
  • RNA virus
36
Q

Tell me about caliciviridae

A
  • RNA virus
  • no envelope
  • norovirus, cause of epidemic GI issues, common on cruise ships
37
Q

What does influenza virus block?

A

NS1 virulence factor blocks interferon production

38
Q

How many types of influenza are there?

A

3: A, B, C

* C is rare and not associated with large outbreaks

39
Q

What type of capsid does herpes have?

A
  • icosahedral

- enveloped genome with linear dsDNA

40
Q

Where are the three places that herpes A hides?

A
  1. HSV1: neurons of trigeminal and cervical ganglion
  2. HSV2: neurons of sacral ganglia
  3. VZV: neurons and non-neurons of sensory ganglia, trigeminal and dorsal root ganglia
41
Q

Where are two places that herpes B will hide?

A

CMV: monocytes, macs and endo cells

HHV-6/7: monocytes, CNS and salivary glands

42
Q

Where are two places that herpes Gamma will hide?

A
  1. EBV: memory B cells

2. KSHV: B cells, vascular endo cells

43
Q

What are the following herpes infections?

  1. HSV1
  2. HSV2
  3. VZV
  4. EBV
  5. HHV6
  6. KSHVHHV8
A
  1. HSV1: herpes simplex (cold sores)
  2. HSV2: genital herpes
  3. VZV: herpes zoster (chickenpox)
  4. EBV: infectious mononucleosis, lymphomas, laryngeal carcinoma
  5. HHV6: roseola, exanthema subitum
  6. KSHV/HHV8: Kaposi’s sarcoma

med school (24 decks)

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