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CH-47 (9.4) > IERW > Flashcards

IERW Flashcards

1
Q

You have been asked to take parachutists to the highest possible altitude for a HALO jump. You have no onboard oxygen, to what altitude may you take them?

A

13,999’ as long as time above 12,000’ PA remains shorter than 30 minutes and time above 10,000’PA is shorter than one hour.

>14k’ for any amount of time requires oxygen

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2
Q

At what altitude must all occupants of an on pressurized army aircraft use oxygen?

A

14,000 feet and above

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3
Q

What are the VFR and IFR reserve requirements?

A

VFR-20 minutes at cruise
IFR- 30 minutes at cruise

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4
Q

In order to fly under VFR rules, destination weather must be forecast to be greater than or equal to VFR minimums at ETA through_______.

A

One hour after ETA

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5
Q

What are the SVFR minima for army helicopters?

A

1/2 SM and CC

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6
Q

What is the weather forecast void time?

A

One hour 30 minutes from time received if aircraft has not taken off

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7
Q

What is the minimum altitude for crossing wildlife refuge areas?

A

2,000’ AGL

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8
Q

Above what altitude does the cruising altitude rule begin?

A

3,000’ AGL

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9
Q

On a magnetic course of 0° through 179° what altitudes or observed?
VFR

A

Any odd thousand altitude +500 feet
(3,500’ / 5,500’ / etc.)

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10
Q

On a magnetic course of 180° through 359° what altitudes are observed?
VFR

A

Any even thousand altitude +500 feet
(4,500’ / 6,500’ / etc.)

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11
Q

Describe Class A airspace

A

-not depicted on charts
-18k’ up to FL60
-extends 12NM from land
-must operate IFR
-no visibility or cloud clearance requirements

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12
Q

Describe Class B airspace

A

-solid blue line
-dimensions as depicted on charts
-requires clearance to enter, Mode-S / ADS-B
-3SM vis and CC

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13
Q

Describe Class C airspace

A

-Solid magenta line
-SFC - 4,000’ AGL
-shelf of Class C is 1,200’-4,000’ AGL
-requires contact but not clearance to enter
-3SM vis, basic CC (152)

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14
Q

Describe Class D airspace

A

-Dashed Blue line
-SFC -2,500’
-2 way radio required
-3SM and basic CC (152)

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15
Q

Describe Class E airspace

A

-Dashed magenta line
-SFC - ♾ or other airspace
-no operating requirements

Below 10,000’:
3SM, basic cloud clearance
Above 10,000’:
5SM, 1,000’ above and below, 1SM lateral clearance

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16
Q

Describe Class G airspace

A

-no chart depiction
-no operating requirements

Below 1200’ AGL regardless of MSL altitude:
1/2 SM Day, 1SM night SKC

Above 1,200’ AGL but below 10,000’ MSL:
1SM day, 3SM night, basic cloud clearance (152)

Above 1,200’ AGL and 10,000’ MSL:
5SM, 1,000’ above and below, 1SM lateral clearance (day and night)

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17
Q

Where can you find information to break down a METAR?

A

Section C of the flight information handbook

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18
Q

What does the transponder code 7600 signify?

A

Lost commo

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19
Q

In what section would you find the information about FLIP and NOTAM abbreviations In the flight information handbook (FIH)?

A

F

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20
Q

What does the symbol (B) under the airport name proceeding a runway indicate?

A

Rotating beacon is available and operates sunset to sunrise

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21
Q

What is the revision cycle for DoD FLIP: General Planning?

A

32 weeks

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22
Q

Which publication gives supplemental information about a nations air space and aviation procedures?

A

Area Planning

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23
Q

Where can the index for aeronautical information be found?

A

Chapter 1 general planning

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24
Q

What aircraft identification code is used for an army helicopter when submitting a DD form 1801 flight plan?

A

R and last five digits

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25
Q

What are the four main items found in a TLA?

A

-Radar instrument approach minimum’s
-Instrument approach procedures
-Standard instrument departures
-Airport diagrams

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26
Q

How are distances depicted in the TLA/TPP?

A

NM unless otherwise stated

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27
Q

What does the abbreviation VASI stand for?

A

Visual approach slope indicator

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28
Q

What are the six aircraft approach categories published for IFR landing minima?

A

ABC DE and copter

29
Q

What are the different sections on an approach chart?

A

Top margin, pilot briefing, plan view, profile view, airport sketch, bottom margin

30
Q

The two main navigation systems used by army aviators are?

A

Ground based and space based

31
Q

What are the three classes of VORs?
What are their normal range at 1000 feet AGL?

A

T- 25NM
L- 40NM
HA- 40NM

32
Q

GPS is composed of what three major segments?

A

Space, control, and user

33
Q

What are the two instrument departure procedures that are contained in the TLA and TPP?

A

SID, ODP

34
Q

What are the standard US Army takeoff minimum for an army aviator who Has logged 50 hours or more of actual weather time as a pilot in command?

A

None or non-standard minimums

35
Q

What are the standard US Army takeoff minimum for an army aviator who has logged less than 50 hours of actual weather time as a pilot in command?

A

100 foot ceiling and 1/4 statute miles

36
Q

What are the three fundamental skills of instrument flying?

A

Cross check, instrument interpretation, aircraft control

37
Q

What are the three types of crosschecking (scanning) errors?

A

Fixation, omission, emphasis

38
Q

Define settling with power

A

A condition of powered flight in which a helicopter settles in its own downwash

39
Q

List three conditions required for dynamic roll over to occur

A

Establishing a pivot point initiating a rolling motion and exceeding critical angle

40
Q

What type of drag decreases with an increase in Airspeed?

A

Induced

41
Q

What type of drag increases with an increase in airspeed?

A

Parasitic

42
Q

Define dissymmetry of lift

A

2 halves of a rotor disc producing unequal lift between advancing and retreating halves

43
Q

Which forces in the lift equation can the pilot control?

A

Airspeed and angle of attack

44
Q

Define induced flow

A

The downward airflow at the center of pressure perpendicular to relative wind

45
Q

Define resultant relative wind

A

The sum forces of relative wind and induced flow

46
Q

What is the difference between angle of incidence and angle of attack?

A

Angle of incidence is the angle between the chord line and the rotational relative wind.

Angle of attack is the angle between the chord line and the resultant relative wind

47
Q

What is atmospheric pressure?

A

The force exerted by the weight of the column of air

48
Q

What is the standard temperature laps rate with altitude?

A

-2°C per thousand feet

49
Q

A change in 1 inch of mercury pressure is equal to approximately how many feet of altitude?

A

1000

50
Q

A change of .15 inches of mercury pressure is equal to how many feet?

A

150

51
Q

What is the maximum allowable error in the altimeter?

A

75 feet

52
Q

What does GCA stand for and what is the primary source of guidance?

A

Ground controlled approach, radar

53
Q

On the final approach course of an ASR, how often must you hear from the final controller?

A

Every 15 seconds

54
Q

When being vectored to the final approach course of a PAR or ASR how often must be received ATC transmissions?

A

Every 60 seconds

55
Q

On the final approach course of a PAR, how often do you hear from the final controller?

A

Every five seconds

56
Q

What’s the four conditions necessary for the formation of fog

A

-Small temperature dewpoint spread
-light surface wind
-abundant condensation nuclei
-cooling lane surfaces with warm air above

57
Q

What are the dissipation factors of fog?

A

Heating, strong wind, and greenhouse effect

58
Q

What type of frontal thunderstorms would match the definition of a severe line of thunderstorms that form ahead of a fast-moving cold front?

A

Squall line

59
Q

What factors are needed for thunderstorm to form?

A

Unstable air/ lifting action

High humidity/ small temperature and dewpoint spread

60
Q

How do you know the cumulus stage has ended and mature stage has begun in a cloud?

A

Precipitation starts

61
Q

The primary cause of frontal weather is:

A

The lifting of warm air by colder air

62
Q

Where is the coldest air in relation to a cold front?

A

In front/ahead

63
Q

The weather associated with a stationary front will normally be similar to what kind of front?

A

Warm front

64
Q

What type of front develops when the faster moving cold front of a frontal wave catches up with a slower moving warm front of the wave?

A

Frontal occlusion

65
Q

What type of front is considered to have the most violent weather?

A

A frontal occlusion

66
Q

The basic characteristics of any air mass are:

A

Moisture and temperature

67
Q

What are the four types of heat transfer

A

Radiation, conduction, convection, advection

68
Q

Air being lifted over a mountain range will cool on the Windward side and heat up as it moves down slope on the Leeward side. This temperature change is a result of the:

A

Adiabatic process

69
Q

When the word Nimbus is added to the names of the cloud, it means that:

A

Some form of precipitation is associated with the cloud

CH-47 (9.4) (48 decks)

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