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CH-47 (9.4) > -10 > Flashcards

-10 Flashcards

1
Q

WARNING
All ground handling personnel must be informed of _________ ___________ hazards when making external cargo hookups

A

High voltage

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2
Q

WARNING
When smoke, suspected carbon monoxide fumes, or symptoms of anoxia exist, the crew should ______________.

A

Immediately ventilate the aircraft

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3
Q

A listing of TSA (Tactical Situation Awareness) symbols can be found where?

A

Appendix D. , -10

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4
Q

The word “should” when used in the operator’s manual indicates:

A

A non-mandatory, but preferred method of accomplishment.

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5
Q

The left WoW switch has what functions?

A

-DAFCS 1 and 2
-Maintenance panel (light)
-CAAS
-DCU1
-IFF TRANSPONDER

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6
Q

The right WoW switch has what functions?

A

-DAFCS 2 and 1
-maintenance panel
-CAAS
-DCU2
-ICMD (improved countermeasure dispenser system)

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7
Q

A POWER STEERING advisory indicates?

A

-power steering circuits have failed
or
-aft right wheel has exceeded turning limits

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8
Q

In the event of a hydraulic leak from one of the landing gear’s brakes, how does the pilot isolate that system from the rest of the utility hydraulics?

A

PWR STEER sw-OFF

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9
Q

100% NR is ____rpm

A

225 rpm

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10
Q

The engine lubrication system has an integral tank that is serviced with approximately ____ quarts.

A

13 quarts

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11
Q

The EAPS has a high electrical power requirement; they should not be operated at the same time while using ____ ___________ ___________.

A

APU Generator power

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12
Q

If the Useable oil in the engine lubrication system decreases to approximately ________ quarts, the corresponding ENG OIL LVL LO caution will activate

A

2 quarts

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13
Q

When Hover Override is inactive, ___ ___________ torque available is displayed.

A

10 minute

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14
Q

The HMA contains an alternator for powering ____________ ___________.

A

FADEC Electronics

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15
Q

The HMA’s integral alternator is powered when NG reaches __________.

A

Above 60% NG

-10, pg. 2-28

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16
Q

What constitutes a “torque split”

A

A torque difference between engines greater than 10%

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17
Q

Directional static stability and automatic turn coordination is provided above what airspeed?

A

40 KCAS

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18
Q

The accumulators in the power control modules of the flight Control Hydraulics provide what function?

A

Dampen low frequency pressure surges and provide stored hydraulic power for peak loads

-10, pg. 2-72

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19
Q

The generators will be disconnected from the AC buses any time the frequency drops below _____to _____ Hz for more than ___ to ____ seconds. These frequencies correspond to ____ to ____% NR.

A

325 to 335 Hz

3 to 7 seconds

82-85% NR

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20
Q

What is the APU fuel burn rate?

A

Approximately 90 lbs/hour

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21
Q

Upon initial power up, all VWS functions are inhibited for _______ seconds.

A

4 seconds.

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22
Q

WCA; Define warnings, cautions and advisories.

A

Warnings- situations which require immediate action to avoid injury or death

Cautions- situations which require action to avoid or reduce equipment damage or to preclude a warning condition

Advisory- System or mission limiting condition exists which may require operator action, but immediate response is not required

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23
Q

What are the mooring requirements for wind speed 0 to 39 mph?

A

Two Forward blades tied down

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24
Q

What are the mooring requirements for winds 39 to 65 mph?

A

Fuselage and blades tied down

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25
Q

ATC requests you “IDENT”, how do you accomplish this?

A

By pressing the “ID” key on the CDU.

Will last 15-30 seconds

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26
Q

With rotors turning, static potential between the helicopter and a load on the ground can be as high as ______________ volts.

A

40,000 volts

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27
Q

The center hook actuator must be charged to ______________ psi.

A

2,000-2,100 psi

28
Q

Setting the ______ sw to _______, energizes an emergency hook release relay.

A

CARGO HOOK EMERG

REL ALL

29
Q

Hook load advisories will display when the corresponding hook has a load above _______.

A

150 lbs

30
Q

If the DUAL HOOK FAULT caution indicates a malfunction of either the forward or aft hook:

HINT: how will the load be released?

A

Releasing the load using other than the manual release handle is prohibited.

31
Q

Is the CH47 a class 1 or class 2 aircraft?

A

Class 1

32
Q

Litter arrangement: there are provisions for ____ litters along each cargo compartment wall.

A

24 litters

33
Q

Compartments C, D, and E are limited to _____ lbs/sq ft.

A

300 lbs/sq ft

34
Q

The cargo loading ramp is limited to a maximum total load of _________ lbs when using for internal cargo.

A

3,000 lbs

35
Q

It may be necessary to motor the engines on shutdown if temperature does not decrease below ________ degrees Celsius.

A

350°C

-10 chapter 8 NOTE 8-27

36
Q

CAUTION
To prevent Engine over torque, do not enter forecast __________ or stronger turbulence with inoperative CCDA or coupled to a vertical axis of the flight Director

A

Moderate

37
Q

The single Engine Service ceiling chart is based on what airspeed?

A

The aircraft being flown at the best single engine Airspeed

38
Q

The maximum glide distance for power off is attained at what airspeed?

A

105 KCAS or VNE and 100% NR

39
Q

When is an engine transmission clutch failing to engage most likely to occur?

A

When the ECL is advanced from GND to FLT or during engine start

40
Q

The hoist/winch has how much cable?

A

150 feet
First and last 20 feet are painted aviation red

41
Q

What are the two modes of operation for the hoist/winch and associated speeds?

A

Rescue: 0-100fpm
Cargo: 0-20 fpm

42
Q

What are the 2 ways the FWD and AFT cargo hooks be opened?

A

Electronically or manually

43
Q

The pilot’s seats are designed to stroke at what G’s?

A

2-3 G’s

44
Q

What are the floor tiedown rings rated to?
How many are there of each?

A

5k - 83 in fuselage, 4 on ramp
10k- 8

45
Q

Chapters of the -10

A

Ch 1- Introduction
Ch 2- Aircraft Systems
Ch 3- Avionics
Ch 4- Mission Equipment
Ch 5- Limits and Restrictions
Ch 6- Weight/Balance and Loading
Ch 7- Performance Data
Ch 8- Normal Procedures
Ch 9- Emergency Procedures

46
Q

Reports necessary to comply with the Army Aviation Safety Program, Accident Reporting and Records, and Accident Prevention are located in AR ________.

A

AR 385-10

47
Q

Which landing gear is associated with preventing cancellation of mode 4 transponder codes?

A

Aft Left

48
Q

Which landing gear is associated with disabling chaff/flare dispensers, ATIRCM, CMWS, ICMD, ASE?

A

Aft Right

49
Q

How long is each blade from Blade tip to Vertical Hinge Pin?

A

27 feet 6 inches

50
Q

What is the diameter of each of the rotor systems with engines in FLT? (Blades turning/flat pitch)

A

60 feet

51
Q

When can the pilot/copilot seat’s recline function NOT be used?

A

When armor plating is installed on the seat

52
Q

What helps to dampen aircraft vibrations?

A

Self-tuning vibration absorbers

-OR-

Improved Vibration Control System (IVCS)

53
Q

Power to operate the Fire Extinguisher Discharge System is supplied by the _______________________.

A

the No. 1 and No. 2 DC essential buses

54
Q

How many BTU’s is the Heating and Ventilation system?

What is the fuel consumption rate of the heater?

A

200,000

Approximately 15 pounds per hour

55
Q

The aircraft is equipped with two self attuning vibration absorbers located where?

A

Under the forward section cabin floor

56
Q

Name the components of the HMA

Name the components of the HMA
A
  1. Fuel metering valve
  2. Compressor bleed band control assembly
  3. Alternator section
  4. NG speed sensing motor
  5. Fuel pump unit
57
Q

What three parameters can the engines match to maintain NR?

A

PTIT, torque, and NG (automatic if either selected mode fails)

-10, pg. 2-28

58
Q

When both engines are in reversionary mode, NR will require more pilot attention since proportional rotor speed governor will not hold speed as accurately as the primary systems. With large thrust changes, the rotor speed can change up to ______% from the nominal setting.

A

+/- 3%

59
Q

If in reversionary mode for any reason (training) and there is a reversionary failure, the FADEC [WILL / WILL NOT] automatically switch back to primary mode.

A

WILL NOT

the pilot must manually select PRI mode.

-10, pg. 2-29

60
Q

Describe a failed fixed condition.

A

Both primary and reversionary systems of an engine fail. The engine will remain at the power setting at the time of the failure.

When a failed fixed condition exists, engine output will be unaffected by thrust control lever inputs, and the ENG COND lever and the FADEC INC / DEC switches for the affected engine will be inoperative.

There will be no proportional control through the ENG COND lever.

Engine shutdown may have to be accomplished by closing the affected engine fuel valve.

-10, pg. 2-29

61
Q

When hover override is INACTIVE, what is the torque limit displayed under TQ AVL?

A

10 minute torque available

-10, pg. 2-22

62
Q

What feature does FADEC not provide in a Reversionary start that is present in a primary start?

A

Over temperature start abort is not provided

-10, pg. 2-41

63
Q

How many fuel probes are in each MAIN fuel tank?

A

Three fuel quantity probes each

-10, pg. 2-43

64
Q

DAFCS incorporates redundant ADC’s to provide airspeed (only accurate above _____ knots) and altitude.

A

Only accurate above 40 knots

-10, pg. 2-59

65
Q

Low speed turn coordination- turn coordination becomes active when accelerating above ____ knots airspeed; however, if the aircraft is already in a turn as it decelerates below 40 knots, then DAFCS provides low speed turn coordination down to ____ knots forward groundspeed.

A

45 knots

15 knots

Maximum bank angle hold of 45 degrees

-10, pg. 2-61

66
Q

Deceleration/Position Hold
(DECEL/PSN)
-can be armed at any speed but will activate only below ____ knots forward ground speed. It will remain active up to ____ knots forward ground speed.

A

Active below 65 KGS

Remain active up to 70 KGS

-10, pg. 2-62

CH-47 (9.4) (48 decks)

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