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CH-47 (9.4) > 2024 FD DES Prep > Flashcards

2024 FD DES Prep Flashcards

1
Q

When a VOR frequency is tuned, each dot on the deviation scale represents how much deflection?

A

5 degrees

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2
Q

When a localizer frequency is tuned, each dot on the deviation scale represents how much deflection?

A

1.25 degrees

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3
Q

Each mark above and below the center mark on the glide slope scale represents how much deflection?

A

0.25 degrees

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4
Q

______ are areas where operations are hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft and contain airspace within which the flight of aircraft, while not wholly prohibited, is subject to restriction

A

Restricted Area

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5
Q

How large is the “Oceanic” RNP RNAV corridor from centerline to the outer boundary?

A

4.0 NM

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6
Q

How large is the “En Route” RNP RNAV corridor from centerline to the outer boundary?

A

2.0 NM

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7
Q

How large is the “Terminal” RNP RNAV corridor from centerline to the outer boundary?

A

1.0 NM

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8
Q

How large is the “Approach” RNP RNAV corridor from centerline to the outer boundary?

A

0.3 NM

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9
Q

On an ELA chart, blue and green airport symbols represent what?

A

Airports with published instrument approaches

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10
Q

On an ELA chart, what do the tick marks around the airport symbol mean?

A

Civil airport

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11
Q

How much coverage for ground based navigation signal does a MOCA cover between two segments of a route?

(Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude)

A

25 statute / 22 NM of a VOR

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12
Q

What height buffer is calculated into the OROCA for the Fort Drum AO?

A

1000 ft non mountainous
2000 ft mountainous

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13
Q

When flying a DME arc approach procedure, pilots must remain within _____ NM’s of the desired DME arc.

A

+/- 1 NM

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14
Q

What does the white “H” in a black circle in the VOR freq block indicate?

What does the white “T” in a black circle indicate?

How do you contact JOESBORO FSS?

A

Hazardous inflight weather advisory service available (HIWAS)

Transcribed weather broadcast (TWEB)

Pilot transmits on 122.6 and recieved on VOR 116.0

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15
Q

What is the FAF for a precision approach?

A

Glide slope intercept

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16
Q

What are the three individual services a Very High Frequency Omnidirectional Range/Tactical Air Navigation (VORTAC) provide?

A
  1. VOR Azimuth
  2. TACAN Azimuth
  3. TACAN distance (DME)
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17
Q

What is the Category A Circling approach area radii?

A

1.3 miles

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18
Q

What are the five types of routes that are displayed on an instrument approach plate?

A
  1. Feeder routes
  2. Initial approach
  3. Intermediate approach
  4. Final approach course
  5. Missed approach
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19
Q

If a procedure turn or holding pattern in lieu of procedure turn is depicted on the approach plate, is it mandatory?

A

Yes

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20
Q

Does an MSA guarantee NAVAID reception?

A

No

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21
Q

TRUE/FALSE
If a crew member or mission parameter change increases the resultant risk, the PC or AMC will get reapproved as required, but does not need to be rebriefed?

A

FALSE

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22
Q

Who is responsible for the acceptance of risk when passengers are not restrained during flight?

A

The passengers chain of command

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23
Q

For seats out operations, who gives the approval and how is it documented?

A

The first one-star in the passenger’s chain of command.
It may be documented verbally but will be documented via memorandum as soon as practical.

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24
Q

How far out can a commander excuse an aviator from his/her APART requirements when scheduled for retirement or separation? And may the aviator perform crew duties during this period?

A

6 months from date of scheduled retirement or separation

No

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25
Q

After departing from an uncontrolled non military airfield, what must you do?

A

Advise flight service station or other competent authority of departure time

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26
Q

You can NOT use an airfield as alternate on IFR flight plan if?

A
  1. WORST weather is within 400’ and 1SM of approach minima at ETA through one hour after ETA
  2. NAVAID is unmonitored
  3. Radar is required
  4. If a GPS approach was used as a primary plan and GPS is the only available instrument approach
  5. There is no surface airspace (B, C, D, E)
  6. If alternate not authorized is published on the approach plate
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27
Q

Aviators shall avoid overflight of National Security areas below _______ feet AGL.

A

2,000’ AGL

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28
Q

TRUE/FALSE

Army aviators are authorized to off-tune from the approach aid in order to identify an approach fix.

A

TRUE

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29
Q

EFB Batteries must be at what level to be used for flight?

A

10% for each hour of flight and no less than 50%

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30
Q

If operating in IMC conditions, and either EFB fails, what should you do?

A

Exit IMC as soon as practicable

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31
Q

When do all personnel aboard Army aircraft have to wear life preservers?

A

When the aircraft does not have single engine capability and is flown beyond glide distance of the shore

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32
Q

When will life rafts be on board for flights in Army aircraft?

A

When aircraft is flown more than 30 minutes or 100NM from shore

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33
Q

How are two way flight routes deconflicted?

A

Time or altitude separation

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34
Q

What are the standard distances to be used for SP’s and RP’s?

A

3-8 km

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35
Q

Ensure the heading to the RP is within ____ degrees of the LZ landing direction.

A

30 degrees

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36
Q

What is the time format for “Hard Times”?

A

hh:mm:ss

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37
Q

For planning, how much separation is required between CH47’s in a:
-light PZ
-heavy PZ
-heavy PZ at night?

A

-100m

-200m

-250m

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38
Q

What does REDCON 1 and 2 mean?

A

REDCON 1- engines 100%, APU off, mission freqs ready, weapons safe and clear, ready for takeoff

REDCON 2- engines off, APU on, weapons installed, MSN freqs/internal, crew at or in aircraft-15 minutes

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39
Q

How many hours can be logged in a 24 hour period of D/NG/combination of D and NG?

A

D- 8 hours
NG- 6 hours
D+NG- 7 hours

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40
Q

Lines 1-9 MEDEVAC request

A

1- location of pickup
2- radio frequency, call sign, and suffix
3- number of pt’s by precedence
4- special equipment required
5- number of pt’s by type
6- security of site
7- marking method at site
8- pt nationality and status
9- CBRN

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41
Q

If the supported unit has already named LZ’s and PZ’s, should you use the standard naming convention per the Aviation Handbook?

A

No

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42
Q

When will RCM’s recently graduating IERW conduct an Instrument Flight Evaluation (IFE)?

A

Prior to designation of RL2, unless in an austere environment-in which case they will complete IFE upon return to home station.

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43
Q

Is the neck cord required to be used with NVG’s while flying?

A

Yes, unless HUD is being worn

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44
Q

Each RL 1 crewmember will receive ____ no-notice evaluation(s) per year outside of their APART period.

A

1

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45
Q

At what level should the cockpit internal lighting be adjusted to?

A

Lowest usable intensity that allows for unaided viewing of the instruments

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46
Q

MBOs and FMAAs must sign the original RCOP within ____ hours of verbal briefing.

A

48 hours

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47
Q

In reference to the RCOP, what is a bona fide absence?

A

A short period of time when the commander is not readily available to exercise mission command, provide guidance, and issue final mission approval within a timely manner

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48
Q

BN Commander must be notified of training flights that depart ______ NM radius of WSAAF.

A

200 NM

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49
Q

What is the cold weather bag requirements per the 10th CAB supplement?

A

-cold Wx gloves
-fleece cap
-FREE/GORTEX top and bottom
-balaclava/scarf/neck gaiter
-one pair extra socks

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50
Q

How long is a “rest period”?

A

10 hours

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51
Q

How long is a reset day? How often should they be scheduled?

A

24 hours, every 14 days

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52
Q

How long can the company commander extend the duty day and flight hours?

A

Duty day-2 hours
Flight hours- 1 hour

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53
Q

What are the response times associated with REDCON 1-5?

A

REDCON1: immediate

REDCON2: 15 minutes

REDCON3: 30 minutes

REDCON4: 1 hour

REDCON: greater than 1 hour

54
Q

What are the disk separations for tight, close, loose, and extended?

A

Tight:1-2 disks
Close: 3-5 disks
Loose: 6-10 disks
Extended: greater than 10 disks

55
Q

Which aircraft in a multiship flight initiates a lead change?

A

Lead

56
Q

For planning purposes, how heavy will each combat troop be estimated to be?

A

300lbs

57
Q

What are the weapon control statuses?
(3)

A

Weapons hold
Weapons tight
Weapons free

58
Q

How many hours of hood/weather will be flown in a semiannual period? How many need to be flown in the aircraft?

A

3.0 in a semiannual
1.5 in the aircraft

59
Q

Except for takeoff and landing, night unaided flight will not be performed below _____ feet AHO.

A

200’ AHO

60
Q

Who may conduct and certify LAO flights?

A

Any PC knowledgeable in the area

61
Q

What are the five major areas that R5201 is divided into?

A

Alpina, Matoon, Bowling Alley, Reedville, Weaver

62
Q

When weather drops below _____’ and __ SM, you are no longer legal to fly in R5201.

A

500’ and 2SM

63
Q

How often will VFR local weather briefs be updated?

A

Every 2 hours or during fuel stops

64
Q

Are armed aircraft authorized to refuel at OASIS?

While at OASIS, are radio transmissions authorized?

A

No.

Only emergency transmissions to reduce the risk of electrical arcing.

65
Q

Severe weather is defined as what conditions?

Drum 95-1

A

Tornadoes
hail (>=1/2 inch diameter)
And/or
Surface winds >=45knots

66
Q

Severe thunderstorm is defined as what conditions?

Drum 95-1

A

Convective winds >= 45 knots
And/or
Hail >= 1/2 inch diameter

67
Q

How many hours in advance can a WEATHER WATCH be reported?

A

12 hours

68
Q

Is a weather warning issued before a weather watch?

Yes/no

A

No

69
Q

Who has priority during the first hour of official sunset at WSAAF?

How is this communicated to TWR?

A

Night unaided aircraft

Adding “uniform” to your call sign

70
Q

How far from centerline does wake turbulence extend during heavy aircraft operations?

(03/21 Or 15/33)

A

2500’

71
Q

What is SVFR minima for WSAAF?

A

Day- 300’ 1/2 SM
Night- 500’ 1 SM
Traffic Pattern/ALL- 500’ 1 SM

72
Q

What is a BASH?

A

Bird/Animal Aircraft Strike Hazard

Reduces hazard of aircraft collision with an animal or bird

73
Q

What states are included in the local flying area?
(9)

A

New York
New Hampshire
New Jersey
Vermont
Maine
Massachusetts
Rhode Island
Connecticut
Pennsylvania

74
Q

You are flying at 500’ AGL. By how much should you avoid towns and villages?

A

1 NM

75
Q

How far in advance should you submit a PPR for flight into the Cantonment Area Helicopter Landing Zones?

A

2 working days in advance

76
Q

What are the primary entry points into R5201?

A

CP HUBBARD
CP STERLINGVILLE
CP WARD HILL

77
Q

What are the primary CPs used for reentry into the Class D from R5201?

A

CP BIRCH
CP DOOLINS

78
Q

Describe the flight of route for the Ward Hill Transition?

A

Fly direct CP SHANK, climb 1400’ MSL, DCT CP WARD HILL

79
Q

What are the responsibilities of the PC when flying under gun target lines?

(7)

A

-coordinate with range control and firing artillery unit prior to flight
-provide range control with a/c tail number and dates of execution
-maintain positive radio control with Drum Radio during mission
-do not fly under hun target lines without range control clearance
-maintain 1000 m from artillery firing line
-do not fly above 100’ AHO
-will not violate area “ECHO” (area in front of firing line plus 45 degrees either side of line up to 350 meters)

80
Q

Above what altitude can you predict that your unaided night vision will begin to decrease?

A

4,000’

81
Q

Smoking three cigarettes in quick succession has what effect on the body in regards to altitude physiology and night adaptation?

A

20% loss of night vision

Physiologic altitude of about 5,000’ at sea level

82
Q

Drinking four ounces of alcohol will cause the body to mimic the physiological effects of being at _________’ MSL.

A

8,000’ MSL

83
Q

What are the four stages of hypoxia?

A

Indifferent

Compensatory

Disturbance

Critical

84
Q

What is the most common somatogyral illusion?

A

Leans

85
Q

As a FAC 1 aviator, how many hours will you fly semiannually?

How many sim hours will be logged annually?

A

45 hours flown semiannually

18 hours sim time

86
Q

What are the three common standards for ALL tasks?

A
  • do not exceed aircraft limitations
    -perform crew coordination actions IAW ATM
    -apply appropriate night and environment task considerations
87
Q

What reduces the effectiveness of threat system employment and “denies the enemy the shot?”

A

Aviation tactics

88
Q

What are the five phases of the kill chain?

A

Exposure
Encounter
Engagement
Endgame
Effect

89
Q

What is used to verify the identity of an Isolated Personnel?

A

ISOPREP

90
Q

What is the average scale of a VFR sectional?

A

1:500,000

91
Q

With IRSS installed, how much weight should be added to the climb and descent charts?

A

2,000lbs

92
Q

What are the operational defects for the ANVIS 6?

A

-flashing, flickering, or intermittent operation
-edge glow
-emission points
-shading

93
Q

You are flying in a low contrast environment with low illumination under NVGs over tall grass and having a difficult time maintaining a hover.

What is the most likely visual illusion you will experience in this scenario?

A

Vection

94
Q

What is the weapon system displayed?

A

SA-24/MANPAD (surface to air missile)

95
Q

Who is the approval authority for a unique load?

A

High risk approving authority

96
Q

Which hoist hooks are approved for personnel lift operations?

(1, 2, or 3)

A

2 and 3

97
Q

How much of a torque increase can you expect to encounter in a 60 degree bank without losing altitude?

A

100% increase in TRQ

98
Q

_______ provides supplemental, corrective, or exact amolification to the general mission tasking of the specific Air Tasking Order (ATO) period. They often include ROE and combat identification criteria for air defense. Include additional guidance, directives, or information that aircrews require such as host-nation restrictions, base defense zone procedures, and special weapons systems control procedures and combat search/rescue procedures.

A

Special instructions

SPINS

99
Q

Identify the weapon system

A

SA-8 Gecko

100
Q

What is the difference between VFR On Top and VFR Over The Top?

A

VFR on top- IFR clearance that allows aviators to fly at VFR altitudes of their choice but does not imply cancellation of IFR clearance

VFR over the top- strictly a VFR flight plan, that allows aviators to maintain legal cloud clearances while operating strictly under VFR, no IFR flight plan needed.

101
Q

What is SEAD?

A

Suppression of Enemy Air Defense

102
Q

A(n) _________ is the movement of friendly assault forces by rotary-wing aircraft to engage and destroy enemy forces or to seize and hold key terrain.

A

Air assault

103
Q

During a flight you hear a radio call: “ANGELS 7”

What does this mean?

A

The aircraft making the call is at 7,000’ MSL

104
Q

What are the three doctrinal methods of defeating enemy weapon systems?

A

-Threat Avoidance
-threat suppression/destruction
-employment of ASE

105
Q

A(n) ___________ is the air transport of units, personnel, supplies, and equipment including airdrops and landings that are organized, loaded, and transported to facilitate accomplishment of a tactical mission with the potential threat of enemy forces.

A

Air movement

106
Q

This airspace has a concentrated employment of numerous and varied weapons and airspace users. It has defined dimensions and is usually controlled by the maneuver commander.

A

High-density airspace control zone (HIDACZ)

107
Q

A(n) ______ is a tactical grouping of one or more serials with each serial containing a number of aircraft.

A

Lift

108
Q

Is turning off ASE systems considered an EMCON action?

A

NO

109
Q

What does EMCON mean?

A

Emission Control

110
Q

62-mm tracers burn out at about ____meters and should be considered the max effective range for area targets using the M240H.

A

900 meters

111
Q

What are the four doctrinal types of personnel recovery operations?

A

-immediate
-deliberate
-unassisted
-externally supported

112
Q

What does TOWRICO stand for

A

Take off when ready in chalk order

113
Q

Identify the threat.

A

SA-22 Greyhound

114
Q

Identify the threat

A

SA-18 Grouse

115
Q

______________ is a recurring order implementing the airspace control plan. It provides specific coordination measure details, such as approved ACMs and selected FSCMs, as designated by the airspace control plan.

A

ACO- Airspace coordination orders

116
Q

________ is a method used to task and disseminate to components, subordinate units, and C2 agencies projected sorties, capabilities, and forces to targets and specific missions.

A

ATO- Air Tasking Order

117
Q

Identify the threat.

A

SA-19 Tunguska

118
Q

Identify the threat.

A

SA-13 Gopher

119
Q

Identify the threat.

A

ZSU 23-4 Shilka

120
Q

Identify the threat.

A

SA-6 Gainful

121
Q

Identify the threat.

A

SA-7 WEG

122
Q

The _________ is the first meeting between the AATF Staff, fires, and supporting aviation unit.

A

IPC-Initial Planning Conference

123
Q

What type of drag is most prominent at high airspeeds?

A

Parasitic

124
Q

______ is the airspeed range providing the best power margin for maneuvering flight.

A

Bucket speed

125
Q

Is height above touchdown (HAT) used for straight-in or circling approaches?

A

Straight-in approaches

126
Q

What does the brevity term GIMBAL mean?

A

M240H has reached azimuth and elevation limits

127
Q

What does the brevity term CHERUB mean?

A

X00’s of feet AGL

128
Q

What does the brevity term WINCHESTER mean?

A

No ordnance remaining

129
Q

What does the brevity term REMINGTON mean?

A

No ordnance remaining except force-pro or weapon system ammo

130
Q

What does the brevity term LAME DUCK mean?

A

Aircraft in a minor state of emergency

131
Q

What does the brevity term NO JOY mean?

A

Aircrew does not have visual contact with target or bandit

CH-47 (9.4) (48 decks)

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