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int med exam 0828 > ID > Flashcards

ID Flashcards

1
Q

presentation of herpes zoster opthalmicus?

A

asymetric periorbital vesicular rash, viral prodrome + signifcant pain. vesicular lesion on tip of nose indicates opthalamic division of trigimneral nerve invovlement. Phtophobia indicates corneal involvment that warrants referal to opthamologist. Tx with oral agents, valcyvlori, famciclovir overal acyclovir as acylcovir poorly absorbed and must be given 5x daily. if immunocompromised, IV acyclovir is generally used.

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2
Q

Tx of choice for listeria meningitis? what if pen allergic?

A

ampicillin or amp + gent.

if pen allergic, bactrim.

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3
Q

major ddx of exudative tonsilitis and pharyngitis without cough or nasal congestion?

A

Group A strep, mononucleosis.

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4
Q

define fever according to the IDSA?

A

single oral temperature greater or equal to 38.3 or an elevation in temperature to 38.0 for more than one hour.

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5
Q

define neutropenia?

A

ANC<500 cells/mm3 or expected to fall below that value during the next 48 hours.

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6
Q

what is the mcc of heart murmur of a rheumatic fever in a young adult? what does it sound like?

A

mitral regurgitation. holosystolic murmur audible at the apex.

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7
Q

describe a pulmonary stenosis murmur?

A

harsh systolic crescendo-descrendo murmur best heard over the left ICS

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8
Q

describe a isolated TR murmur?

A

holosystolic murmur at the lower left sternal border that increases with inspiration

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9
Q

indication and what would you give for herpes zoster vaccination? Dose schedule?

A
  • HZV vaccination indicated to reduce the incidence of herpes zoster (shingles) and incidence/severity of postherpetic neuralgia.
  • Recombinant zoster vaccine (RZV) indicated for individuals aged>50, two doses spaced 2-6 months apart.
  • Zoster vaccine live (ZVL)only for individuals aged>60, single dose. ZVL CI in significant immunocompromised but can be given with middle/low dose immunosupression.
  • Do not give either until active episode resolved.
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10
Q

Associated Injection drug use infection associated with:

  1. licking needles or using used cigarette filters?
  2. using lemon juice to dissolve crack cocaine?
  3. tap water to dissolve a substance
A
  1. licking needles or using used cigarette filters? - oral flora
  2. using lemon juice to dissolve crack cocaine? - candida
  3. tap water to dissolve a substance - pseudomonas
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11
Q

common microrganisms associated with poor dental health?

A
  1. VGS
  2. nutritionally variant streptococci
  3. Abiotrophia defectiva
  4. granulicatella
  5. gemella
  6. HACEK
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12
Q

common microorganisms assoicated witih alcoholism/cirrhosis?

A
  1. bartonella
  2. aeromonas
  3. listeria
  4. Strep pneumo
  5. beta hemolytic strep
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13
Q

common microorganisms associated with contaminated milk or infected farm animals?

A
  1. Brucella
  2. Coxiella burnetii
  3. Erysipelothrix
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14
Q

common microorganisms associated with dog or cat exposure?

A
  1. bartonella
  2. pasturella
  3. capnocytophaga
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15
Q

common microorganisms associated with SOT?

A
  1. S.aureus
  2. Aspergillus fumigatus
  3. Enterococcus
  4. Candida
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16
Q

common microorganisms associated with indwelling cardiovascular medical devices?

A
  1. S.Aures
  2. CoNs
  3. Fungi
  4. Aerobic GNB
  5. Cornyebacterium
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17
Q

common microorganisms associated with early <1 year PVR?

A
  1. CoNs
  2. S.Aureus
  3. Fungi
  4. Corynebacterium
  5. legionella
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18
Q

common microorganisms associated with late (>1 yr) PVR?

A
  1. CoNs
  2. S.Aureus
  3. Viridans Group
  4. Enterococcus
  5. Fungi
  6. Corynebacterium
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19
Q

what is the standard regimen for inpatient pneumonia?

A
  1. beta lactam + macrolide
  2. Bectam lactam + respiratory FQ
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20
Q

For inpatient CAP, when do you add MRSA or pseudomonas coverage?

A

prior respiratory isolation of MRSA - add MRSA coverage, de-escalate if culture/PCR negative.

prior respiratory isolation of pseudomonas - add Psuedo coverage, de-escalate if culture negative.

Recent hospitalization and IV abx for MRSA - withhold MRSA coverage unless culture results positive or PCR positive. If severe pneumonia, add MRSA coverage empirically.

Recent hospitalization and IV abx for Pseudomonas - withhold pseudomonas coverage unless culture results positive. If severe pneumonia, add pseudomonas coverage emprically.

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21
Q

Define the criteria for severe CAP?

A

1 major or 3+ minor

major:

  1. septic shock with need for vasopressors
  2. respiratory failure requiring MV

Minor:

  1. CURB (uremia>20, RR>30, blood pressure requiring fluid resuscitation)
  2. PAO2/FiO2<250
  3. Multilobar infiltrates
  4. leukopenia <4K
  5. thrombocytopenia 100K
  6. hypothermia <36
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22
Q

what are the initial tx strategies for outpatient CAP w/o comorbidiites or risk factors for MRSA/pseudomonas?

A
  • Amoxicillin 1g TID
  • doxycycline 100 BID
  • Macrolide (if local pneumonocccal resistance<25%)
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23
Q

what are the initial tx strategies for outpatient CAP with comorbidities?

A
  1. Combination therapy with Augmentin or cephalosporin + macrolide or doxycycline OR
  2. monotherapy with respiratory FQ (Levo 750mg, moxifloxacin 400, gemifloxacin 320mg q daily)
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24
Q

what are the comorbidities associated with pneumonia?

A
  1. chronic heart, lung, or liver disease
  2. diabetes
  3. alcoholism
  4. malignancy
  5. asplenia
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25
Q

what are the risk factors of MRSA or P.aeruginosa?

A
  1. prior respiratory isolation of MRSA
  2. Prior respiratory isolation of pseudomonas
  3. receipt of parenteral antibiotics in the last 90 days
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26
Q

what is legionellosis associated with? Risk factors?

A
  • hyponatremia, aminotransferase elevation, GI symptoms, and relative bradycardia.
  • Tx with macrolide or FQ.
  • Risk factors age>50, smoking, chronic lung/kidney/liver disease, immunocompromised, exposure to hot tubs, recent travel with overnight stay outside home
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27
Q

what raises your suspicion for bordetella pertussis? when/what should you tx?

A
  • an initial catarrhal phase of low-grade fever + nasal congestion followed by severe/persistent paroxysmal coughing episodes.
  • in patients older than 1 year age, within 3 weeks of cough onset, to reduce the duration of symptoms and transmission, 5-7 days of macrolide antibiotics.
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28
Q

what 3 clinical presentations should raise suspicion for acute bacterial vs viral sinusitis?

A
  1. persistent symptoms of acute rhinosinusitis for 10 or more days w/o improvement
  2. early onset of severe symptoms such as purulent nasal secretions or facial pain and fever>39 that lasts more than 3-4 days
  3. “double sickening”: clinical worsening with fever and purulent nasal secretions after initial improvement of respiratory symptoms.
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29
Q

in patients with H.Pylori infection, with uncomplicated dyspepsia, how should you test? who should you treat?

A
  • delay 24 hours in those with H2 receptor antagonists, 2 weeks in PPI, 4 weeks taking antimicrobials.
  • Test with either urea breath or fecal antigen test.
  • Asymptomatic infections do not need to be treated.
  • Patients with active duodenal or gastric ulcers should be treated if they are infected.
  • positive serology indicates past or present infection.
  • TOC 4 weeks after completion of antibiotic therapy and after PPi therapy witheld 1-2 weeks.
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30
Q

how should you treat for H.Pylori infection?

A
  • Standard treatment is bismuth quadruple therapy (PPI or H2-blocker + bismuth + metronidazole + tetracycline) for 10-14 days especially if previous macrolide exposure/pen allergic
  • Clarithromycin triple therapy (proton pump inhibitor [PPI] + clarithromycin + amoxicillin or metronidazole) can be used in regions where H. pylori clarithromycin resistance is known to be <15% and in patients with no previous history of macrolide exposure for 14 days
  • Levofloxacin + PPI+ amoxicillin for 10-14 days
  • FQ sequential therapy of PPI + amoxicillin 5-7 days followed by PPI, FQ, and nitroimdazole for 5-7 days.
  • increased risk of gastric cancer/malt lymphoma.
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31
Q

Basics and tx of giardiasis/

A
  • contaminated water/food
  • Incubation 7-14 days
  • Dx through stool for cysts or through antigen testing
  • First-line treatment is tinidazole or nitazoxanide
  • The second-line treatment is metronidazole due to increasing rates of resistance.
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32
Q

Teatnus prophylaxis for:

  1. unknown vaccine history or <3 tetanus vaccines, clean wound?
  2. unknown vaccine history or <3 tetanus vaccines, dirty wound?
  3. >3 tetanus vaccines - clean wound?
  4. >3 tetanus vaccines - dirty wound?
A
  1. unknown vaccine history or <3 tetanus vaccines, clean wound? - Give tetanus vaccine
  2. unknown vaccine history or <3 tetanus vaccines, dirty wound? Give tetanus vaccine and tetanus immune globulin
  3. >3 tetanus vaccines - clean wound? - <10 years, no vaccine needed; >10 years vaccine give the vaccine,
  4. >3 tetanus vaccines - dirty wound? <5 years, no vaccine no postexposure tx needed ; > or equal to 5 years since last vaccine, give tetanus vaccine.
  5. Can give TDaP single dose, or TD if TDaP unavailable.
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33
Q

what is the symptoms and tx of acute bacterial rhinosinusitis

A
  • >10 days of fever/chills, purulent nasal drainage, facial pain, and headache.
  • tx with augmentin 5-7 days.
  • amoxicillin is arguable but IDSA suggests augmentin due to beta-lactamase-producing organisms like Moraxella in kids and Haemophilus influenza(GN Cocco-bacilli) in adults.
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34
Q

what type of organisms do you need to cover for CA-diverticulitis?

A
  1. enteric gram-negative aerobic bacilli
  2. enteric gram-positive streptococci
  3. anaerobes
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35
Q

appropriate therapy for BV? 2 choices

A
  • intravaginal metronidazole x 5 days
  • oral metronidazole x 7 days
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36
Q

Centor criteria? tx?

A

Centor criteria for GAS pharyngitis -tx with Penicillin/azithromycin (if pen allergic). Scores 2 RADT, scores 3/>4 - test/treat empirically?

  1. Fever
  2. absence of cough
  3. tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy
  4. tonsilar exudate
  5. Age 3-14 + 1, 15-44 = 0, age>44 = -1
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37
Q

what are the 2 most common post influenza bacterial pneumonia organisms?

A
  • Strep pneumonia
  • Staph aureus
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38
Q

Atypical pathogens associated with CAP? DF?

A
  • Mycoplasma pneumoniae - erythema multiforme, a maculopapular rash with target shaped lesions involving palms, soles, IgM cold agglutin hemolytic anemia, dx with acute/convalescent serologies/naso PCR. Tx with azithromycin (pref), FQ, doxycycline.
  • Legionella pneumophilia - transaminitis, GI upset, azithromycin/FQ,
  • Chlamydia pneumoniae - Encephalitis/myocafrditis/asthma exacerbation, dx with PCR, tx: Azithromycin(preferred)/doxcycyline/FQ
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39
Q

Treatment for Chlamydia?

A
  • Azithromycin 1g PO x 1 dose† **Only use azithromycin if gonococcal infection has been ruled out**
  • Alternative: doxycycline
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40
Q

Tx for gonorrhea? Preferred/alternative

A
  • Preferred: <150 kg: Ceftriaxone 500mg IM x 1 dose; ≥150 kg: Ceftriaxone 1g IM x 1 dose
  • Alternative: Gentamicin 240mg IM x 1 dose Plus Azithromycin 2g PO x 1 dose
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41
Q

EPT treatment of

  1. chlamydia
  2. gonorrhea
  3. chlamydia and gonorrhea
A
  1. chlamydia - Azithromycin 1g PO x 1 dose
  2. gonorrhea - Cefixime 800mg x 1 dose
  3. chlamydia and gonorrhea = Cefixime 800mg x 1 dose + doxycyline 100mg BID x 7 days
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42
Q

name the gram negative rods?

A
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43
Q

oxidase negative vs positive gram negative rod?

A
  • oxidase-positive - pseudomonas
  • oxidase negative, H2S producing: salmonella, proteus
  • Oxidase negative, H2S not producing - shigella, yersinia
  • All are non-lactose fermenting
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44
Q

name the gram negative coccobacilli? (5)

A
  1. H.influenza
  2. Bordetella pertussis
  3. pasturella
  4. brucella
  5. F.Tularensis
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45
Q

name the gram positive anaerobes?

A

CLAP

  1. Clostridium
  2. Lactobacillus
  3. Actinomyces
  4. propionibacterium
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46
Q

name the gram -positive rods?

A

Corney’s Mike’s list of basic Cars

  • Corynebacterium
  • Mycobacteria
  • listeria
  • bacillus
  • nocardia- partially acid fast (bactrim/imipenem/amikacin/minocycle)
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47
Q

name the atypical bacteria? define atypical bacteria? (5)

A
  • cannot be cultured in normal way or detected using a gram stain, most commmon in pneumonias.
  • LP those MCQ
  1. Legionella
  2. chlamydia psittaci
  3. mycoplasma pneumoniae
  4. chlamydia pneumoniae
  5. Q fever (Coxiella burnetti)
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48
Q

what’s the difference between a PJI presentation of symptoms based on timeline

A
  • <3 months, MC organism is staph aureus, and fever, erythema, pain is generally present.
  • >3 months, see delayed onset infections often lack localizing symptoms as low virulence bacteria like CoNs.
  • Presence of leukocytes>42K consistent with PJI
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49
Q

when is PCP prophylaxis indicated? what would you use?

A
  1. CD4<200
  2. CD4%<14%
  3. oropharyngeal candidiasis
  4. H/o of AIDS-defining illness.
  • Bactrim or Dapsone or Atovaquone or aerosolized pentamidine.
  • note that dapsone monotherapy or aerosolized pentamidine has no activity for toxoplasmosis encephalitis.
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50
Q

when do you use prophylaxis for Toxo? Regimen?

A

CD4<100 + positive IgG test.

  1. Bactrim DS q daily
  2. Dapsone + pyrimethamine + leucovirin.
  3. Atovaquone
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51
Q

If HIV w/AIDS patient is Toxoplasma gondii IgG negative, what do you need to counsel?

A
  • They are presumed to be free of latent infection
  • Avoid exposures such as contact with cat excreta, consumption of raw or undercooked meat and shellfish.
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52
Q

TB skin test of >5mm group?

A
  1. Exposed(Close contacts)
  2. Chest x-ray changes
  3. HIV
  4. transplant
  5. immunosupressed
  6. ITCH-E
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53
Q

TB skin test of 10mm group?

A
  • PWID
  • immigrated past 5 years from TB endemic area
  • Homeless
  • Healthcare workers
  • Recent TST conversion (increase in >10mm within 2 years)
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54
Q

what are the 5 patient groups that require endocarditis prophylaxis?

A
  1. prosthetic cardiac valves
  2. prosthetic material used for cardiac valve repair
  3. previous IE
  4. Unrepaired cyanotic CHD or repaired CHD with residual shunts or regurgitation
  5. cardiac transplant with valve regurgitation due to structurally abnormal heart valve
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55
Q

what would you use for IE prophylaxis?

A

oral amoxicillin or if severe pen allergy, clindamycin.

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56
Q

what do you need to cover in sexual assault victims?

A
  • G/C/trichimonas
  • discuss Hep B vaccination, HPV vaccination.
  • Levonogestrel for pregnancy prevention
  • discussion for HIV PEP.
  • Get STD testing, no empiric tx of syphilis or HSV.
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57
Q

indications for pneumococcal vaccination in adults?

A
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58
Q

name the most common causes of acute community-acquired bloody diarrhea in a febrile patient?

A

enteric infections like salmonella, shigella, camp, STEC.

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59
Q

when is haemophilis influenza type b vaccine indicated?

A
  • anatomical or functional asplenia
  • recipients of HSCT.
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60
Q

when is hand washing with soap and water preferred over alcohol-based hand rubs?

A
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61
Q

what are the bacterial and viral causes of pharyngitis?

A
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62
Q

what suggests viral vs GABHS (strep pyogenes) pharyngitis?

A
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63
Q

what is the tx of GABHS pharyngitis? why tx?

A
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64
Q

what bacteria causes pharyngitis vs rash?

A
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65
Q

define symptoms and gold standard of epiglottitis?

A
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66
Q

what is the treatment for epiglotitis?

A
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67
Q

what is the abx therapy for:

  1. Uncomplicated cystitis?
  2. Complicated cystitis/uncomplicated pyelo?
  3. Complicated pyelo or hospitalized patients?
A
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68
Q

what is the difference for recurrence vs relapse UTI?

A
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69
Q

treatment for prostatitis?

A
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70
Q

what pathogens are most associated with CAUTIs?

A
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71
Q

how do you diagnose a CAUTI?

A
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72
Q

how do you diagnose AOM? Pathogens and tx?

A
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73
Q

basics of swimmer’s ear?

A
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74
Q

what are the classification of sinusitis?

A
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75
Q

what clinical findings suggest bacterial sinusitis vs viral?

A
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76
Q

treatment of acute sinusitis, bacterial and rhinocerebral mucormycosis?

A
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77
Q

MC organisms cause of purulentand non-purulent SSTI?

A
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78
Q

MC organisms associated with Nec Fasc?

A
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79
Q

SSTI associated with water?

A
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80
Q

how do you get septic arthritis?

A
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81
Q

work up for septic arthritis?

A
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82
Q

how do you diagnose a PJI?

A
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83
Q

approaches to tx PJI?

A
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84
Q
  1. MC organism for osteomyelitis?
  2. IVDU?
  3. MC
  4. Sickle cell?
A
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85
Q

what are the 3 specific problems with animal bites?

A
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86
Q

life threatening etiologies of patient’s with fever and rash?

A
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87
Q

what are non-life-threatening etiologies of fever and rash?

A
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88
Q

what 3 organisms produce illness from ingestion of toxins for food poisoning?

A
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89
Q

MC organism associated with non-toxin related bacterial diarrhea?

A
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90
Q

what do you need to educate patients to prevent travelers diarrhea?

A
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91
Q

what is the treatment for traveler’s diarrhea?

A
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92
Q

how does salmonella spread and innoculation period?

A
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93
Q

when/what do you treat salmonella?

A
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94
Q

basics about salmonella typhi?

A
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95
Q

basics of campylobacter for GI illness?

A
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96
Q

how do you get EHEC? Watch out for?

A
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97
Q

basics of shigella for GI illness?

A
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98
Q

basics of Yersinia for GI ilness?

A
99
Q

Tx for C.Diff?

A
100
Q

MC antibiotics associated with C.Diff and symptom presentation?

A
101
Q

how do you treat C.Diff relapse?

A
102
Q

basics of liver abscess?

A
103
Q

why is it important to differentiate primary vs secondary peritonitis?

A
104
Q

what is primary peritonitis?

A
105
Q

how do you diagnose primary peritonitis? How do you treat and prophylaxis?

A
106
Q

what is secondary bacterial peritonitis?

A
107
Q

which population is at risk for STIs?

A
108
Q

describe disease, virus, ulcer, and tx for infectious genital ulcers?

  1. Syphilis
  2. Herpes
  3. Chancroid
  4. LGV
  5. Granuloma inguinale
A
109
Q

what are the manifestations of tertiary syphilis?

A
110
Q

manifestations of secondary syphilis?

A
111
Q

which variants of HPV are most common for genital warts vs plantar warts vs cervical cancer?

A
112
Q

what are the 3 main causes of bacterial meningitis?

A
113
Q

who should you get a CT scan prior to LP for meningitis?

A
114
Q

WBC count, glucose and protein suggestive of normal, bacterial and viral meningitis?

A
115
Q

when and how do you give dexamethasone?

A
116
Q

how would you tailor therapy for CSF results for bacterial meningitis if you see? Likely organism?

  1. GPC
  2. GNC
  3. GPR
  4. GNR
A
117
Q

when do you prophylaxis for meningococcal meningitis?

A
118
Q

how do you diagnose rabies?

A
119
Q

who needs prophylaxis for rabies?

A
120
Q

describe the two types of prion disease?

A
121
Q

what organisms do you need to think of for culture negative endocarditis?

A
122
Q

when is surgical tx for endocarditis indicated?

A
123
Q

who requires prophylaxis for prevention of IE?

A
124
Q

what is the viral set point in HIV?

A
125
Q

name the NRTI and the NNRTI, and toxicity?

A
126
Q

Name the PI, fusion inhibitors and ISTI?

A
127
Q

describe the treatment for post-exposure prophylaxis for HIV for HCW?

A
128
Q

what are the 4 ways OI presents in HIV patients? Describe the specific disease

A
129
Q

what are common skin findings in HIV?

A
130
Q

MCC of diarrhea in AIDS?

A
131
Q

what are the 4 AIDS-defining malignancies?

A
132
Q

which organisms can cause neutropenic sepsis?

A
133
Q

what is the definiton of febrile neutropenia?

A
134
Q

empiric tx for febrile neutropenia?

A
135
Q

what if the patient is persistently febrile and neutropenic on antibiotics?prophylaxis?

A
136
Q

define Toxic Shock syndrome?

A
137
Q

why is a D-test important?

A
138
Q

what are the manifestations of strep pyogenes?

A
139
Q

what are the sites of infection for GBS? How about C/G/D?

A
140
Q

basics of enterococci?

A
141
Q

basics of listeria?

A
142
Q

basics of Corynebacterium diptheriae?

A
143
Q

basics of corynebacterium jeikeium?

A
144
Q

what are the 3 clinical manifestations of bacillus anthracis?

A
145
Q

treatment and symptoms of cutaneous anthrax?

A
146
Q

describe inhalational and GI anthrax?

A
147
Q

what are the other types of clostridium?

A
148
Q

what are the types of nocardia and tx?

A
149
Q

basics of moraxella catarrhalis?

A
150
Q

clinical presentations of Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A
151
Q

basics of yersinia?

A
152
Q

basics of Citrobacter?

A
153
Q

basics of klebsiella and proteus?

A
154
Q

basics of serratia and enterobacter?

A
155
Q

basics of legionella?

A
156
Q

basics of brucella?

A
157
Q

basics of francisella?

A
158
Q

basics of bartonella henselae?

A
159
Q

basics of coxiella burnetii?

A
160
Q

describe the NTM infections (basics)?

A
161
Q

basics of chlamydia and chlamydophila?

A
162
Q

clinical presentation of leptospirosis?

A
163
Q

treatment of lyme disease?

A
164
Q

how do you prevent/prophylaxis of Lyme disease?

A
165
Q

treatment for cryptococcus?

A
166
Q

what is the spectrum of diseases caused by aspergillosis?

A
167
Q

what is the pathophys of Coccidiomycosis?

A
168
Q

what can extrapulmonary cocci cause?

A
169
Q

basics of rose gardener’s disease?

A
170
Q

how does mucormycosis present? diagnosis?

A
171
Q

what are the 3 types of protozoa?

A
172
Q

what are the 2 main types of parasites?

A

protozoa and helminthic organisms

173
Q

name the intestinal, tissue, blood and GU protozoa?

A
174
Q

who is at risk for giardia infections?

A
175
Q

how does giardia present and how is diagnosis made?

A
176
Q

how is entamoeba transmitted? risk groups?

A
177
Q

what are the 4 major clinical syndromes assoicated with entamoeba?

A
178
Q

how do you diagnose and treat entamoeba ?

A
179
Q

basics of cryptosporidum?

A
180
Q

basics of cytoisospora belli and cyclospora ayetanensis?

A
181
Q

basics of microsporidia?

A
182
Q

what is the pathophys of toxoplasma gondii?

A
183
Q

what are the 4 clinical presentations of toxoplasmosis?

A
184
Q

basics of naegleria fowleri?

A
185
Q

what are the 2 distinct diseases of trypanasoma?

A
186
Q

what are the 3 main phenotypes of leishmania?

A
187
Q

what are the 5 clinical relevant species of malaria?

A
188
Q

treatment and prophylaxis of malaria?

  1. Non-falciparum malaria
  2. Chloroquine sensitive
  3. Chloroquine resistant - not severe
  4. Chloroquine resistant - severe
A
189
Q

what form of malaria is the most severe? what do you see on smears?

A
190
Q

what are the chloroquine-sensitive areas for Plasmodium falciparum malaria?

A
191
Q

how do you distinguish babesia from plasmodium on smears?

A
192
Q

name the helminthic organisms?

A
193
Q

name the route, life cycle, S/S, dx and tx of:

  1. Ascaris
  2. Trichuris
  3. Ancylostoma necator
  4. Strongyloides
A
194
Q

name the route, life cycle, S/S, dx and tx of:

  1. Enterobius
  2. Trichinella
  3. Wucheria
A
195
Q

name the route, life cycle, S/S, dx and tx of:

  1. Toxacara
  2. Angiostrongylus
A
196
Q

name the route, life cycle, S/S, dx and tx of the Flukes

A
197
Q

what does HSV-1 typically cause?

A
198
Q

how do you dx HSV-1?

A
199
Q

what does HSV2 cause?

A
200
Q

how do you treat HSV?

A
201
Q

tx of VZV?

A
202
Q

how does VZV present?

A
203
Q

how long does the rash last in herpes zoster?

A
204
Q

how does herpes zoster present?

A
205
Q

what is the tx of herpes zoster?

A
206
Q

what are the IC precautions associated with herpes zoster?

A
207
Q

what are the 3 main presentations of CMV ?

A
208
Q

what can CMV cause in AIDS?

A
209
Q

how do you diagnose acute CMV? tx?

A
210
Q

how does EBV present?

A
211
Q

what do you see on smear for EBV?

A
212
Q

how do you confirm the diagnosis of EBV?

A
213
Q

how do you treat EBV?

A
214
Q

what is an early manifestation of EBV in hIV?

A
215
Q

what is the presentation of rubella?

A
216
Q

what is the presenation of rubeola?

A
217
Q

what do you do for patients suspected for rubeola?

A
218
Q

what are the retroviruses?

A
219
Q

basics of RSV?

A
220
Q

what are the 3 types of inlfuenza virus?

A
221
Q

who do you treat for influenza?

A
222
Q

how do you distinguish adenovirus vs streptococcal pharyngitis? basics?

A
223
Q

basics of polovirus and mimics?

A
224
Q

when does mumps occur and presentation?

A
225
Q

what is the presentation of parvovirus b19?

A
226
Q

which 3 groups of adults have serious complications from parvovirus b19?

A

?

227
Q

how do you diagnose parvovirus b19?

A
228
Q

basics about arbovirus?

A
229
Q

basics of dengue?

A
230
Q

basics of chikungunya virus?

A
231
Q

basics of zika virus?

A
232
Q

basics of hantavirus?

A
233
Q

basics of ebola virus?

A
234
Q

what 2 viruses have long incubation times?

A
235
Q

which drugs exhibit concentration dependent killing?

A
236
Q

name drugs that exhibit time dependent killing?

A
237
Q

what are 1st gen cephalosproins commonly given for?

A
238
Q

what are some 2nd gen cephalosporins and what are they commonly used for?

A
239
Q

3rd generation cephalosporin coverage and basics?

A
240
Q

which organisms are resistant to imipenem?

A
241
Q

what are aminoglycosides effective against?

A
242
Q

what are important caveats with FQ?

A
243
Q

when do you use amphotericin vs ambisome?

A
244
Q

basics of flucytosine?

A

int med exam 0828 (24 decks)

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