GIM Flashcards

1
Q

what are the side effects of thiazolidinedines or glitazones?

A

edema, weight gain, worsening heart failure

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2
Q

what are the side effect of dihydropyridines?

A

peripheral edema

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3
Q

what are the side effects of nonhydroyridines?

A

constipation

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4
Q

what are the side effects of SSRIs?

A

hyponatremia (caused by SIADH); sexual dysfunction, platelet dysfunction

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5
Q

what are the side effects of topiramate?

A
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6
Q

what are the side effects of hydrochlorothiazide?

A
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7
Q

what are the side effects of bisphosphonates?

A
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8
Q

what are the side effects of oral contraceptives?

A
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9
Q

what are the side effects of PPIs?

A
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10
Q

what are the side effects of allopurinol?

A
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11
Q

what are the drugs that cause hyperkalemia?

A
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12
Q

what are the medications that can increase INR with warfarin?

A
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13
Q

write down the formulas and table for stats

A
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14
Q

mnemonic for sensitivity and specific tests?

A
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15
Q

what happens if you increase the threshold for a positive test

A
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16
Q

what is the formula for likelihood ratios?

A
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17
Q

define pretest and post-test probability?relationship to prevalence?

A
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18
Q

what are the two types of observational studies?

A
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19
Q

what is the strength of a RCT?

A
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20
Q

what are the strengths of observational studies compared to RCTs?

A
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21
Q

define a type 1 and type 2 error/

A
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22
Q

define effectiveness of treatment?

A
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23
Q

define the 4 principles of all ethical physician-patient interaction?

A
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24
Q

what are the principles of patient’s right to accept or refuse health care?

A
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25
Q

what are patient’s entitled to disclosure from a physician?

A
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26
Q

name a scenario in which a physician can ethically have sexual relationship with a current or former patient?

A
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27
Q

what is an advanced directive?

A
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28
Q

what are the mechanisms of pain in patient’s with advanced illness?

A
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29
Q

how do you treat adult cancer pain according to the 2020 NCCN guidelines

A
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30
Q

how do you adjust a patient on chronic opioids for cancer?

A

calculate morphine equivalents, reduce dose by 1/3 to account for incomplete cross tolerance, and then up titrate based upon response.

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31
Q

how do you titrate opioids?

A
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32
Q

what opioids do you avoid in renal failure?

A
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33
Q

what adjuvant medications are useful to reduce the overall opioid requirement in adult cancer pain?

A
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34
Q

what anti-emetics can be used for nausea?

A
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35
Q

how would you treat constipation?

A
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36
Q

what is the double effect?

A
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37
Q

what are the steps to withdrawing a ventilator?

A
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38
Q

what are common symptoms after stopping dialysis?

A
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39
Q

what is the difference between a process measure, outcome measurement, and balance measurement?

A
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40
Q

define sentinel event?

A
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41
Q

what is a just culture?

A
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42
Q

what is HCAHPS?

A
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43
Q

what is the goal of an ACO?

A
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44
Q

what is the AHA/ACC low, intermediate, and major risk non-cardiac surgeries?

A
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45
Q

what are teh 5 steps for evaluation of perioperative cardiac risk?

A
  1. Does the patient need emergency non-cardiac surgery?
  2. Does the patient have an active cardiac condition?
  3. Is the patient undergoing low-risk surgery
  4. Does the patient have good functional capacity without symptoms?
  5. Does patient have clinicla risk factors (ischemic heart disease, HF, CV disease, diabetes requiring insulin, CKD (cr>2)
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46
Q

what is the revised cardiac risk index?

A
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47
Q

which patients automatically gets cardiac evaluation?

A
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48
Q

who gets preoperative beta - blockers?

A
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49
Q

which labs do you need for patients undergoing vascular surgery?

A
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50
Q

which procedures require antibiotic prophylaxis for endocarditis?

A
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51
Q

what is the peri-operative management of an asthma patient?

A
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52
Q

what is the perioperative hematology management for nonvalvular A-fib?

A
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53
Q

what are the perioperative hematology recommendations for DVT/PE and NSAIDs?

A
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54
Q

what is the postoperative VTE prophylaxis recommendations?

A
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55
Q

when do you transfuse blood in the postoperative period?

A
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56
Q

what are the goals of diabetes management in the perioperative period?

A
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57
Q

what is the perioeprative diabetes management in the preoperative period?

A
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58
Q

what is the postoperative management for diabetes?

A
59
Q

what is thyroid management for the perioperative period? emergently?

A
60
Q

how would you treat malignant hyperthermia?

A
61
Q

what are the neuropsych medications that need to be continued/stopped pre-operatively?

A
62
Q

what is the framework for assessing smoking?

A
63
Q

what is the relationship between ulcerative colitis and smoking?

A
64
Q

what is the treatment of smoking cessation?

A
65
Q

blood pressure and cholesterol screening?

A
66
Q

Diabetes screening requirements per ADA?

A
67
Q

AAA screening?

A
68
Q

Cervical neoplasia and cancer screening?

A
69
Q

lung cancer screening?

A
70
Q

what diseases require airborne precautions?

A
71
Q

what are the typical empiric management of an overdose in an obtunded patient?

A
72
Q

what are the “excited” or “depressed” presentations and category of toxic ingestion?

A
73
Q

Activated charcoal is contraindicated/ineffective in what conditions?

A
74
Q

in overdoses, when do you alkalizine urine vs acidify urine?

A
75
Q

when is dialysis not effective in overdoses?

A
76
Q

when is charcoal hemoperfusion good for overdoses?

A
77
Q

when can you stop CPR in a patient with pulseless hypothermia?

A
78
Q

when should you think opiate overdose?

A
79
Q

what is the classic presentation with salicylate overdose?

A
80
Q

what is the treatment of salicylate overdose?

A
81
Q

presentation of acetaminophen poisoning?

A
82
Q

treatment of acetaminophen overdose?

A
83
Q

presentation and tx of anticholinergic overdose?

A
84
Q

presentation of digoxin toxicity?

A
85
Q

management of digoxin toxicity?

A
86
Q

when do you suspect theophylline toxicity?

A
87
Q

what is the management of theophylline toxicity?

A
88
Q

symptoms/signs and lab results from marijuana, tobacco, and toluene abuse?

A
89
Q

symptoms/signs and lab results from cocaine and meth?

A
90
Q

symptoms and signs/tx of pcp, heroin, and lsd?

A
91
Q

treatment, sympoms signs of MDMA?

A
92
Q

clues to cyanide poisoning? tx?

A
93
Q

symptoms and tx of organoophosphate and carbamate insective poisoning?

A
94
Q

signs, symptoms, tx of opiate withdrawal?

A
95
Q

signs and symptoms of benzo withdrawal?

A
96
Q

signs/tx of ethanol withdrawal?

A
97
Q

what are the major risk factors for osteoperosis?

A
98
Q

what are the screening guidelines for osteperosis?

A
99
Q

who should be screened regardless of age and gender for osteoperosis?

A
100
Q

what are the common recommendations for all patients with osteoporosis?

A
101
Q

what does the 2014 national osteoperosis foundation guidelines recommend drug therapy?

A
102
Q

what drug therapies can you use for osteoperosis?

A
103
Q

what are the side effects of bisphosphonates?

A
104
Q

key notes about alendronate?

A
105
Q

Basics about denosumab, calcitonin, and roaloxifene?

A
106
Q

what is the most serious consequence of osteoperosis?

A
107
Q

organisms involved in the deep infections of head/neck?

A
108
Q

describe treatment for suppurative parotitis?

A
109
Q

describe the peritonsillar abscess symptoms and treatment?

A
110
Q

describe ludwig angina and tx?

A
111
Q

what is the most common salivary gland tumor?

A
112
Q

describe parotitis? tx?

A
113
Q

describe symptoms of salivary gland stones?

A
114
Q

what are the two etiologies of conductive hearing loss? pathophys?

A
115
Q

pathophysiology of sensorineural hearing loss?

A
116
Q

causes of sensorineural hearing loss?

A
117
Q

what should you for patient with acute sensorineural hearing loss?

A
118
Q

describe the rhine and weber tests?

A
119
Q

how would you distinguish conductive and sensorineural hearing loss with Rhine and weber tests?

A
120
Q

what are the causes of painless monocular sudden vision loss?

A
121
Q

what are the causes of painful monocular sudden vision loss?

A
122
Q

what are the causes of sudden binocular vision loss?

A
123
Q

what is primary open angle glaucoma?

A
124
Q

when should you screen for glaucoma?

A
125
Q

how do you treat primary open angle glaucoma?

A
126
Q

describe primary angle closure glaucoma?

A
127
Q

what is the ideal treatment for angle closure glaucoma?

A
128
Q

presentation of retinal detachment?

A
129
Q

treatment of retinal detachment?

A
130
Q

what is central retinal artery occlusion? tx?

A
131
Q

what is retinal vein occlusion, tx?

A
132
Q

Describe the two types of macular degeneration and tx?

A
133
Q

describe optic neuritis and ischemic optic neuropathy?

A
134
Q

describe vitreous degeneration and vitreous hemorrhage?

A
135
Q

when would you expect cranial nerve dysfunction in the eyes?

A
136
Q

when would you suspect anterior uveitis?

A
137
Q

describe infectious keratitis?

A
138
Q

most common presentation of endophthalmitis?

A
139
Q

describe periorbital and orbital cellultis?

A
140
Q

what is chalazion and a stye?

A
141
Q

clues for autosomal dominant disease?

A
142
Q

clue for x-linked inherited diseases?

A
143
Q

what is the Philadelphia chromosome? chromosome abnormality associated with Burkitt lymphoma?

A