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MS1 Fall > ICM 1 - Exam 1 > Flashcards

ICM 1 - Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Descriptive ethics

A

describes what people believe is right and wrong

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2
Q

Normative ethics

A

attempts to ascertain what are right and wrong courses of action

Clinical bioethics is primarily concerned with normative ethics

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3
Q

Opinion

A

Supported not by empirical evidence but intellectual logic and emotional enagement

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4
Q

Position

A

Dictated by evidence; something you can defend with reason

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5
Q

Rational

A

Take the reasons for or against something, look at them, and then move toward a conclusion

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6
Q

Rationalizing

A

Psychological tool by getting to our conclusion and then finding reasons to support it

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7
Q

Consequential/Utilitarian Ethical Theories

A

Emphasize weighing of all possible consequences to produce best outcome

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8
Q

Deontological/Kantian Ethical Theories

A

Emphasize ethical rules developed independent of consequences

rule-oriented approach; everyone needs to follow that rule

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9
Q

Major ethical principles in medicine

A
  1. Respect for autonomy (respect of persons to make their own choices)
  2. Beneficence (promoting positive benefits, minimizing harm)
  3. Justice (treating similar cases in a similar manner)
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10
Q

CAGE Questions

A
  1. Cut down on your drinking
  2. Annoyed by people criticizing your drinking?
  3. Felt guilty about drinking?
  4. Drink in the morning (eye opener)?
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11
Q

Morphology

A

the form and structure of something

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12
Q

These skin lesions are flat

A

macules and patches

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13
Q

These skin lesions are elevated

A

Papules and plaques

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14
Q

These skin lesions include loss

A

Erosion (partial loss of epidermis) and ulcers (full loss of epidermis)

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15
Q

These skin lesions are fluid-filled

A

Vesicles and bullas

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16
Q

A pustule is like a vesicle but

A

cloudier (due to neutrophils)

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17
Q

Macule

A

flat, not palpable
variable color, up to .5cm
no surface texture change

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18
Q

Patch

A

flat area larger than .5cm
variable color and size
may have scale, wrinkling or textural accentuation

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19
Q

Papule

A

Raised “bump”
Equal or less than .5cm in diameter
Variable color or “flesh toned”
May have surface change, scale, crust

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20
Q

Plaque

A

Raised “plateau-like”
Larger than .5cm
Variable color and textural change, scale

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21
Q

Vesicle

A

fluid-filled blister
usually less than .5cm

if filled with pus - “pustule”

if filled with blood - “hemorrhagic vesicle”

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22
Q

Bulla

A

fluid-filled blister usually larger than .5cm

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23
Q

Pustule

A

A pus filled papule most of the time (cloudy from neutrophils)

Something larger might be termed an abscess

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24
Q

Nodule

A

raised “marble like” lump

usually larger than .5cm in diameter

variable color and occasional textural changes

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25
Q

Cyst

A

A nodule filled with liquid or semisolid matter

variable in size

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26
Q

Fissure

A

thin tear in skin

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27
Q

Wheal

A

papule or plaque of irregular dermal swelling (hives)

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28
Q

Comedo

A

keratin-plugged follicular opening

open dark (blackhead)

closed light (whitehead)

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29
Q

Secondary modifiers in dermatology

A

crust, scale, indurated (thickened), and Lichenified (thickened from rubbing)

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30
Q

NIAA Single Question Screener

A

“How many times in the past 12 months have you had 5 (4) drinks in one day?”

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31
Q

Principles of cross cultural communication

A

Curiosity
Respect
Empathy

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32
Q

What gives collagen its triple helical structure?

A

Hydroxylation of proline, lysine cross-linking

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33
Q

Mechanisms of healing

A
  1. Contraction
  2. Epithelialization
  3. Connective tissue deposition
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34
Q

Normal wound healing

A
  • Hemostasis (platelets come)
  • Inflammation (macrophages and neutrophils come)
  • Proliferation (collagen, epithelial cells, etc)
  • Remodeling (scar maturation and collagen cross-linking)
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35
Q

Where does wound strength peak at in humans?

A

60-80%

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36
Q

What stimulates angiogenesis?

A

hypoxia (lack of oxygen to the tissues), lactic acid, nitric acid, cytokines & growth factors

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37
Q

Contraction

A

process by which the area of an open wound decreases by a concentric reduction in the size of the wound

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38
Q

Contracture

A

pathologic condition resulting from excessive wound and scar contracture across amobile surface

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39
Q

What is the mechanism of wound contraction?

A

Myofibroblasts (specialized fibroblasts with actin) exert a contractile force upon the matrix which leads to a reduction in wound size

Matrix is reorganized by fibroblasts, leads to reduction in wound size

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40
Q

Skin graft

A

Tissue transferred without blood supply

Survival dependent on recipient site

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41
Q

Skin flap

A

tissue transferred with intact blood supply

Survival NOT dependent on the recipient site

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42
Q

hyperechoic

A

In relation to the structures around it, a spot on the ultrasound is bright

(high amplitude like bones and calcifications)

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43
Q

hypoechoic

A

In relation to the structures around it, a spot on an ultrasound is dark

(lower amplitude like soft tissue)

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44
Q

Anechoic

A

Has no echoes on an ultrasound. An example is a fluid-filled cyst

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45
Q

Four major types of diagnostic imaging

A
  1. X-Ray & CT
  2. MRI (magnetic resonance imaging)
  3. Ultrasound
  4. Nuclear Scintigraphy (nuclear medicine)
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46
Q

Role of interventional radiology

A

Radiologists do invasive procedures guided by images for either diagnosis or treatment

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47
Q

Ultrasound

A

Transducer produces high frequency sound (and then detects the sound) to make images

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48
Q

MRI

A

radio waves are pulsed into the patient & the machine listens for return radio waves caused by interaction with protons (water) in the patient’s body. The frequency and phase of the returned signals is processed to create an image

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49
Q

How to tell the difference between MRI and CT images?

A

Cortical bone is white on CT images

Cortical bone is black on MRI images

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50
Q

Nuclear scintigraphy

A

Uses radioactive tracers that emit radiation. Images are made by detecting the radiation coming out of the patient

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51
Q

ACR appropriateness criteria

A

Evidence-based guidelines that assist providers in making the most appropriate imaging/treatment decisions for a specific medical condition

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52
Q

Examples of primary lesion descriptors in derm

A

Macule, papule, nodule, bulla, fissure, erosion, wheal, comedo, etc

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53
Q

Examples of secondary changes/modifiers in derm

A

crust, scale, lichenified (thickened due to rubbing), indurated

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54
Q

Derm lesion configurations

A

linear, grouped, annular, gyrate/polyannular/polycyclic, dermatomal

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55
Q

Derm lesion distributions

A

regional (scalp, palms, oral, etc), area of exposure (mechanical trauma, chemical, etc), anatomic (generalized, central, acral)

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56
Q

X-ray uses?

A

screening for metal and foregin bodies; limited use in trauma

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57
Q

CT uses?

A

Detailed anatomy

trauma, acute hemorrhage, post surgery

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58
Q

Why is a CT contrast used?

A

So soft tissue detail becomes more apparent (lymph nodes, soft tissue mass, vasculature)

Not typically used in trauma

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59
Q

Ultrasound uses?

A

Thyroid, carotid artery, ultrasound guided biopsies

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60
Q

Is the thyroid hyper-, hypo-, or an- echoic relative to surrounding tissues?

A

Always hyperechoic

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61
Q

MRI uses?

A

Soft tissue detail, great for head and neck cancer

BUT longer scan time & requirement to lie still

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62
Q

What imaging modality is best for trauma and bone detail?

A

noncontrast CT

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63
Q

What are the two types of hearing loss?

A
  1. conductive - sound wave transmission is impeded through the external and/or middle ear
  2. sensorineural - sound wave transmission is impeded through the inner ear apparatus (cochlea and CN 8 [vestibulococchlear]}
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64
Q

In the Weber Test, if unilateral conductive hearing loss is found, where is sound lateralized to?

A

The impaired ear

If the patient hears sound in their good ear, its sensorineural hearing loss

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65
Q

What is the Rinne test?

A

A hearing test where air and bone conduction is compared

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66
Q

Is sound usually heard longer through air or bone?

A

Normally in air

If it’s heard longer through bone then conductive hearing loss should be considered

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67
Q

What is the purpose of completing a review of systems (ROS)?

A
  1. to uncover potentially significant symptoms related to the HPI not otherwise elicited during the HPI
  2. to learn about other active problems that may not be related to the chief complaint
  3. to make sure documentation is compliant with medicare billing
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68
Q

When do you perform a full review of systems?

A

With any new patient (in clinic or in the hospital) and those with vague complaints

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69
Q

When do you perform a focused ROS?

A

During most follow-up appointments for established diseases

Ex: Diabetics are at a higher risk for heart disease so you may perform a cardiac ROS

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70
Q

When do you skip ROS?

A

In most urgent visits for isolated, acute problems

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71
Q

Why is taking a sexual history challenging?

A

Cultural factors, communication factors, patient demographics

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72
Q

What is the SAFE screening question?

A

“Have you ever been in a relationship where you felt emotional or physical abuse from a loved one?”

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73
Q

S in SAFE?

A

Stress/Safety

Do you feel safe? What stresses do you have? Should I be concerned about your safety?

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74
Q

A in SAFE?

A

Afraid/Abused

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75
Q

F in SAFE?

A

Friends/Family

Do your friends and family know? Can you tell them?

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76
Q

E in SAFE?

A

Emergency plan

Do you have a safe space to go?

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77
Q

What are the elements of informed consent?

A

Appropriate disclosure of information, patient understanding of information, voluntary decision/no coercion

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78
Q

Is signature on an informed consent form conclusive proof that a valid informed consent has occurred?

A

No, its just evidence of consent. These forms are good for documentation but should not be confused with the fact of consent

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79
Q

What is the Professional Practice Standard?

A

minimal ethical standard where a physician considers what his or her colleagues in the field would disclose/are doing and then do that.

Focuses on what a physician thinks a patient should know rather than what patients want to know.

Legally sufficient in roughly half of US states

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80
Q

What is the Reasonable Person Standard?

A

minimal ethical standard where a physician discloses what the average or typical patient would find important; “objective” standard

Reasonable person is the minimum legally sufficient standard in the other half of US states

81
Q

What is the subjective standard?

A

Ethical standard where a physician asks the patient what they want to know (but are they MDs?)

Subjective is assuming what that individual patient wants to know; objective is same standard to all patients

82
Q

What are the exceptions to the Rule of Informed Consent?

A
  1. Emergency situations (no time to ask or find proxies)
  2. Therapeutic Privilege
  3. Patient Incapacity
  4. Waiver of informed consent
83
Q

What standards of disclosure are cited but not ethically or legally valid?

A

Subjective (asking the patient what they want to know) and full disclosure (telling everything, like a prescription insert)

84
Q

What is PMI and where is it located?

A

Point of Maximal Impulse

Located at the 5th intercostal space on the left side at the midclavicular line

85
Q

Describe S1 and where we hear it loudest

A

The first heart sound. Heard when the mitral valve and tricuspid valve close.

It is heard loudest at the apex of the heart

86
Q

Describe S2 and where we hear it loudest

A

The second heart sound. Heard when the aortic and pulmonic valves close.

It is heard loudest at the 2nd intercostal space.

87
Q

Physiologic S2 Splitting

A

Best heard at the 2nd left intercostal space, close to the sternal border

Lower pressure in the pulmonary vasculature allows a slightly prolonged ejection time for blood and thus the pulmonic valve closes later relative to the aortic valve

Heard during inspiration

88
Q

Delayed carotid upstroke indicates what?

A

Aortic stenosis

89
Q

Bounding carotid upstroke indicates what?

A

Aortic insufficiency

90
Q

Bruits in the carotid pulse indicates what?

A

Suggests the presence of plaque

Low-pitched wooshing sounds that require the patient to hold their breath to hear well

91
Q

Gallops

A

extra sounds occurring just before S1 (the S4 gallop) or just after S2 (the S3 gallop)

92
Q

Stenotic valve

A

Abnormally narrowed valvular orifice; obstructs forward flow

93
Q

Leaky valve

A

Allows blood to leak backward; also called regurgitation or insufficiency

94
Q

Best way to assess for mitral valve murmurs?

A

Have the patient lay on their side in the left, lateral decubitus position. This brings the left ventricle closer to the chest wall. Listen at the apex with the bell of the stethoscope

95
Q

Best way to assess for aortic regurgitation?

A

Have the patient sit up, lean forward, exhale completely & then stop breathing. Listen at Erb’s point (left 3rd intercostal space) and the tricuspid area (lower left sternal border at 4th intercostal space) with the diaphragm

96
Q

When does the trachea bifurcate?

A

At the sternal angle

97
Q

Normal respiratory rate?

A

12-20 times per minute

98
Q

Where do you place your thumbs to test chest expansion?

A

the level of the 10th ribs

99
Q

Fremitus

A

the palpable vibration transmitted through the broncho-pulmonary tree to the wall when the patient speaks

Can be felt using the ulnar surface of the hand while having the patient say “99”

If fluid is present then the vibration will decrease

100
Q

Normal tracheal sounds

A

Heard only over trachea, very hard & high-pitched

101
Q

Normal bronchial sounds

A

Heard over large airways, not as hard as tracheal sounds. Higher pitched than vesicular sounds

102
Q

Normal vesicular sounds

A

Heard throughout the lung fields; soft, low-pitched, rustling sounds

103
Q

Fine Crackles

A

Discontinuous, soft, high-pitched, unaffected by cough and usually heard mid-to-late inspiration

Like rolling a strand of hair between fingers

Usually suggests an interstitial process like pulmonary fibrosis

104
Q

Coarse Crackles

A

Discontinuous, louder, lower in pitch, may change with coughing, and occurs early in inspiration & lasts until the end

“popping” or “wet” quality

Usually suggests an airway disease like bronchitis or alveolar process like pneumonia

105
Q

Wheezing

A

Caused by a narrowing or obstruction of some part of the respiratory tree

Continuous, coarse, whistling sound

Expiratory: bronchiolar disease

Inspiratory: stiff stenosis (tumor, scarring, foreign bodies)

106
Q

Rhonchi

A

Continuous, low pitched sounds (like snoring). Similar to a wheeze but lower in pitch

Present when an airway is partially obstructed due to secretions, swelling or tumor (like in COPD or acute severe bronchitis)

Heard on inhalation and exhalation

107
Q

Stridor

A

Special type of wheezing. Harsh, high-pitched, vibrating sound heard most often in the inspiratory phase

Caused by foreign bodies, infections (like croup) or laryngeal spasms; indicates lower respiratory tract obstruction

108
Q

Egophony

A

When you tell a patient to say “EEEEE” and you hear “AAAA” while auscultating

Happens in a pathologic state like pneumonia

109
Q

Why is percussion useful in a lung exam?

A

To detect increased or decreased air or tissue

110
Q

Where does the visceral pleura extend?

A

Anteriorly to the 6th rib, laterally to the 8th rib, and posteriorly to the 10th rib

111
Q

Where does the parietal pleura extend?

A

Two ribs past the lungs. So 8th rib, 10th rib, 12th rib.

112
Q

Where does the trachea begin?

A

C-6 (below the cricoid cartilage)

113
Q

Where is the carina located?

A

At the bifurcation of the trachea (which is at the sternal angle!)

114
Q

Where are the oblique fissures located?

A

T2 spine to 6th costal cartilage

115
Q

Where is the horizontal fissure located?

A

Along the 4th rib cartilage

116
Q

PA Chest Xray?

A

Posterior-anterior

Most common, patient is “hugging” the xray plate. Things farther from the xray plate (spine, posterior ribs) are magnified

117
Q

AP chest xray?

A

Anterior-posterior

Less common. Xray plate is behind the patient. Heart is further from the plate so it will be magnified

118
Q

Is inspiration or expiration preferred on a chest xray?

A

Inspiration (really lengthen those lungs)

119
Q

Pleural effusion

A

Pleural cavity (between parietal and visceral pleura) fills with fluid

(subdivided based on simple fluid, blood, pus, etc)

120
Q

Pneumothorax

A

Air in the pleural cavity

121
Q

What kind of film do you use when you’re looking for a rib fracture?

A

Oblique film

122
Q

Common indications for a chest xray?

A

Shortness of breath, clinical concern for pneumonia, heart failure

Smoking history

Line or tube placement

Pre-op or post-op evaluation

After procedure: pacer placement, port placement, post bronchoscopy

123
Q

Where does the trachea bifurcate?

A

At the level of the sternal angle anteriorly, T4 spinous process posteriorly

124
Q

How many spots anteriorly, posteriorly, and bilaterally should you auscultate during a lung exam?

A

2 anteriorly (1 above and 1 below nipple line), 3 posteriorly, and 1 bilaterally on each side

125
Q

Where would you hear dull, flat, resonant, and tympanic notes when percussing?

A

Dull = dense tissue areas like the liver

Flat = even lower than dull, densest areas like muscle

Tympanic = high pitched in areas of gaseous distension (gas bubble in stomach)

Resonant = loud and long like over lungs

126
Q

Vital signs include…?

A

height & weight, blood pressure, heart rate & rhythm, respiratory rate & rhythm, and temperature

127
Q

Steps to take orthostatic blood pressure?

A

Ensure patient has been supine for 10 minutes, then have the patient stand up and take bp after waiting 1 minute

Orthostatic hypotension is when the systolic pressure drops by more than 20 mmHg or diastolic drops by more than 10 mmHg

128
Q

Normal BMI?

A

18.5 - 24.9

129
Q

Underweight BMI?

A

Under 18.5

130
Q

Overweight BMI?

A

25.0 - 29.9

131
Q

Obesity 1 BMI?

A

30.0 - 34.9

132
Q

Obesity 2 BMI?

A

35.0 - 39.9

133
Q

Extreme obesity (class 3) BMI?

A

Over 40

134
Q

Blood pressure in the circulation is a result of?

A

Pumping action of the heart

Viscosity of blood, diameter of blood vessel, and the rigidity of the blood vessel

135
Q

How is the pulse obliteration pressure found?

A

Place the BP cuff around the patient’s arm, elevate the arm to heart level, palpate the radial pulse while inflating the cuff. The point where the radial pulse disappears is the obliteration point. You can add 20mmHg to this number to take the bp

136
Q

How long do you wait before repeating a bp measurement on the same arm?

A

2 mins

137
Q

What is the auscultatory gap?

A

A silent interval that may be present between the systolic and diastolic blood pressures

138
Q

What things can make BP appear falsely high?

A

Caffeine within the last 30 mins, white coat syndrome, cuff that is too small, arm below the heart, feet not flat on the ground

139
Q

What is considered high BP for patients over 60?

A

BP greater than 150/90

140
Q

What is considered high BP for patients younger than 60?

A

BP greater than 140/90

141
Q

What is considered high BP in patients 18+ who have CKD or diabetes?

A

BP greater than 140/90

142
Q

Where is the temperature the highest? The lowest?

A

Core temp > Tympanic > Rectal > Oral > Axillary

143
Q

Avg. oral temperature?

A

98.2 F or 36.8 C

144
Q

How many organ systems compose the human body?

A

11

145
Q

What 3 things are the main purposes of the medical interview?

A
  1. data collection
  2. Information dissemination
  3. Forming a therapeutic bond
146
Q

NURS!

A

Name or label the patient’s expressed emotions

Make an Understanding statement

Respect the patient by praising or acknowledging their plight

Offer Support

147
Q

LOCATES!

A 
Location
Other symptoms
Character of the symptom
Aggravating or alleviating factors
Timing (onset, duration, etc)
Environment
Severity
148
Q

What is a SOAP note?

A

Subjective, Objective, Assessment, and Plan

149
Q

When is a SOAP note used?

A

It is common for follow-up patient encounters

150
Q

When do you take a complete H&P?

A

With a new patient, you’re new, or you’re told “take a complete H&P”

151
Q

Framing

A

Frame question to pre-suppose a particular answer. Ex: “Well if we pulled the plug then it would be murder.” We’ve framed the conversation that the patient’s family shouldn’t pull life support

152
Q

Relativism

A

Asserts that there is no independent right and wrong; “absurd in medicine”

don’t presume there is no diagnosis/impossible to cure just because you can’t figure out what’s going on.

153
Q

What are the major ethical principles that operate in medicine?

A
  1. Respect for autonomy (respect of persons right to self determination)
  2. Beneficence (promoting positive benefits, minimizing harms)
  3. Justice (treating similar cases in a similar manner)
154
Q

What is the general method for analysis of ethical problems in medicine?

A
  1. Identify the ethical problem with no framing or presumption
  2. Critical analysis (should identify the strength and weakness of each reason & identify sources of ambiguity)
  3. Resolve the ethical problem by choosing the side with the strongest supporting arguments (should be a clear & concise statement)
  4. Implementation is the resolution in the clinical setting
155
Q

Examples of exuberant scarring

A

Keloid, hypertrophic scar, abdominal adhesions, hollow visceral strictures, neuroma

156
Q

Examples of deficient scarring

A

Chronic cutaneous ulcerations, anastomotic failure, peptic ulcer disease, tendon rupture

157
Q

Causes of chronic inflammation?

A

Increased levels of TNF-alpha, proteases, protein degradation

158
Q

What is Wound VAC?

A

Negative pressure wound therapy (NPWT) used in large or deep open wounds. Minimizes tissue trauma; permissive for contraction

159
Q

Biologic therapies for wounds?

A

Growth factors (PDGF), skin substitutes, gene therapy, protein fragments

160
Q

Skin graft healing

A
  • Plasma imbibition (nutrient & O2 from recipient bed, necessary)
  • Inosculation (vessels from recipient connect with severed in graft)
  • Vascular ingrowth (neovascularization arising from recipient bed)
161
Q

What affects the attenuation of x-rays?

A

Tissue thickness & tissue composition

White = less gets through
Black = more gets through
162
Q

Two commonly used contrast agents in xrays?

A

barium and iodine

163
Q

Fluoroscopy

A

moving, real time, xray pictures which can be used as a video clip or as still images

164
Q

Contrast used in CT?

A

Iodine

165
Q

Contrast used in MRI?

A

Gadolinium

166
Q

Clinical ultrasound range?

A

2 - 20 MHz (megahertz)

167
Q

B mode on ultrasound

A

“brightness” mode; the standard 2D mode

168
Q

M mode on ultrasound

A

In M-mode (motion mode) ultrasound, pulses are emitted in quick succession – each time, either an A-mode or B-mode image is taken. Over time, this is analogous to recording avideoin ultrasound.

169
Q

D mode on ultrasound

A

“doppler” mode

This mode makes use of the Doppler effect in measuring and visualizing blood flow

Velocity information is presented as a color-coded overlay on top of a B-mode image

170
Q

Ultrasound artifacts

A

Shadowing, refraction (“edge shadows”), acoustic enhancement, gas, mirroring, reverberation

171
Q

What image modality is most useful for soft tissue anatomy and soft tissue detail?

A

CT with contrast

172
Q

What imaging modality is best for characterization of soft tissues in the neck?

A

Ultrasound

173
Q

What image modality has limited use in trauma in the head & neck?

A

X-rays. Really just for checking for metal (or correct line placement!)

174
Q

Acute otitis media

A

Internal ear infection; ear drum will appear bulging and with pus. Surface is so distorted from pus that we won’t see any normal landmarks

175
Q

Acute otitis externa

A

Outer ear infection. Probably won’t even get the otoscope in because touching & retracting the pinna is painful

176
Q

Middle ear inflammation

A

Caused when fluid can’t drain properly into the sinuses; closes up the eustation tube

177
Q

Where does the burden of proof fall if an exception to informed consent is invoked?

A

On the physician

178
Q

Pruritis

A

itching

179
Q

epistaxis

A

nose bleed

180
Q

odynophagia

A

painful swallowing

181
Q

hemoptysis

A

coughing up blood

182
Q

Dyspnea

A

shortness of breath

183
Q

claudication

A

aching in muscles with activity (cramping while walking, stops when sit down)

184
Q

orthopnea

A

difficulty breathing while lying down

185
Q

paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea

A

wake up with sudden difficulty breathing

186
Q

melena

A

dark, tarry stool

187
Q

hematemesis

A

bloody vomit

188
Q

myalgias

A

muscle aches

189
Q

arthalgia

A

joint aches

190
Q

polydypsia

A

always thirsty

191
Q

diaphoresis

A

sweating

192
Q

Patients with turbinate hypertrophy commonly complain of what?

A

Nasal congestion, rhinorrhea, and/or postnasal drip

193
Q

In acute sinusitis, what differentiates bacterial vs. viral?

A

Bacterial is drainage on one side, viral is both

194
Q

What will you see in the back of the mouth if a patient has strep pharyngitis?

A

Little red hemorrhages

195
Q

Sustained impulse at the apical point/PMI is indicative of

A

LV hypertrophy from hypertension or aortic stenosis

196
Q

Double impulse at the apical point/PMI is indicative of

A

LV hypertrophy or decreased compliance

197
Q

Diffuse impulse at the apical point/PMI is indicative of

A

dilated cardiomyopathy

198
Q

What does the S4 heart sound mark?

A

Atrial contraction

Can indicate increased resistance to ventricular filling

199
Q

What does the S3 heart sound mark?

A

Period of rapid ventricular filling

In adults it can indicate volume overload of left ventricle or an enlarged ventricle that is stiff and doesn’t accommodate ventricular filling well

MS1 Fall (23 decks)

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