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x_ RITE Review > HY Questions > Flashcards

HY Questions Flashcards

1
Q

<p>What ion is primarily responsible for resting membrane potential in neurons and glia?</p>

A

<p>1. Potassium.</p>

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2
Q

<p>What is the MOA of Baclofen?</p>

A

<p>1. GABA-B agonist.</p>

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3
Q

<p>What causes the miniature end-plate potential?</p>

A

<p>1. The spontaneous release of one quanta of ACh.</p>

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4
Q

<p>What is the mechanism of action of tricyclic antidepressants?</p>

A

<p>1. They block reuptake of NE and 5-HT.</p>

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5
Q

<p>What is responsible for the BBB?</p>

A

<p>1. Tight junctions between endothelial cells.</p>

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6
Q

<p>Which circumventricular organ has an intact BBB?</p>

A

<p>1. The subcommissural organ.</p>

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7
Q

<p>What ion is responsible for the initial depolarization of cochlear hair cells?</p>

A

<p>1. Potassium.</p>

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8
Q

<p>What obstructs the NMDA channel pore at resting membrane potential?</p>

A

<p>1. Magnesium.</p>

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9
Q

<p>What initiates contraction in smooth muscle?</p>

A

<p>1. Calcium-calmodulin activation of myosin light chain kinase.</p>

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10
Q

<p>What is the rate limiting enzyme in dopamine synthesis?</p>

A

<p>1. Tyrosine hydroxlyase.</p>

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11
Q

<p>What is the function of myelin?</p>

A

<p>1. It increases transmembrane resistance and decreases membrane capacitance.</p>

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12
Q

<p>What drug blocks voltage-gated Na channels?</p>

A

<p>1. Tetrodotoxin.</p>

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13
Q

<p>What nerve fibers mediate the sensation of sharp pain?</p>

A

<p>1. A-delta.</p>

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14
Q

<p>What protein mediates fast anterograde axonal transport?</p>

A

<p>1. Kinesin. </p>

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15
Q

<p>What is the primary target of dentate nucleus efferent fibers?</p>

A

<p>1. VL nucleus of the thalamus.</p>

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16
Q

<p>What are the most excitatory fibers of the CNS?</p>

A

<p>1. Climbing fibers.</p>

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17
Q

<p>How do you differentiate a femoral neuropathy from a lumbar plexopathy?</p>

A

<p>1. Hip adduction will be preserved in the former and absent in the latter.</p>

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18
Q

<p>What is the only output of the cerebellar cortex?</p>

A

<p>1. The Purkinje cell.</p>

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19
Q

<p>What nerve is compressed in the tarsal tunnel?</p>

A

<p>1. Posterior tibial nerve.</p>

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20
Q

<p>What structure contains the highest levels of substance P in the brain?</p>

A

<p>1. The substantia nigra.</p>

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21
Q

<p>What structures are connected by the stria medullary thalami?</p>

A

<p>1. The septal nuclei and the habenular nuclei.</p>

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22
Q

<p>What cranial nerve contains the nodosal ganglion?</p>

A

<p>1. The vagus nerve.</p>

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23
Q

<p>Where do SVA fibers synapse in the brainstem?</p>

A

<p>1. The nucleus of the solitary tract (gustatory nucleus).</p>

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24
Q

<p>Where do the frontopontine fibers travel in the internal capsule?</p>

A

<p>1. The anterior limb.</p>

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25
Q

<p>What nerve is compressed by Struther's ligament?</p>

A

<p>1. The median nerve.</p>

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26
Q

<p>Where is the posterior interosseus nerve often entrapted?</p>

A

<p>1. At the supinator (arcade of Frohse).</p>

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27
Q

<p>Where do GVA fibers traveling in Hering's nerve synapse?</p>

A

<p>1. The inferior aspect of the solitary tract.</p>

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28
Q

<p>When does the posterior neuropore close?</p>

A

<p>1. Post-ovulatory day 26.</p>

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29
Q

<p>Where do first-order sympathetic neurons to the pupillary dilator originate?</p>

A

<p>1. The hypothalamus. </p>

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30
Q

<p>Where is the cortical area for macular vision located?</p>

A

<p>1. Occipital poles.</p>

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31
Q

<p>Where is the first site of binaural convergence in the auditory pathway?</p>

A

<p>1. The superior olives.</p>

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32
Q

<p>Where do preganglionic parasympathetic fibers destined for the lacrimal glands synapse?</p>

A

<p>1. The pterygopalatine ganglion.</p>

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33
Q

<p>What region of primary somesthetic cortex do muscle spindles project?</p>

A

<p>1. 3a.</p>

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34
Q

<p>What artery perfuses the retrolenticular internal capsule?</p>

A

<p>1. The anterior choroidal artery. </p>

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35
Q

<p>What is the 5-year stroke risk of asymptomatic 80% carotid artery stenosis?</p>

A

<p>1. 16.5% (3.3% per year x 5 years).</p>

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36
Q

<p>What gene is responsible for Duchenne muscular dystrophy?</p>

A

<p>1. Dystrophin (Xp21).</p>

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37
Q

<p>What cranial nerve is most commonly involved in neurosarcoidosis?</p>

A

<p>1. CN VII.</p>

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38
Q

<p>What is the most common cause of aseptic (viral) meningitis?</p>

A

<p>1. Enteroviruses.</p>

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39
Q

<p>What lesions result in downbeat nystagmus?</p>

A

<p>1. Lesions of the cervicomedullary junction.</p>

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40
Q

<p>Maternal hyperglycemia is a risk factor for which spinal developmental disorder?</p>

A

<p>1. Caudal regression syndrome.</p>

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41
Q

<p>Trisomy 13 or 18 is associated with what developmental anomaly of the brain?</p>

A

<p>1. Holoprosencephaly.</p>

42
Q

<p>What neurodegenerative disorder is associated with pre- and postcentral gyrus atrophy and focal arm dystonia?</p>

A

<p>1. Corticobasal degeneration.</p>

43
Q

<p>What chromosome is abnormal in Huntington's disease?</p>

A

<p>1. Chromosome 4.</p>

44
Q

<p>What gene is abnormal in spinobulbar muscular atrophy (Kennedy's disease)?</p>

A

<p>1. The androgen receptor gene (X chromosome).</p>

45
Q

<p>What neurocutaneous syndrome is associated with sphenoid dysplasia and optic gliomas?</p>

A

<p>1. NF-1.</p>

46
Q

<p>What is the inheritance pattern of Sturge-Weber syndrome?</p>

A

<p>1. Sporadic.</p>

47
Q

<p>What neurocutaneous syndrome often presents with epistaxis?</p>

A

<p>1. Hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia (Rendu-Osler-Weber disease).</p>

48
Q

<p>What HLA allele is associated with multiple sclerosis?</p>

A

<p>1. DR2.</p>

49
Q

<p>What abnormal compound accumulates in patients with metachromatic leukodystrophy?</p>

A

<p>1. Sulfatide.</p>

50
Q

<p>What GI tract infection is associated with the development of Guillain-Barre syndrome?</p>

A

<p>1. Campylobacter jejuni infections.</p>

51
Q

<p>What stage of sleep is associated with night terrors?</p>

A

<p>1. Stages 3 and 4 (deep sleep).</p>

52
Q

<p>What disorders are associated with incremental responses on repetitive nerve stimulation studies?</p>

A

<p>1. Presynaptic disorders of the neuromuscular junction (Lambert-Eaton syndrome and botulism).</p>

53
Q

<p>What is the most common pathogen associated with cerebral abscesses?</p>

A

<p>1. Streptococcus milleri.</p>

54
Q

<p>What is the treatment of choice for toxoplasmosis in AIDS patients?</p>

A

<p>1. Pyrimethamine and sulfadiazine.</p>

55
Q

<p>What arterial occlusion results in alexia without agraphia?</p>

A

<p>1. Dominant PCA.</p>

56
Q

<p>What arterial occlusion is classically associated with lateral medullary infarction (Wallenberg's syndrome)?</p>

A

<p>1. PICA. </p>

57
Q

<p>What tumor exhibits desmosomes and is vimentin positive?</p>

A

<p>1. Meningioma.</p>

58
Q

<p>What intracranial tumor is associated with polycythemia?</p>

A

<p>1. Hemangioblastoma.</p>

59
Q

<p>What is the inheritance pattern of familial cavernomas?</p>

A

<p>1. Autosomal dominant.</p>

60
Q

<p>What differentiates pituitary hyperplasia from a pituitary adenoma?</p>

A

<p>1. The presence of reticulin with pituitary hyperplasia.</p>

61
Q

<p>What is the composition of the Lewy body?</p>

A

<p>1. Ubiquitin, alpha synuclein, alphaB crystallin, and neurofilaments.</p>

62
Q

<p>What chromosome is abnormal in Huntington's disease?</p>

A

<p>1. Chromosome 4.</p>

63
Q

<p>What enzyme is deficient in Gaucher's disease?</p>

A

<p>1. Glucocerebrosidase.</p>

64
Q

<p>What is the most common isolate from cerebral abscesses?</p>

A

<p>1. Streptococcus milleri.</p>

65
Q

<p>What leukodystrophy involves the subcortical U fibers and results from deficiencies of the enzyme aspartoacylase?</p>

A

<p>1. Canavan's disease.</p>

66
Q

<p>What allele is commonly associated with multiple sclerosis?</p>

A

<p>1. HLA DR2.</p>

67
Q

<p>What type of closed head injury often affects the splenium of the corpus callosum?</p>

A

<p>1. DAI.</p>

68
Q

<p>What cranial nerve is most commonly involved with neurosarcoidosis?</p>

A

<p>1. CN VII.</p>

69
Q

<p>What type of CNS tumor is associated with syncytiotrophoblasts?</p>

A

<p>1. Choriocarcinoma.</p>

70
Q

<p>What type of CNS tumor exhibits "stag horn" vasculature?</p>

A

<p>1. Hemangiopericytoma.</p>

71
Q

<p>What is the most common chromosomal abnormality in meningiomas?</p>

A

<p>1. Monosomy 22.</p>

72
Q

<p>What CNS tumor is often associated with prominent granulomatous inflammation?</p>

A

<p>1. Germinoma.</p>

73
Q

<p>What is the most common chromosomal abnormality in GBM?</p>

A

<p>1. Gains of chromosome 7 or 20.</p>

74
Q

<p>What is the most common molecular abnormality in GBM?</p>

A

<p>1. Allelic loss of 10p and 10q.</p>

75
Q

<p>What disorder exhibits ballooned neurons and atrophy of the pre- and postcentral gyri?</p>

A

<p>1. Corticobasal degeneration.</p>

76
Q

<p>What is the appearance of an acute intracerebral hematoma on T2WI?</p>

A

<p>1. Markedly hypointense to surrounding brain.</p>

77
Q

<p>What is the most common location of a spinal meningioma?</p>

A

<p>1. Thoracic spine.</p>

78
Q

<p>What is the most common location of choroid plexus papillomas in children?</p>

A

<p>1. The lateral ventricles.</p>

79
Q

<p>What tumor has signal characteristics that are similar to CSF on T1 and T2 but also often exhibits increased signal on DWI?</p>

A

<p>1. Epidermoid.</p>

80
Q

<p>What is the most common location for spinal cellular ependymomas?</p>

A

<p>1. Intramedullary in the cervical spinal cord.</p>

81
Q

<p>What is the most common chromosomal abnormality in meningiomas?</p>

A

<p>1. Monosomy 22.</p>

82
Q

<p>What intramedullary spinal cord tumor is associated with NF-2?</p>

A

<p>1. Ependymoma.</p>

83
Q

<p>What is the only non-enhancing intraventricular tumor?</p>

A

<p>1. Subependymoma.</p>

84
Q

<p>What is the mechanism of injury in Hangman's fractures?</p>

A

<p>1. Hyperextension.</p>

85
Q

<p>What blood vessel is most commonly responsible for compression of the trigeminal nerve with trigeminal neuralgia?</p>

A

<p>1. Superior cerebellar artery.</p>

86
Q

<p>What is the primary contraindication to the surgical treatment of Parkinson's disease?</p>

A

<p>1. No significant response to prior medical therapy with L-dopa.</p>

87
Q

<p>What is the surgical treatment of choice in children with frequent atonic seizures that are refractory to medical therapies?</p>

A

<p>1. Corpus callosotomy.</p>

88
Q

<p>What basal cisterns contain portions of the basal vein of Rosenthal?</p>

A

<p>1. The ambient and crural cisterns.</p>

89
Q

<p>What cranial nerve palsy is associated with Gradenigo's syndrome?</p>

A

<p>1. CN VI.</p>

90
Q

<p>What is the most common cause of malignant cerebral edema within 24 hours of the initial closed head injury in the pediatric population?</p>

A

<p>1. Hyperemia.</p>

91
Q

<p>What is unique about distal anterior cerebral artery aneurysms?</p>

A

<p>1. They commonly result from trauma against the falx or are mycotic in nature.</p>

92
Q

<p>What is the annual hemorrhage risk of intracranial AVMs?</p>

A

<p>1. 3-4 %.</p>

93
Q

<p>Where is the mosts common intracranial location for dural AV fistulas?</p>

A

<p>1. Along the transverse sinus.</p>

94
Q

<p>What feature of dural AV fistula necessitates treatment?</p>

A

<p>1. The presence of retrograde cortical venous drainage.</p>

95
Q

<p>What is the inheritance pattern for familial cavernomas?</p>

A

<p>1. Autosomal dominant. </p>

96
Q

<p>What cranial nerves are susceptible to injury during carotid endarterectomy?</p>

A

<p>1. The hypoglossal nerve and the marginal mandibular branch of the facial nerve.</p>

97
Q

<p>What familial syndrome is associated with pituitary adenomas?</p>

A

<p>1. Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1.</p>

98
Q

<p>What is the most common pineal region tumor in children?</p>

A

<p>1. Germinoma. </p>

99
Q

<p>What is the most common pattern of hearing loss in patients with acoustic neuromas?</p>

A

<p>1. High frequency sensorineural hearing loss.</p>

100
Q

<p>What inhalational anesthetic is associated with a decreased seizure threshold?</p>

A

<p>1. Enflurane.</p>

101
Q

<p>What blood product should be used in the treatment of coagulopathy associated with von Willebrand's disease?</p>

A

<p>1. Cryoprecipitate.</p>

x_ RITE Review (34 decks)

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