Human Growth & Development QBV

Question 1

What is the primary concept in the nature vs. nurture debate?

A) Whether human development is solely influenced by environmental factors
B) Whether human development is shaped by both genetics and environmental factors
C) Whether individuals are only influenced by genetic factors
D) Whether human development stops at adolescence

Answer 1

B) Whether human development is shaped by both genetics and environmental factors

Rationale: The nature vs. nurture debate revolves around how both genetic and environmental factors shape human development. Modern scientists agree that these factors are interconnected.

Question 2

What principle explains that infants gain control over their neck and head before their extremities?

A) Proximodorsal principle
B) Simple to complex principle
C) Cephalocaudal principle
D) Continuous process principle

Answer 2

C) Cephalocaudal principle

Rationale: The cephalocaudal principle states that human development proceeds from head to toe, explaining why infants gain control over their head and neck before other parts of their body.

Question 3

During which prenatal period does implantation into the uterine wall occur?

A) Fetal period
B) Embryonic period
C) Zygote period

Answer 3

C) Zygote period

Rationale: The zygote period starts with conception and ends with implantation into the uterine wall, after which the developing organism is referred to as an embryo.

Question 4

At what age do most bodily systems of a fetus begin to function?

A) 9-12 weeks
B) 22-28 weeks
C) 30-35 weeks
D) 38-40 weeks

Answer 4

B) 22-28 weeks

Rationale: Between 22 and 28 weeks, most bodily systems begin to function, and this period is called the age of viability.

Question 5

What nutrient deficiency may cause spina bifida in a developing fetus?

A) Vitamin C
B) Calcium
C) Folic acid
D) Iron

Answer 5

C) Folic acid

Rationale: A deficiency in folic acid during pregnancy increases the risk of spina bifida, where the neural tube does not close properly, potentially causing permanent damage to the spinal cord.

Question 6

Which Apgar score component evaluates a newborn’s muscle tone?

A) Appearance
B) Activity
C) Pulse
D) Grimace

Answer 6

B) Activity

Rationale: The “Activity” component of the Apgar score assesses the newborn’s muscle tone and ranges from absent (0 points) to active movement (2 points).

Question 7

Which reflex involves the infant turning toward a stimulus when their cheek is stroked?

A) Moro reflex
B) Rooting reflex
C) Grasping reflex
D) Tonic neck reflex

Answer 7

B) Rooting reflex

Rationale: The rooting reflex is when an infant turns their head and begins to suckle when their cheek is stroked, which helps them find food.

Question 8

When do infants generally begin to double their birth weight?

A) At 2 months
B) At 5 months
C) At 9 months
D) At 12 months

Answer 8

B) At 5 months

Rationale: Most infants double their birth weight by 5 months and triple it by their first birthday.

Question 9

Which of the following vaccines is recommended for infants to protect against serious diseases?

A) Influenza
B) Measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR)
C) Human papillomavirus (HPV)
D) Pneumococcal

Answer 9

B) Measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR)

Rationale: Infants are typically vaccinated against diseases like measles, mumps, rubella, and others as part of the immunization schedule that begins during infancy.

Question 10

During toddlerhood, what is the first sign that a child may be ready for toilet training?
A) Ability to walk independently
B) Sphincter control and brain maturation
C) Crying when wet
D) Walking up and down stairs

Answer 10

B) Sphincter control and brain maturation

Rationale: Successful toilet training depends on physical maturity, specifically sphincter control, and brain maturation

Question 11

What developmental milestone is associated with object permanence in toddlers?
A) Walking independently
B) Recognizing that objects continue to exist even when out of sight
C) Using complete sentences
D) Playing alongside others without interaction

Answer 11

B) Recognizing that objects continue to exist even when out of sight

Rationale: Object permanence is a key developmental milestone in toddlers, where they learn that objects still exist even when they cannot be seen.

Question 12

Which type of play involves toddlers playing alongside other children without interacting with them?
A) Cooperative play
B) Parallel play
C) Associative play
D) Dramatic play

Answer 12

B) Parallel play

Rationale: Parallel play is typical of toddlers, where they play beside others without direct interaction, but this is an important stage in social development.

Question 13

At what age do preschoolers typically start to catch a ball and balance on one foot?
A) 2 years old
B) 3 years old
C) 4 years old
D) 5 years old

Answer 13

D) 5 years old

Rationale: By age 5, preschoolers have refined their gross motor skills to include catching a ball and balancing on one foot.

Question 14

What is the recommended amount of screen time for preschoolers?
A) No more than 30 minutes a day
B) No more than 1 hour a day of quality programming
C) 2 to 3 hours a day with adult supervision
D) No more than 5 hours per week

Answer 14

B) No more than 1 hour a day of quality programming

Rationale: The recommendation is that preschoolers should have no more than one hour of screen time per day, focusing on quality content.

Question 15

Which of the following vaccinations is recommended for children between the ages of 11 and 12?
A) MMR (Measles, Mumps, Rubella)
B) Hepatitis B
C) Human papillomavirus (HPV)
D) Varicella

Answer 15

C) Human papillomavirus (HPV)

Rationale: HPV vaccines are recommended for preteens around 11 to 12 years of age to protect against cancers caused by HPV infections.

Question 16

What major physiological change begins in females during puberty?
A) Spermarche
B) Menarche
C) Growth spurt in muscle mass
D) Development of facial hair

Answer 16

B) Menarche

Rationale: Menarche refers to the first menstrual period in females, signaling the beginning of sexual maturity.

Question 17

Which hormone stimulates the development of eggs in females during puberty?

A) Testosterone
B) Progesterone
C) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
D) Luteinizing hormone (LH)

Answer 17

C) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

Rationale: FSH stimulates the development of eggs in females, as part of the hormonal changes that occur during puberty.

Question 18

During adolescence, which part of the brain is responsible for decision-making and impulse control?
A) Hippocampus
B) Amygdala
C) Prefrontal cortex
D) Cerebellum

Answer 18

C) Prefrontal cortex

Rationale: The prefrontal cortex is involved in decision-making, abstract thinking, and impulse control, which matures during adolescence.

Question 19

What is a common physical change that occurs in males during adolescence?
A) Menstruation begins
B) The larynx enlarges and the voice deepens
C) Breast development
D) Decrease in sebaceous gland activity

Answer 19

B) The larynx enlarges and the voice deepens

Rationale: During adolescence, males experience an enlargement of the larynx, which results in a deepening of the voice.

Question 20

What dietary requirement is especially important for females during adolescence due to menstruation?
A) Vitamin D
B) Calcium
C) Iron
D) Protein

Answer 20

C) Iron

Rationale: Iron is critical for females during adolescence due to the blood loss that occurs during menstruation, making it necessary for preventing anemia.

Question 21

What is the expected change in heart and lung capacity during adolescence?
A) Decreased heart and lung capacity
B) No change in heart and lung capacity
C) Increase in size and capacity of the heart and lungs
D) Temporary decrease followed by an increase in capacity

Answer 21

C) Increase in size and capacity of the heart and lungs

Rationale: During adolescence, the heart and lungs increase in size and capacity, leading to improved strength and endurance.

Question 22

Which of the following is an example of a “quarterlife crisis” experienced by some young adults?
A) Concern about achieving puberty milestones
B) Anxiety over managing new adult responsibilities such as career and finances
C) Fear of physical aging and menopause
D) Concern over entering middle adulthood

Answer 22

B) Anxiety over managing new adult responsibilities such as career and finances

Rationale: The “quarterlife crisis” refers to young adults feeling overwhelmed as they adjust to new responsibilities like managing debt, establishing a career, and handling social pressures.

Question 23

What physical change typically occurs during middle adulthood?
A) Increased muscle tone and elasticity
B) Decreased bone mass and muscle strength
C) Rapid growth in height
D) Sudden increase in fat distribution in extremities

Answer 23

During middle adulthood, bone mass declines, and there is a decrease in muscle strength and elasticity, leading to changes in body composition.

Question 24

What marks the end of reproductive capacity in females during middle adulthood?
A) Spermarche
B) Menarche
C) Menopause
D) Climacteric

Answer 24

C) Menopause

Rationale: Menopause refers to the cessation of menses and marks the end of reproductive capacity in females, usually occurring during middle adulthood.

Question 25

What is the term used to describe the group of people who care for both their aging parents and their own children?
A) Baby boomer generation
B) Middle-aged parents
C) Sandwich generation
D) Caregiver generation

Answer 25

C) Sandwich generation

Rationale: The “sandwich generation” refers to middle-aged adults who are responsible for caring for both their children and their aging parents simultaneously.

Question 26

Which nutrient is especially important during middle adulthood to help prevent osteoporosis?
A) Vitamin C
B) Iron
C) Calcium
D) Magnesium

Answer 26

C) Calcium

Rationale: Calcium is essential during middle adulthood to maintain bone density and prevent osteoporosis, especially in women after menopause.

Question 27

What physiological change commonly occurs in the cardiovascular system of older adults?
A) Decreased blood pressure
B) Increased elasticity of blood vessels
C) Thickening of heart valves

Answer 27

C) Thickening of heart valves

Rationale: In older adults, heart valves tend to thicken and become more rigid, which can affect cardiovascular function.

Question 28

What vaccination is recommended for older adults over 50 to prevent shingles?
A) Pneumococcal vaccine
B) Shingles (zoster) vaccine
C) HPV vaccine
D) Tetanus vaccine

Answer 28

B) Shingles (zoster) vaccine

Rationale: The shingles (zoster) vaccine is recommended for adults over 50 to prevent shingles and its complications.

Question 29

What is a significant concern for older adults that can affect their nutrition?

A) Rapid metabolism
B) Social isolation and loss of appetite
C) Increase in caloric needs
D) Increased appetite due to sedentary lifestyle

Answer 29

B) Social isolation and loss of appetite

Rationale: Older adults may experience poor nutrition due to social isolation, loss of appetite, or difficulty in preparing meals, which can lead to malnutrition.

Question 30

Which oral health issue is common in older adults due to reduced saliva production?
A) Increased tooth growth
B) Risk of dental decay and gum disease
C) Decreased risk of cavities

Answer 30

B) Risk of dental decay and gum disease

Rationale: Reduced saliva production in older adults increases the risk of dental decay and gum disease, as saliva helps protect teeth and gums.

Question 31

What is the average life expectancy in the United States according to the U.S. Census Bureau?
A) 65.5 years
B) 70.2 years
C) 76.1 years
D) 80.5 years

Answer 31

C) 76.1 years

Rationale: The average life expectancy in the United States is 76.1 years, according to recent data.

Question 32

Which of the following is a common change in the skin of older adults?
A) Increased elasticity
B) Increased thickness and oiliness
C) Wrinkling and thinning of the skin
D) Increase in subcutaneous fat

Answer 32

C) Wrinkling and thinning of the skin

Rationale: As people age, their skin loses elasticity, becomes thinner, and wrinkles due to the loss of collagen and subcutaneous fat.

Question 33

During which period do infants begin to form attachment relationships?
A) Middle childhood
B) Adolescence
C) Newborn stage
D) Prenatal period

Answer 33

C) Newborn stage

Rationale: Infants begin to form attachment relationships with their caregivers during the newborn stage, which is crucial for their social and emotional development.

Question 34

Which developmental principle refers to the concept that human growth proceeds from the center of the body outward?
A) Cephalocaudal principle
B) Simple to complex principle
C) Proximodorsal principle
D) Continuous process principle

Answer 34

C) Proximodorsal principle

Rationale: The proximodorsal principle explains that human development progresses from the center of the body outward, with development occurring in a specific order.

Question 35

What is the first reflex an infant exhibits that helps with feeding?
A) Babinski reflex
B) Rooting reflex
C) Moro reflex
D) Grasping reflex

Answer 35

B) Rooting reflex

Rationale: The rooting reflex helps newborns find food by turning toward a stimulus and beginning to suckle when their cheek is stroked.

Question 36

Which reflex is assessed by stroking the sole of an infant’s foot, causing the toes to fan outward?
A) Moro reflex
B) Babinski reflex
C) Stepping reflex
D) Tonic neck reflex

Answer 36

B) Babinski reflex

Rationale: The Babinski reflex is elicited by stroking the sole of an infant’s foot, resulting in the toes fanning outward, which is a normal response in infants.

Question 37

What is the term used to describe the process in which unused brain pathways are eliminated during adolescence?
A) Synaptic pruning
B) Myelination
C) Neurogenesis
D) Reflex inhibition

Answer 37

A) Synaptic pruning

Rationale: Synaptic pruning is the process during adolescence where unused brain pathways are eliminated to make the brain more efficient.

Question 38

What is a key nutritional requirement for older adults to maintain bone health?
A) Vitamin E
B) Iron
C) Calcium and Vitamin D
D) Folic acid

Answer 38

C) Calcium and Vitamin D

Rationale: Calcium and Vitamin D are essential for older adults to maintain bone health and prevent osteoporosis.

Question 39

Which cognitive function improves during adolescence due to changes in the brain’s prefrontal cortex?
A) Memory retention
B) Reflex reactions
C) Logical thinking and impulse control
D) Basic motor skills

Answer 39

C) Logical thinking and impulse control

Rationale: The prefrontal cortex is responsible for logical thinking, decision-making, and impulse control, which all improve as it matures during adolescence.

Question 40

What is the primary concern for older adults regarding their immune system?
A) Overactive immune responses
B) Increased risk of autoimmune diseases
C) Weakened immune system and susceptibility to infections
D) Decreased need for vaccinations

Answer 40

C) Weakened immune system and susceptibility to infections

Rationale: As adults age, their immune system weakens, making them more susceptible to infections, which is why maintaining immunization schedules is important.

Question 41

Which milestone typically occurs during toddlerhood?
A) Learning to walk independently
B) Understanding abstract concepts
C) Engaging in cooperative play
D) Forming complex sentences

Answer 41

A) Learning to walk independently

Rationale: A key milestone during toddlerhood is learning to walk independently, along with the development of other gross motor skills.

Question 42

What type of play is most common in preschoolers?
A) Solitary play
B) Parallel play
C) Associative play
D) Cooperative play

Answer 42

C) Associative play

Rationale: Associative play, where preschoolers interact with one another without formal rules, is common during this stage, reflecting their growing social skills.

Question 43

What is a major psychosocial change that occurs during adolescence?
A) Increased attachment to parents
B) Developing a sense of identity and independence
C) Reverting to infantile behavior
D) Preferring solitary play over social interaction

Answer 43

B) Developing a sense of identity and independence

Rationale: During adolescence, individuals develop a stronger sense of identity and independence, often spending more time with peers than with family.

Question 44

Which change in the cardiovascular system is common in middle adulthood?
A) Increased elasticity of blood vessels
B) Thickening of heart valves and decreased elasticity of blood vessels
C) Increased heart rate
D) Increase in lung capacity

Answer 44

B) Thickening of heart valves and decreased elasticity of blood vessels

Rationale: Middle adulthood often involves the thickening of heart valves and decreased elasticity of blood vessels, contributing to higher blood pressure and reduced cardiac efficiency.

Question 45

At what age do toddlers typically start to develop the ability to climb, run, and jump?
A) 12 months
B) 18 months
C) 2 years
D) 3 years

Answer 45

D) 3 years

Rationale: By the end of toddlerhood, around 3 years of age, children develop the ability to climb, run, and jump as their gross motor skills become more refined.

Question 46

WHich human development principle evolves in an orderly fashion from simple to complex?
A) Cephalocaudal principle
B) Simple to complex principle
C) Proximodorsal principle
D) Continuous process principle

Answer 46

B) Simple to Complex principle
Human development evolves in an orderly fashion from simple to complex. Infants accomplish head control before they are able to crawl.

Question 47

The continuous process principle is characterized by …

Answer 47

periods of growth spurts and periods of slow and steady growth.

Question 48

Human development occurs from large muscle movement to more refined muscle movements refers to which universal principle?
A) General to Specific principle
B) Simple to complex principle
C) Proximodorsal principle
D) Continuous process principle

Answer 48

A) General to Specific

Question 49

How long does the zygote period last?
A) 8 weeks
B) 16 weeks
C) Approximately 2 weeks
D) Approximately 7 days

Answer 49

C) 2 weeks
The zygote period begins with conception and lasts approximately 2 weeks.

Question 50

The embryonic period is between the
A) The 1st and 3rd month
B) The 3rd and 8th week
C) The 2nd and 6th week

Answer 50

B) The 3rd and 8th week

Usually begins the third week after conception and lasts until the end of the eighth week during which body structures and internal organs develop.

Question 51

The fetal period is between the
A) The 1st and 3rd month
B) The 9th and 40th week
C) The 22nd and 28th week

Answer 51

B) The 9th and 40th week

This is the last stage of prenatal development. It begins at the ninth week and ends at birth.

Question 52

The Newborn stage is

Answer 52

From Birth to 28 days

Question 53

What is an Apgar score?

Answer 53

At one minute and five minutes after birth, the newborn is assessed and assigned scores based on color, heart rate, reflexes, muscle tone, and respiration. Each trait is scored as 0, 1, or 2, with these subscores then added together to yield the overall Apgar score.

Question 54

What is the composition of a newborn’s skull?

A) One solid bone
B) Four soft bones separated by sutures
C) Six soft bones separated by sutures
D) Eight soft bones connected by cartilage

Answer 54

C) Six soft bones separated by sutures

Rationale: A newborn’s skull consists of six soft bones that are separated by bands of cartilage called sutures, allowing for flexibility during birth and brain growth.

Question 55

What are fontanels in a newborn?

A) Hardened areas on the newborn’s skull
B) Cartilage covering the entire skull
C) Soft spots at the anterior and posterior of the skull
D) Areas where the skull bones are fused

Answer 55

C) Soft spots at the anterior and posterior of the skull

Rationale: Fontanels are the soft spots on a newborn’s skull, allowing for growth of the brain and easy passage through the birth canal.

Question 56

What is lanugo?

A) A white, cheese-like substance covering the newborn’s skin
B) Fine hair that covers the newborn and disappears after birth
C) A protective layer of fat under the skin
D) The flexible cartilage between skull bones

Answer 56

B) Fine hair that covers the newborn and disappears after birth

Rationale: Lanugo is the fine hair covering the newborn, which typically disappears a few days after birth.

Question 57

What is the purpose of vernix caseosa on a newborn’s skin?

A) To regulate body temperature
B) To aid in immune system development
C) To protect the skin during pregnancy
D) To prevent bone deformation

Answer 57

C) To protect the skin during pregnancy

Rationale: Vernix caseosa is a white, cheese-like substance that protects the newborn’s skin from the amniotic fluid during pregnancy.

Question 58

What is the expected response when a newborn experiences a sudden movement or loud noise?

A) Grasping reflex
B) Rooting reflex
C) Moro reflex
D) Stepping reflex

Answer 58

C) Moro reflex

Rationale: The Moro reflex occurs when a newborn experiences a sudden movement or loud noise, causing them to startle, extend their arms and legs, then pull them inward.

Question 59

When the newborn’s head is turned to one side while lying supine, which reflex causes the arm and leg on that side to extend?

A) Tonic neck reflex
B) Babinski reflex
C) Stepping reflex
D) Rooting reflex

Answer 59

A) Tonic neck reflex

Rationale: The tonic neck reflex is observed when a newborn’s head is turned to one side, causing the arm and leg on that side to extend, resembling a “fencer’s” position.

Question 60

Which reflex occurs when the newborn’s mouth is touched by an object?

A) Grasping reflex
B) Rooting reflex
C) Sucking reflex
D) Moro reflex

Answer 60

C) Sucking reflex

Rationale: The sucking reflex is triggered when an object touches the newborn’s mouth, causing the infant to suckle, an important reflex for feeding.

Question 61

What is the expected reaction when an object touches a newborn’s palm?

A) Babinski reflex
B) Grasping reflex
C) Moro reflex
D) Sucking reflex

Answer 61

B) Grasping reflex

Rationale: The grasping reflex occurs when an object touches the newborn’s palm, causing the infant to close their hand around it.

Question 62

Why might a newborn’s temperature be slightly lower than normal right after birth?

A) Due to exposure to cold air in the delivery room
B) Due to an immature temperature-regulating mechanism and heat loss
C) Because of the infant’s small size
D) Due to overexertion during birth

Answer 62

B) Due to an immature temperature-regulating mechanism and heat loss

Rationale: A newborn’s temperature may be lower because they are adjusting to life outside the uterus, and their temperature-regulating mechanisms are not yet fully developed.

Question 63

What is the typical respiratory rate for a healthy newborn?

A) 20 to 40 breaths per minute
B) 60 to 80 breaths per minute
C) 30 to 60 breaths per minute
D) 80 to 100 breaths per minute

Answer 63

C) 30 to 60 breaths per minute

Rationale: The normal respiratory rate for a newborn ranges between 30 and 60 breaths per minute, which should be counted for a full minute to assess accuracy.

Question 64

What is the typical range for a newborn’s apical pulse?

A) 80 to 100 beats per minute
B) 100 to 140 beats per minute
C) 90 to 130 beats per minute
D) 110 to 160 beats per minute

Answer 64

D) 110 to 160 beats per minute

Rationale: A newborn’s apical pulse typically ranges from 110 to 160 beats per minute and should be counted for a full minute to assess heart function accurately.

Question 65

What is the average blood pressure of a newborn?

A) 80 to 100 mm Hg systolic and 50 to 70 mm Hg diastolic
B) 60 to 80 mm Hg systolic and 40 to 50 mm Hg diastolic
C) 50 to 60 mm Hg systolic and 30 to 40 mm Hg diastolic
D) 70 to 90 mm Hg systolic and 60 to 80 mm Hg diastolic

Answer 65

B) 60 to 80 mm Hg systolic and 40 to 50 mm Hg diastolic

Rationale: The average blood pressure for a newborn is 60 to 80 mm Hg systolic and 40 to 50 mm Hg diastolic.

Question 66

During infancy, how much sleep does a newborn typically require by the end of the first year?

A) 20 hours per day
B) 15 hours per day
C) 12 hours per day
D) 10 hours per day

Answer 66

C) 12 hours per day

Rationale: By the end of the first year, infants typically require about 12 hours of sleep per day, including naps.

Question 67

At what age do deciduous teeth typically begin to emerge in infants?

A) 3 months
B) 6 months
C) 9 months
D) 12 months

Answer 67

B) 6 months

Rationale: Deciduous teeth, also known as baby teeth, usually begin to emerge around 6 months of age.

Question 68

How do infants’ brain development and behavior change during the first year?

A) They become less interactive with their environment
B) Their behaviors reflect complex brain development enhanced by stimulation and communication
C) They focus mainly on reflexive movements without learning
D) They stop growing after 6 months

Answer 68

B) Their behaviors reflect complex brain development enhanced by stimulation and communication

Rationale: During the first year, brain development is rapid, and infants’ behaviors, such as exploring their environment and interacting with caregivers, reflect this growth.

Question 69

What is the importance of consistent meal routines during toddlerhood?

A) They help toddlers develop large motor skills
B) They foster family interaction and socialization
C) They ensure toddlers will eat more
D) They reduce the need for snacks between meals

Answer 69

B) They foster family interaction and socialization

Rationale: Consistent mealtime routines help toddlers develop social skills and foster interaction with family members, promoting healthy eating habits.

Question 70

What is the recommended amount of sleep for toddlers at night?

A) 8 to 10 hours
B) 9 to 11 hours
C) 10 to 12 hours
D) 12 to 14 hours

Answer 70

C) 10 to 12 hours

Rationale: Toddlers generally require 10 to 12 hours of sleep at night, along with 1 to 2 hours of nap time during the day.

Question 71

What physical milestone is typically reached by the end of the first year of infancy?
A) Walking independently without support
B) Grasping objects with both hands
C) Pulling up to a standing position and walking while holding onto furniture
D) Turning head toward sounds

Answer 71

C) Pulling up to a standing position and walking while holding onto furniture

Rationale: By the end of the first year, many infants can pull themselves up to a standing position and walk while holding onto furniture.

Question 72

What is a normal emotional reaction for 2-year-old toddlers when they experience frustration?
A) Laughter
B) Temper tantrums
C) Immediate problem-solving
D) Quiet withdrawal

Answer 72

B) Temper tantrums

Rationale: Toddlers often react to frustration with temper tantrums as their emotional regulation and problem-solving skills are still developing.

Question 73

What is an appropriate way to help toddlers develop their language skills?
A) Talking with them, describing objects, and reading aloud
B) Limiting their exposure to spoken language
C) Allowing them to play alone without interaction
D) Only encouraging speech when they cry

Answer 73

A) Talking with them, describing objects, and reading aloud

Rationale: Talking with toddlers, describing objects, and reading aloud are effective methods for enhancing language development during toddlerhood.

Question 74

What fine motor skill is typically developed by toddlers around 2 years old?
A) Writing sentences
B) Picking up small objects
C) Tying their shoes
D) Cutting with scissors

Answer 74

B) Picking up small objects

Rationale: By age 2, toddlers develop the fine motor skills needed to handle small objects and can often build towers using blocks.

Question 75

How many words can most 2-year-old toddlers understand and use?
A) Understand 50 words, use 10 words
B) Understand 200 words, use 50 words
C) Understand 500 words, use 100 words
D) Understand 100 words, use 20 words

Answer 75

B) Understand 200 words, use 50 words

Rationale: By age 2, toddlers can typically use around 50 words and understand at least 200 words, reflecting the rapid development of language skills during this period.

Question 75

What is the purpose of Bronfenbrenner’s ecological systems theory?

A) To explain psychosexual development across the lifespan
B) To describe how individuals and their environments interact to influence development
C) To highlight the importance of moral development
D) To explain cognitive development during childhood

Answer 75

B) To describe how individuals and their environments interact to influence development

Rationale: Bronfenbrenner’s ecological systems theory emphasizes how interactions between individuals and their environments affect human development.

Question 76

What is a developmental milestone?

A) A specific age when physical growth stops
B) A significant achievement that most individuals reach during a particular age range
C) A cognitive task that only a few people can accomplish
D) A process that only occurs during early childhood

Answer 76

B) A significant achievement that most individuals reach during a particular age range

Rationale: Developmental milestones represent key skills or abilities that most people achieve within a certain age range, such as walking or talking.

Question 77

How does the biopsychosocial model differ from the biomedical model?

A) It includes emotional and moral factors only
B) It incorporates biological, psychological, and sociocultural factors, while the biomedical model focuses on biological factors alone
C) It focuses on physical development only
D) It is limited to early childhood development

Answer 77

B) It incorporates biological, psychological, and sociocultural factors, while the biomedical model focuses on biological factors alone

Rationale: The biopsychosocial model provides a more comprehensive understanding of human development by considering the interaction of biological, psychological, and sociocultural factors, unlike the narrower biomedical model.

Question 78

What does the bioecological model emphasize?

A) That all development is influenced only by biology
B) The interaction of internal systems and external contexts like family and society
C) That development is unpredictable and random
D) The importance of genetics alone in determining growth

Answer 78

B) The interaction of internal systems and external contexts like family and society

Rationale: The bioecological model, an extension of Bronfenbrenner’s ecological systems theory, emphasizes the interaction between internal systems (like biology) and external contexts (such as society and family) in shaping development.

Question 79

What is the primary focus of Freud’s theory of psychosexual development?

A) Development of cognitive abilities
B) Development of social skills
C) Development of the child’s libido and erogenous zones
D) Development of emotional intelligence

Answer 79

C) Development of the child’s libido and erogenous zones

Rationale: Freud’s theory of psychosexual development focuses on the development of the libido and the child’s relationship with different erogenous zones at each stage.

Question 80

Which erogenous zone is the focus of the anal stage in Freud’s psychosexual development?

A) Mouth
B) Genitals
C) Anus
D) Lips

Answer 80

C) Anus

Rationale: During the anal stage (18 months to 3 years), the focus is on the anus, and the primary task is toilet training and control over elimination.

Question 80

What is the main developmental task of the oral stage in Freud’s theory?

A) Learning to walk
B) Weaning from breastfeeding
C) Toilet training
D) Developing social skills

Answer 80

B) Weaning from breastfeeding

Rationale: The oral stage, which occurs from birth to 18 months, is centered around the mouth, and the main developmental task is weaning from breastfeeding or bottle-feeding.

Question 81

What developmental conflict is associated with the phallic stage?

A) Weaning from breastfeeding
B) Resolving the Oedipus or Electra complex
C) Learning to walk
D) Developing friendships

Answer 81

B) Resolving the Oedipus or Electra complex

Rationale: The phallic stage, which occurs between ages 3 to 6, involves the Oedipus or Electra complex, where children feel unconscious sexual attraction to the opposite-sex parent.

Question 82

What is the primary developmental achievement of the latency stage?

A) Toilet training
B) Development of defense mechanisms
C) Learning to walk
D) Reaching sexual maturity

Answer 82

B) Development of defense mechanisms

Rationale: The latency stage (ages 6 to 12) is a period of relative calm in terms of sexual development, during which children focus on developing defense mechanisms and building social and academic skills.

Question 83

Which psychosexual stage begins at 12 years of age and continues into adulthood?

A) Latency stage
B) Genital stage
C) Oral stage
D) Phallic stage

Answer 83

B) Genital stage

Rationale: The genital stage begins at 12 years of age and continues into adulthood, focusing on reaching sexual maturity and establishing healthy sexual relationships.

Question 84

According to Freud, what results from failing to resolve conflicts at any psychosexual stage?

A) Cognitive disabilities
B) Emotional independence
C) Fixation, which may lead to personality problems
D) Accelerated physical growth

Answer 84

C) Fixation, which may lead to personality problems

Rationale: Freud believed that failure to resolve conflicts during a psychosexual stage can lead to fixation, resulting in unresolved issues that affect adult personality.

Question 85

During which stage is the mouth considered the primary erogenous zone?

A) Phallic stage
B) Latency stage
C) Oral stage
D) Anal stage

Answer 85

C) Oral stage

Rationale: The oral stage, from birth to 18 months, focuses on the mouth, lips, and tongue as the primary sources of pleasure, with feeding being the central activity.

Question 86

What is the key focus of the genital stage in Freud’s theory of psychosexual development?
A) Development of language skills
B) Reaching sexual maturity
C) Learning to read
D) Developing trust in caregivers

Answer 86

B) Reaching sexual maturity

Rationale: The genital stage, which begins in adolescence and continues into adulthood, is focused on reaching sexual maturity and forming healthy, mature relationships.

Question 87

According to the Freudian Psychosexual Development what is the age range for the Oral stage?

A) Birth to 18 months
B) 12 years to adulthood
C) 18 months to 3 years
D) 6 to 12 years

Answer 87

A) Birth to 18 months

Question 88

According to the Freudian Psychosexual Development what is the age range for the Genital stage?

Answer 88

A) Birth to 18 months
B) 12 years to adulthood
C) 18 months to 3 years
D) 6 to 12 years

Question 89

According to the Freudian Psychosexual Development what is the age range for the Anal stage?
A) 3 to 6 years
B) 12 years to adulthood
C) 18 months to 3 years
D) 6 to 12 years

Answer 89

C) 18 months to 3 years

Question 90

According to the Freudian Psychosexual Development what is the age range for the Latency stage?

Answer 90

A) 6 to 12 years
B) 12 years to adulthood
C) 18 months to 3 years
D) 6 months to 1 year

Question 91

According to the Freudian Psychosexual Development what is the age range for the Phallic stage?
A) Birth to 18 months
B) 12 years to adulthood
C) 18 months to 3 years
D) 3 to 6 years

Answer 91

D) 3 to 6 years

Question 92

What is the primary focus of Erikson’s theory of psychosocial development?

A) Cognitive development
B) Moral decision-making
C) Resolution of crises at different life stages
D) Genetic influences on personality

Answer 92

C) Resolution of crises at different life stages

Rationale: Erikson’s theory focuses on the resolution of psychosocial crises that occur at various stages of life, leading to either positive development or difficulties.

Question 93

What is the key developmental task during the autonomy vs. shame and doubt stage?

A) Developing trust in caregivers
B) Gaining control over bodily functions and making simple choices
C) Developing a sense of guilt
D) Forming intimate relationships

Answer 93

B) Gaining control over bodily functions and making simple choices

Rationale: During toddlerhood (autonomy vs. shame and doubt), children gain independence and autonomy by controlling bodily functions and making simple decisions

Question 94

Which stage of Erikson’s theory involves the crisis of initiative vs. guilt?

A) Infancy
B) Preschool
C) Adolescence
D) Middle adulthood

Answer 94

B) Preschool

Rationale: The initiative vs. guilt stage occurs during the preschool years, when children begin to assert themselves and take initiative in exploring their environment.

Question 94

During which stage of Erikson’s psychosocial development does the crisis of trust vs. mistrust occur?

A) Toddlerhood
B) Infancy
C) Preschool
D) Adolescence

Answer 94

B) Infancy

Rationale: The crisis of trust vs. mistrust occurs in infancy when the infant’s basic needs must be met consistently by caregivers to develop trust in the world.

Question 95

In the industry vs. inferiority stage, which typically occurs during childhood, what is the primary task?

A) Establishing trust in caregivers
B) Achieving a sense of competence by learning new skills
C) Developing an identity
D) Forming intimate relationships

Answer 95

B) Achieving a sense of competence by learning new skills

Rationale: In the industry vs. inferiority stage (childhood), the key task is to achieve a sense of competence by learning new skills and being productive in activities.

Question 96

Which stage of Erikson’s psychosocial development is characterized by the crisis of intimacy vs. isolation?

A) Middle adulthood
B) Adolescence
C) Early adulthood
D) Late adulthood

Answer 96

C) Early adulthood

Rationale: In early adulthood, individuals face the crisis of intimacy vs. isolation, where they seek to form close, committed relationships with others.

Question 96

What psychosocial crisis is central to the adolescent stage in Erikson’s theory?

A) Intimacy vs. isolation
B) Autonomy vs. shame and doubt
C) Identity vs. role confusion
D) Integrity vs. despair

Answer 96

C) Identity vs. role confusion

Rationale: During adolescence, the primary psychosocial task is to form a stable identity, which is the focus of the crisis of identity vs. role confusion.

Question 97

What is the primary developmental focus during the stage of generativity vs. stagnation in Erikson’s theory?

A) Finding a stable sense of identity
B) Forming intimate relationships
C) Contributing to society and guiding the next generation
D) Achieving a sense of trust

Answer 97

C) Contributing to society and guiding the next generation

Rationale: Generativity vs. stagnation (middle adulthood) involves contributing to society through productive work, family, and community involvement.

Question 98

During the integrity vs. despair stage, individuals typically:

A) Reflect on their life to achieve a sense of fulfillment or regret
B) Focus on forming intimate relationships
C) Experience a crisis of identity
D) Learn new skills and develop industry

Answer 98

A) Reflect on their life to achieve a sense of fulfillment or regret

Rationale: The integrity vs. despair stage occurs in late adulthood when individuals reflect on their lives and either achieve a sense of integrity or feel regret and despair.

Question 99

Which of the following is a key outcome of successfully resolving the crisis of trust vs. mistrust?
A) A sense of independence
B) The ability to form intimate relationships
C) Hope and faith in the world
D) A strong sense of identity

Answer 99

C) Hope and faith in the world

Rationale: Successfully resolving the crisis of trust vs. mistrust in infancy leads to the development of hope, faith, and a basic trust in the world.

Question 100

What outcome is expected when toddlers successfully navigate the stage of autonomy vs. shame and doubt?
A) They develop a sense of guilt
B) They develop a sense of autonomy and self-confidence
C) They feel a strong attachment to caregivers
D) They become overly dependent on others

Answer 100

B) They develop a sense of autonomy and self-confidence

Rationale: Successfully navigating the autonomy vs. shame and doubt stage (toddlerhood) leads to the development of autonomy, self-confidence, and independence.

Question 101

During the intimacy vs. isolation stage, failure to establish intimate relationships can result in:
A) Role confusion
B) Isolation and loneliness
C) Stagnation
D) Guilt and shame

Answer 101

B) Isolation and loneliness

Rationale: Failure to form close, meaningful relationships during the intimacy vs. isolation stage (early adulthood) can lead to feelings of isolation and loneliness.

Question 102

Mix and match Column A with Column B
Column A
Trust vs Mistrust
Integrity vs Despair
Autonomy vs Shame and Doubt
Generativity vs Stagnation
Initiative vs Guilt
Intimacy vs Isolation
Industry vs Inferiority
Identity vs Role confusion
Column B
Infancy
Toddlerhood
Preschool
Childhood
Adolescence
Early adulthood
Middle adulthood
Late adulthood.

Answer 102

Column A
Trust vs Mistrust - Infancy
Integrity vs Despair - Late adulthood
Autonomy vs Shame and Doubt - Toddlerhood
Generativity vs Stagnation - Middle adulthood
Initiative vs Guilt - Preschool
Intimacy vs Isolation - Early childhood
Industry vs Inferiority - Childhood
Identity vs Role confusion - Adolescence

Question 103

What is the primary focus of Erikson’s theory of psychosocial development?
A) Cognitive development
B) Moral decision-making
C) Resolution of crises at different life stages
D) Genetic influences on personality

Answer 103

C) Resolution of crises at different life stages

Rationale: Erikson’s theory focuses on the resolution of psychosocial crises that occur at various stages of life, leading to either positive development or difficulties.

Question 104

In which of the following stages does object permanence first develop?

A) Sensorimotor
B) Preoperational
C) Concrete operational
D) Formal operational

Answer 104

Answer: A) Sensorimotor
Rationale: Object permanence, the understanding that objects continue to exist even when they cannot be seen, develops during the Sensorimotor stage (0 to 2 years). This is a key milestone in the cognitive development of infants

Question 105

A child begins to exhibit separation anxiety, understanding that their caregiver continues to exist even when out of sight. Which developmental stage is this child in?

A) Preoperational
B) Concrete operational
C) Sensorimotor
D) Formal operational

Answer 105

C) Sensorimotor
Rationale: Separation anxiety, which often begins around 6 to 9 months, is closely tied to the development of object permanence in the Sensorimotor stage, as the child realizes that their caregiver exists even when out of view

Question 106

A preschool child is asked to perform a simple math task like adding 2 + 3 but struggles to understand the concept of numbers and logic. This child is likely in which stage of cognitive development?

A) Sensorimotor
B) Preoperational
C) Concrete operational
D) Formal operational

Answer 106

B) Preoperational
Rationale: In the Preoperational stage (2 to 7 years), children start to use symbols and language to represent objects but are not yet able to think logically or perform operations like addition and subtraction.

Question 107

Which of the following abilities is characteristic of the Concrete Operational stage?

A) Hypothetical reasoning
B) Object permanence
C) Ability to perform mathematical operations
D) Use of abstract symbols and language

Answer 107

C) Ability to perform mathematical operations
Rationale: During the Concrete Operational stage (7 to 12 years), children develop logical thinking about concrete objects. This includes the ability to perform mathematical operations such as addition and subtraction and understanding concepts like reversibility and spatial relationships.

Question 108

In the Formal Operational stage, adolescents begin to demonstrate the ability to:

A) Understand object permanence
B) Think logically about concrete objects
C) Reason abstractly and test hypotheses
D) Use symbols and language without logic

Answer 108

C) Reason abstractly and test hypotheses
Rationale: The Formal Operational stage (12 years to adulthood) is marked by the ability to reason abstractly, think hypothetically, and engage in complex problem-solving by testing hypotheses, demonstrating cognitive maturity.

Question 109

A child in the Concrete Operational stage is shown two identical balls of clay. One ball is flattened, and the child is asked if the amount of clay has changed. The child responds, “No, it’s still the same.” What concept is this child demonstrating?

A) Egocentrism
B) Conservation
C) Abstract reasoning
D) Hypothetical thinking

Answer 109

B) Conservation
Rationale: Conservation, the understanding that quantity remains the same even when its shape changes, is a key development in the Concrete Operational stage. This shows that the child can think logically about physical objects.

Question 110

A 13-year-old is able to discuss political ideologies and understand hypothetical scenarios like “What would happen if gravity ceased to exist?” This demonstrates which cognitive ability?

A) Conservation
B) Reversibility
C) Abstract reasoning
D) Symbolic thinking

Answer 110

C) Abstract reasoning
Rationale: Abstract reasoning, including the ability to think about hypothetical and complex concepts, is characteristic of the Formal Operational stage, which typically begins around 12 years of age.

Question 111

A child who can engage in role-playing and make-believe using symbols, such as pretending a block is a car, is most likely in which stage of cognitive development?

A) Sensorimotor
B) Preoperational
C) Concrete operational
D) Formal operational

Answer 111

B) Preoperational
Rationale: The Preoperational stage (2 to 7 years) is marked by symbolic play, where children use objects, words, or images to represent things that are not present, though they do not yet engage in logical reasoning.

Question 112

At which stage does the child begin to understand the concept of reversibility, such as knowing that if you pour water from one cup into a different-shaped cup, the amount of water remains the same?

A) Sensorimotor
B) Preoperational
C) Concrete operational
D) Formal operational

Answer 112

C) Concrete operational
Rationale: Reversibility, the ability to mentally reverse actions, is a hallmark of the Concrete Operational stage (7 to 12 years). Children in this stage can understand that the quantity of water remains constant, even when its appearance changes.

Question 113

A child is learning to think logically and is able to classify objects based on shared characteristics, such as grouping together all the red blocks or sorting shapes by size. This ability is typical of which developmental stage?

A) Sensorimotor
B) Preoperational
C) Concrete operational
D) Formal operational

Answer 113

Answer: C) Concrete operational
Rationale: The ability to classify objects, a sign of logical thinking, emerges in the Concrete Operational stage. Children at this stage can organize objects by specific characteristics such as color, shape, or size.

Question 114

At the Preconventional level of moral development, children obey rules primarily to:

A) Gain social approval
B) Avoid punishment or gain personal rewards
C) Maintain law and order
D) Uphold ethical principles

Answer 114

B) Avoid punishment or gain personal rewards
Rationale: In the Preconventional level (ages 4 to 10), children obey rules either to avoid punishment (Stage 1: Punishment and Obedience) or to gain personal benefits (Stage 2: Instrumental Relativism).

Question 115

A child who follows the rules because they don’t want to get punished is in which stage of Kohlberg’s moral development?

A) Good boy—nice girl
B) Punishment and obedience
C) Law and order
D) Social contract

Answer 115

B) Punishment and obedience
Rationale: In the Punishment and Obedience stage, which falls under Preconventional reasoning, children obey rules to avoid negative consequences such as punishment.

Question 116

A person who follows rules primarily because they want to maintain social order and believes that rules are necessary for the good of society is demonstrating which stage of moral reasoning?

A) Universal ethical principles
B) Law and order
C) Instrumental relativism
D) Good boy—nice girl

Answer 116

B) Law and order
Rationale: The Law and Order stage, which is part of Conventional reasoning, is marked by a focus on maintaining social order by following rules and laws, typically starting around 10 years of age and into adulthood.

Question 117

At the Postconventional level of moral development, individuals may challenge rules that they believe impinge on human rights. This is characteristic of which stage?

A) Instrumental relativism
B) Universal ethical principles
C) Social contract
D) Law and order

Answer 117

C) Social contract
Rationale: In the Social Contract stage, individuals begin to question and challenge laws or rules that they believe infringe upon the rights of others, reflecting the advanced moral reasoning of the Postconventional level.

Question 118

A 12-year-old child starts to care more about what others think of them and follows the rules to gain approval from peers and adults. Which stage of Kohlberg’s moral development does this represent?

A) Instrumental relativism
B) Good boy—nice girl
C) Law and order
D) Social contract

Answer 118

B) Good boy—nice girl
Rationale: The Good Boy—Nice Girl stage, within Conventional reasoning, involves following rules to gain acceptance and approval from others. This stage is common in children aged 10 to 13 years.

Question 119

An adult who consistently follows their own set of ethical principles, even if it means breaking the law, is likely operating at which stage of moral development?

A) Social contract
B) Instrumental relativism
C) Universal ethical principles
D) Law and order

Answer 119

C) Universal ethical principles
Rationale: In the Universal Ethical Principles stage, individuals develop their own moral guidelines based on justice and human rights, even if it conflicts with societal laws. This is a part of Postconventional reasoning.

Question 120

Which of the following best describes the motivation behind moral reasoning in the Instrumental Relativism stage?

A) To maintain social order
B) To seek approval from authority figures
C) To gain rewards or personal benefit
D) To uphold universal ethical principles

Answer 120

C) To gain rewards or personal benefit
Rationale: In the Instrumental Relativism stage of Preconventional reasoning, individuals obey rules to gain personal benefit, such as rewards, rather than because of moral or social principles.

Question 121

A person who believes laws should be followed unless they violate basic human rights is in which stage of Kohlberg’s theory?

A) Law and order
B) Social contract
C) Good boy—nice girl
D) Punishment and obedience

Answer 121

B) Social contract
Rationale: In the Social Contract stage of Postconventional reasoning, individuals may question or reject laws that infringe upon human rights, showing advanced moral reasoning beyond mere adherence to societal rules.

Question 122

A child who follows rules mainly to be seen as “good” by others is demonstrating behavior from which level of moral development?

A) Preconventional
B) Conventional
C) Postconventional
D) Instrumental relativism

Answer 122

B) Conventional
Rationale: In the Conventional level, individuals follow rules to gain acceptance and approval from others, particularly in the Good Boy—Nice Girl stage. This focus on social conformity begins around 10 years old.

Question 123

Which of the following is a characteristic of the Universal Ethical Principles stage of moral development?

A) Obeying rules to avoid punishment
B) Following rules to gain personal rewards
C) Obeying rules to maintain social harmony
D) Applying personal moral principles, even if they conflict with laws

Answer 123

D) Applying personal moral principles, even if they conflict with laws
Rationale: In the Universal Ethical Principles stage, individuals act according to self-chosen ethical principles that may override laws or social rules if they believe those laws are unjust. This is the most advanced form of moral reasoning in Kohlberg’s theory.

Question 124

What are the six developmental stages nurses must be familiar with to provide client-centered care? a) Infancy, childhood, adolescence, adulthood, senior years, end-of-life
b) Prenatal period, infancy through toddlerhood, childhood, adolescence, adulthood, late adulthood
c) Prenatal care, infancy, adolescence, middle age, old age, end-of-life
d) Neonatal, infant, toddler, teenager, young adult, elderly

Answer 124

b) Prenatal period, infancy through toddlerhood, childhood, adolescence, adulthood, late adulthood
Rationale: These stages represent the major phases of human development from conception to the end of life. Nurses must understand the unique physiological, emotional, and psychosocial needs of clients at each stage to provide appropriate care.

Question 125

What is the role of nurses during the prenatal development stage? a) Administering vaccinations to newborns
b) Detecting and identifying pregnant women at risk for complications, providing health promotion and education
c) Ensuring the baby is gaining weight during the first year
d) Providing care only after the newborn is delivered

Answer 125

b) Detecting and identifying pregnant women at risk for complications, providing health promotion and education
Rationale: Nurses play a vital role in prenatal care by identifying risks, educating pregnant women on health practices, and ensuring optimal development of the fetus to reduce complications during and after birth.

Question 126

What is Down Syndrome, and how is it detected during pregnancy? a) A genetic disorder caused by a missing chromosome, detected via a CT scan
b) A genetic disorder caused by an extra copy of chromosome 21, detected via screening tests like blood tests and ultrasound
c) A neurological disorder diagnosed after birth
d) A congenital heart defect diagnosed with an MRI

Answer 126

b) A genetic disorder caused by an extra copy of chromosome 21, detected via screening tests like blood tests and ultrasound
Rationale: Down syndrome is a chromosomal disorder, and screening tests such as blood tests and ultrasounds during pregnancy help detect markers indicating the condition.

Question 127

Which of the following is NOT typically a characteristic of Down syndrome? a) Intellectual disabilities
b) Gastrointestinal anomalies
c) High muscle tone
d) Characteristic facial features

Answer 127

c) High muscle tone
Rationale: Infants with Down syndrome usually have low muscle tone (hypotonia), not high muscle tone. Other characteristics include intellectual disabilities and physical traits like distinct facial features.

Question 128

What is the nurse’s role in supporting families with a newborn diagnosed with Down syndrome?
a) Providing only physical care for the newborn
b) Educating the family on proper nutrition, screening for other health issues, and emotional support
c) Ensuring the child receives only speech therapy
d) Referring the family to a psychologist for emotional care

Answer 128

b) Educating the family on proper nutrition, screening for other health issues, and emotional support
Rationale: Nurses provide holistic care for families, which includes education about the child’s condition, support with proper nutrition, and screening for common health issues like vision or hearing problems.

Question 129

What is spina bifida, and how can it be prevented? a) A congenital heart defect prevented by taking iron supplements
b) A neural tube defect that can be prevented by adequate intake of folic acid
c) A muscular disorder that can be prevented with exercise
d) A condition caused by malnutrition during pregnancy

Answer 129

b) A neural tube defect that can be prevented by adequate intake of folic acid
Rationale: Spina bifida is a neural tube defect that occurs when the neural tube does not close properly. Adequate intake of folic acid by the mother during pregnancy can significantly reduce the risk of this condition.

Question 130

Which statement best describes the nurse’s intervention for an infant with spina bifida? a) Performing sterile dressing changes and keeping the infant in a prone position
b) Placing the infant on their back to reduce pressure on the spine
c) Providing nutrition via IV until surgery
d) Conducting vision tests to check for blindness

Answer 130

a) Performing sterile dressing changes and keeping the infant in a prone position
Rationale: Infants with spina bifida need sterile dressing changes to prevent infection, and keeping them in a prone position prevents pressure on the neural sac and reduces the risk of further complications.

Question 131

What is the primary cause of fetal alcohol spectrum disorders (FASDs)? a) Genetic mutations
b) Maternal alcohol consumption during pregnancy
c) Lack of prenatal vitamins
d) Exposure to secondhand smoke

Answer 131

b) Maternal alcohol consumption during pregnancy
Rationale: FASDs occur when a pregnant woman consumes alcohol, which passes through the placenta and affects fetal development, leading to a range of physical, cognitive, and behavioral problems.

Question 132

Which is NOT a common symptom of fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS)? a) Small head size
b) Heart defects
c) Hyperactivity
d) Increased growth rate

Answer 132

d) Increased growth rate
Rationale: Children with fetal alcohol syndrome often experience growth deficiencies, not increased growth rates. Other common features include heart defects and behavioral issues like hyperactivity.

Question 133

What can nurses educate pregnant women to do to prevent fetal alcohol spectrum disorders (FASDs)? a) Limit alcohol consumption to only once a week
b) Stop drinking alcohol entirely during pregnancy
c) Switch to non-alcoholic beverages after the first trimester
d) Drink alcohol in moderation

Answer 133

b) Stop drinking alcohol entirely during pregnancy
Rationale: No amount of alcohol is considered safe during pregnancy. Complete abstinence from alcohol is the only way to prevent FASDs.

Question 134

Which of the following is true about Down syndrome?
A) It is caused by an extra copy of chromosome 21.
B) It is primarily detected after the child is born.
C) It only affects cognitive development, not physical health.
D) It can be cured with early medical intervention.

Answer 134

A
Rationale: Down syndrome is caused by an extra copy of chromosome 21, which affects both physical and cognitive development. It is often detected prenatally through screenings, and while there is no cure, early interventions can improve quality of life.

Question 135

What is the most effective strategy for preventing spina bifida?
A) Routine fetal surgery during pregnancy.
B) Daily intake of 400 micrograms of folic acid before and during pregnancy.
C) Avoiding all medications during pregnancy.
D) Administering antibiotics to the mother during pregnancy.

Answer 135

B
Rationale: Spina bifida, a neural tube defect, can largely be prevented by ensuring that pregnant women consume 400 mcg of folic acid daily. This nutrient supports proper neural tube closure during fetal development.

Question 136

Which symptom is most commonly associated with autism spectrum disorder (ASD)?
A) Rapid physical growth
B) Difficulty with communication and social interaction
C) Frequent seizures
D) Abnormal bone development

Answer 136

B
Rationale: Children with autism spectrum disorder (ASD) typically struggle with communication, social interaction, and often display repetitive behaviors. While each child with ASD presents differently, these challenges are key characteristics of the disorder.

Question 137

When caring for a newborn with spina bifida, which nursing intervention is a priority?
A) Allow the newborn to lie on their back to ensure comfort.
B) Keep the neural tube opening clean and covered to prevent infection.
C) Limit physical contact to prevent overstimulation.
D) Avoid discussing the condition with the parents until the surgery is complete.

Answer 137

B
Rationale: Preventing infection is a priority for a newborn with spina bifida. The neural tube defect may leave the spinal cord exposed, so maintaining sterile dressings and protecting the area is essential.

Question 138

Which is a primary prevention strategy for childhood obesity?
A) Encouraging children to use vending machines at school for snacks.
B) Educating families about balanced nutrition and promoting physical activity.
C) Recommending calorie-dense prepackaged foods for busy families.
D) Limiting the child’s intake of fruits and vegetables to avoid excess calories.

Answer 138

B
Rationale: Primary prevention of childhood obesity focuses on educating families about healthy food choices and promoting regular physical activity. Encouraging balanced nutrition and exercise habits early can prevent long-term health complications.

Question 139

Why are adolescents at increased risk for substance use and addiction?
A) Their prefrontal cortex is fully developed by adolescence.
B) Adolescents have heightened judgment and decision-making abilities.
C) Adolescents are more likely to engage in risk-taking behaviors due to brain immaturity.
D) Substance use has no long-term effects on adolescent brain development.

Answer 139

C
Rationale: During adolescence, the prefrontal cortex, responsible for judgment and decision-making, is still maturing, making adolescents more prone to risk-taking behaviors, including experimenting with substances.

Question 140

What is the primary cause of osteoporosis in older adults, especially women?
A) Excessive consumption of calcium and vitamin D.
B) The rapid loss of bone density following menopause due to decreased estrogen levels.
C) Increased physical activity in older adulthood.
D) High levels of testosterone in older women.

Answer 140

B
Rationale: Osteoporosis is commonly caused by the loss of bone density in women after menopause due to decreased estrogen levels. This makes bones more brittle and prone to fractures.

Question 141

What is the most effective way to prevent heart disease according to the American Heart Association (AHA)?
A) Smoking cessation and limiting exercise
B) Increasing protein intake and daily multivitamins
C) Adhering to a healthy lifestyle, including exercise, diet, and routine health screenings
D) Focusing solely on weight loss

Answer 141

C
Rationale: The AHA recommends focusing on seven goals, including maintaining a healthy diet, regular exercise, not smoking, managing blood pressure, cholesterol, and blood sugar levels, and having routine screenings. These preventive measures significantly reduce the risk of heart disease.

Question 142

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic symptom of Alzheimer’s disease?
A) Memory problems
B) Impaired judgment and reasoning
C) Increased physical coordination
D) Confusion about time and place

Answer 142

C
Rationale: Alzheimer’s disease affects cognitive functions such as memory, reasoning, and orientation, but it does not increase physical coordination. Instead, physical abilities usually decline as the disease progresses.

Question 143

Why is early detection and treatment important in managing Type 2 diabetes?
A) To prevent overhydration and skin problems
B) To decrease the risk of complications such as heart disease, kidney disease, and vision loss
C) To eliminate the need for medication
D) To reverse the diagnosis of diabetes

Answer 143

B
Rationale: Early detection and treatment help reduce the risk of long-term complications like heart disease, kidney disease, neuropathy, and vision loss. While Type 2 diabetes cannot be reversed, it can be managed with lifestyle changes and medication.

Question 144

Which intervention is essential for managing asthma in children?
A) Avoiding medication and using home remedies
B) Encouraging fluid restriction during an asthma attack
C) Educating families on environmental triggers and proper use of inhalers
D) Preventing the child from exercising to avoid triggering symptoms

Answer 144

C
Rationale: Proper asthma management includes educating families about environmental triggers, how to use nebulizers or inhalers correctly, and recognizing early signs of asthma attacks. Physical activity is still encouraged with proper management.

Question 145

What is the primary factor contributing to childhood failure to thrive (FTT)?
A) Overeating
B) High protein intake
C) Insufficient calories and malnutrition
D) Excessive physical activity

Answer 145

C
Rationale: Failure to thrive is often due to undernourishment, where the child does not consume enough calories to support growth. It may be related to feeding difficulties, developmental delays, or chronic medical conditions.

Question 146

What is the role of the nurse when assessing for child maltreatment?
A) Blaming the child for risky behavior
B) Mandatorily reporting any suspected abuse
C) Counseling the abuser directly to prevent further harm
D) Reassuring parents that the child’s injuries are accidental

Answer 146

B
Rationale: Nurses are mandatory reporters, meaning they must report any suspected child abuse or neglect. Their role is to protect the child by ensuring that the proper authorities are notified and interventions are in place.

Question 147

In nursing care for older adults with osteoporosis, which is a recommended preventive measure?
A) Avoiding weight-bearing exercises to reduce stress on bones
B) Smoking cessation and limiting alcohol consumption
C) Reducing calcium intake to prevent fractures
D) Using high heels to maintain posture and balance

Answer 147

B
Rationale: Smoking and excessive alcohol consumption are risk factors for osteoporosis. Smoking cessation, limiting alcohol, and engaging in weight-bearing exercises (e.g., walking) are important for maintaining bone density and preventing fractures.

Question 148

What is a key nursing responsibility when caring for a child diagnosed with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)?
A) Recommending that the child be home-schooled
B) Helping parents use a system of rewards and consequences to change behavior
C) Avoiding structured activities to allow the child to rest
D) Encouraging parents to increase the child’s screen time for better focus

Answer 148

B
Rationale: Nurses can educate parents on using structured systems of rewards and consequences to modify behavior. Establishing routines and collaborating with the child’s teachers can also help improve focus and social skills.

Question 149

Which of the following interventions is critical for nurses providing care for an adolescent with depression?
A) Encourage the adolescent to talk openly about their thoughts of self-harm
B) Avoid asking direct questions about suicidal thoughts
C) Minimize involvement of the family in care
D) Encourage the adolescent to be self-reliant without professional help

Answer 149

A
Rationale: It is important for nurses to directly address self-harm or suicidal ideation by encouraging open communication and ensuring the adolescent does not feel isolated. Immediate intervention and professional help are crucial in managing depression.

Question 150

In cases of anorexia nervosa, what is a common clinical manifestation?
A) Extreme weight gain
B) Loss of appetite due to lack of interest in food
C) Intense fear of gaining weight despite being underweight
D) Increased energy and muscle strength

Answer 150

C
Rationale: Anorexia nervosa is characterized by an intense fear of gaining weight, even when the individual is significantly underweight. This fear leads to restrictive eating and excessive weight loss.