Home Care Test

Question 1

How fast after inhalation will nicotine be delivered to the brain

Answer 1

7-10 seconds

Question 2

Advantages to storing oxygen as a liquid include

One litre of liquid oxygen will vapourize to 860 litres gaseous oxygen. Oxygen must be stored below its cri!cal pressure of -118.4 C.
The cryogenic vessel oxygen is stored in is a con!nuous type.
All of the above.

Answer 2

One litre of liquid oxygen will vapourize to 860 litres gaseous oxygen.

Question 3

Which of the following smoking cessaion aids is available over the counter? a) Advair

b) Nicoine replacement inhaler

c) Zyban
d) Champix

Answer 3

b) Nicoine replacement inhaler

Question 4

A finding of increased tac!le fremitus would be found in:

a) Pneumonia
b) Pneumothorax

c) COPD
d) Obesity

Answer 4

a) Pneumonia

Question 5

Which of these below are consistent with cor pulmonale?

a) Coarse crackles on ausculaion
b) Jugular venous distension

c) Erythrocytosis
d) All of the above
e) b) and c) only

Answer 5

e) b) and c) only

Question 6

Which of the following statements is true about the molecular sieve concentrator?

a) It u!lizes nitrogen to trap par!cles by their molecular weight and polarity.
b) The nitrogen molecules are briefly trapped by the molecular sieve material.

c) The reservoir is pressurized to 250 psig.
d) It is called a pressure swing, oxygen adsorber.

Answer 6

b) The nitrogen molecules are briefly trapped by the molecular sieve material.

Question 7

The most common bulk oxygen system is the cryogenic vessel. This type of system contains liquid oxygen that can be converted to vapour. To store oxygen as a liquid, it must be kept below its ________.

a) Meling point
b) Critcal temperature
c) Latent heat temperature

Answer 7

b) Critcal temperature

Question 8

The Global Strategy for the Diagnosis of COPD has created a method of establishing the severity of COPD. What is their criteria for determining COPD severity?

a) Determined by the amount of oxygen therapy a pa!ent requires to keep their SaO2 greater than 90%
b) Determined by the FEV1/FVC and the FEV1 derived from the pulmonary func!on test
c) Determined by the level of physical impairment and the limita!ons on the pa!ent’s ability to perform specific daily func!ons
d) Based on the level of ABG impairment, low PaO2 and the amount of Hb with room air samples

Answer 8

b) Determined by the FEV1/FVC and the FEV1 derived from the pulmonary func !on test

Question 9

Which of the following best describes the function of an ultrasonic nebulizer?

a) The ultrasonic nebulizer applies an electric current to material and changes its shape.
b) By changing its shape, the substance can produce ultrasonic waves through a liquid medium.
c) Typically produces par!cles ranging from 50 - 100 microns.

d) All of the above.
e) a) and b)

Answer 9

e) a) and b)

Question 10

Central sleep apnea:

a) Does not result in arousals
b) Is characterized by periods of airflow limita!on
c) Can be treated with CPAP
d) Does not result in hypercapnic episodes like OSA does

Answer 10

c) Can be treated with CPAP

Question 11

COPD pt with OSA

a) Have worse noctural desaturation
b) Often have nocturnal hypoventilation due to impaired ventilatory mechanism
c) Higher rate of mortality
d) all of the above
e) A and C

Answer 11

d) all of the above

Question 12

Available evidence has shown that bilevel pressure is associated with be”er pa!ent compliance than the conventional CPAP.

a) True
b) False

Answer 12

b) False

Question 13

All of the following are parameters used to confirm the metabolic syndrome associated with obstruc!ve sleep apnea, except:

a) Low triglycerides
b) Insulin resistance
c) Hypertension
d) Impaired glucose intolerance

Answer 13

a) Low triglycerides

Question 14

What is believed to be the cause of systemic hypertension in patents with sleep apnea?

a) Hypervolemia
b) Increased sympatheic tone

c) Elevated CO2
d) Tachycardia

Answer 14

b) Increased sympatheic tone

Question 15

Your pt is overweight with a normal AP chest diameter. Percussion and tactile fremitus are normal. There is occasional low pitch wheezes. Vital signs are heart rate of 90 bpm, BP 139/81 mmHg, RR 14 bpm, temperature normal and SpO2 93% on room air. Given your assessment, and the other informa!on given, you suspect:

a) Joe has asthma
b) Joe has pneumonia
c) Joe’s COPD is predominantly due to emphysema
d) Joe’s COPD is predominantly due to chronic bronchi!s

Answer 15

d) Joe’s COPD is predominantly due to chronic bronchi!s

Question 16

Your patient has severe persistent asthma which would be appropriate

a) Salbutamol 100 - 200 mcg prn, Advair (Flu!casone 100 mcg/50 mcg Salmeterol) 1 puff BID, Prednisone 5 mg/day
b) Salbutamol 100 - 200 mcg prn, Formoterol 6 mcg BID, Budesonide 100 mcg BID, Prednisone 15 mg/day
c) Salbutamol 100 - 200 mcg prn, Salmeterol 50 mcg/dose 1 puff BID, Ciclesonide 100 mcg OD, Prednisone 5 mg/day
d) Salbutamol 100 - 200 mcg prn, Salmeterol 50 mcg/dose 1 puff BID, Flu!casone 500 mcg, 1 puff BID, Prednisone 10 mg/day

Answer 16

d) Salbutamol 100 - 200 mcg prn , Salmeterol 50 mcg/dose 1 puff BID, Flu!casone 500 mcg, 1 puff BID, Prednisone 10 mg/day

Question 17

Which of the following is the indica!on for Omalizumab?

a) Moderate to severe asthma not well controlled with maximized conven!onal therapy
b) Moderate to severe asthma with allergic components, poorly controlled with minimal conven!onal therapy
c) Moderate to severe asthma with allergic components, poorly controlled with maximized conven!onal therapy
d) Moderate to severe asthma with allergic components, well controlled with maximized onven!onal therapy

Answer 17

c) Moderate to severe asthma with allergic components, poorly controlled with maximized conven ! onal therapy

Question 18

Which is false about omalizumab

a) Omalizumab is appropriate for individuals with allergic asthma.
b) Omalizumab is not to be used as a mono-therapy in asthma.

c) Omalizumab may allow for reduc!on in use of rescue agents.
d) Risk for anaphylaxis is greatest with the first dose of Omalizumab.

Answer 18

d) Risk for anaphylaxis is greatest with the first dose of Omalizumab.

Question 19

Molecular sieve-type concentrators typically deliver a FiO2 of ____ to the patent at various flows.

Answer 19

0.86 - 0.95 at flows of up to 5 litres/minute

Question 20

Which of the following best describes the func”on of an ultrasonic nebulizer?
a) The ultrasonic nebulizer applies an electric current to a material and changes its shape.

b) By changing its shape, the substance can produce ultrasonic waves through a liquid medium.
c) Typically produces par”cles ranging from 50 - 100 microns.
d) A and b

Answer 20

d)A and b

Question 21

How often would you recommend cleaning the humidifier bo!le on a concentrator?

a) Never, as the water vapor does not carry infectious agents
b) Only when visibly soiled

c) Weekly
d) Monthly

Answer 21

c) Weekly

Question 22

The most common bulk oxygen system is the cryogenic vessel. This type of system contains liquid oxygen that can be converted to vapor. To store oxygen as a liquid, it must be kept below its ________.

a) Melting point
b) Critical temperature
c) Latent heat temperature

d) Boiling point

Answer 22

b) Critical temperature

Question 23

The form of emphysema that involves enlargement of the alveoli in response to traction forces as a result of scarring is termed:

a) Centrilobular

b) Panlobular
c) Paracicatricial

d) Paraseptal

Answer 23

c) Paracicatricial

Question 24

What percent of the adult population is believed to have obstructive sleep apnea?

a) <1%
b) 2% to 4%

c) 5% to 10%
d) Unknown

Answer 24

b) 2% to 4%

Question 25

Regarding the sleep stages on the EEG, sleep spindles are seen in ________, and sawtooth waves are seen in _________.

a) NREM stage 2, NREM stage 2
b) NREM stage 2, NREM stage 3
c) NREM stage 2, REM sleep

Answer 25

c) NREM stage 2, REM sleep

Question 26

Clinical manifestations of obstructive sleep apnea can include all but one of the following:

a) Confusional awakenings

b) Oliguria
c) Night sweats
d) High blood pressure

Answer 26

b) Oliguria

Question 27

What are the criteria to define hypopnea?
a) 20% decrease in airflow and 4% oxygen desaturation

b) 20% decrease in airflow and 2% oxygen desaturaion
c) 30% decrease in airflow and 4% oxygen desaturaion
d) 30% decrease in airflow and 2% oxygen desaturation

Answer 27

c) 30% decrease in airflow and 4% oxygen desaturaion