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A. White- Histology > Histology Exam II > Flashcards

Histology Exam II Flashcards

1
Q

You encounter a patient with a herniated disc. His intervertebral discs are made of what type of cartilage?

A

fibrocartilage.

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2
Q

You are conducting a study in which you study osteocalcin. In order to alter the expression of osteocalcin, what vitamin should be used?

A

Vitamin D3

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3
Q

You encounter a patient that has decreased bone mass and an irregular thyroid. What hormone has most likely caused her condition?

A

parathyroid hormone; levels of PTH were too high.

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4
Q

In order for a macrophage to become an osteocyte, what must bind to the RANK receptor?

A

Osteoprogetrin.

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5
Q

If you encounter a patient with decreased bone mass, would you expect the patient to have low or high levels of parathyroid hormone?

A

high

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6
Q

You introduce high levels of calcitonin into a test subject. What regulator of the bone will be affected?

A

osteoclast activity will be inhibited.

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7
Q

High levels of Wnt and Hedgehog will cause differentiation of what cells?

A

mesenchymal cells will differentiate into osteoblasts.

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8
Q

You are studying the bone development of a fetus. The initial bones of the fetus are most likely to be what type of bone?

A

woven bone.

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9
Q

During early intramembranous bone development, the osteoid consists of what type of collagen?

A

type I

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10
Q

What is a diploe?

A

Membrane bone that consists of two layers of compact bone enclosing a layer of spongy bone.

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11
Q

What is a key feature that distinguishes woven bone from lamellar bone?

A

Woven bone does not have neatly arranged collagen fibers and lamellar bone does.

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12
Q

Where does secondary ossification occur?

A

In the epiphyses

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13
Q

During hip replacement surgery, what type of joint is being operated on?

A

Triaxial synovial (ball and socket)

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14
Q

If VEG-F were not present in a patient, how would this affect bone developement?

A

Bone would not be vascularized (VEG-F allows for the invasion of vessels into developing bone).

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15
Q

What cell signals perichondrial cells to become osteoblasts?

A

hypertrophic chondrocytes.

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16
Q

How do serum and plasma differ?

A

plasma contains the blood-clotting protein called fibrinogen, serum does not.

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17
Q

You encounter a patient who, when injured, bleeds profusely without blood clotting. The patient’s blood may be deficient of what protein?

A

fibrinogen.

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18
Q

What organ makes many of the proteins found in the blood?

A

the liver

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19
Q

You take a vacation to a tropical location, but are infected by a parasite. What component of your blood will most likely work to fight against the parasite?

A

eosinophil

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20
Q

Anion transporters in red blood cells are important for what function?

A

The release of carbon dioxide in the lungs.

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21
Q

In hereditary spherocytosis, red blood cells are less spherical in shape. This may be caused by what cytoskeletal compnent of red blood cells?

A

alpha and beta spectrin; they interact with protein 4.1.

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22
Q

During an allergic reaction, histamine is often released. Histamine is released by what component of the blood.

A

Basophils. Eosinophils assist in the release of histamine by the basophils.

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23
Q

What component of the blood is rarely found?

A

Eosinophils.

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24
Q

What is the most abundant component of blood?

A

lymphocytes.

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25
Q

What are the largest leukocytes?

A

monocytes.

26
Q

Thromboxane and prostacyclin are two factors that have opposite effects on what components of the blood?

A

Platelets. Thromboxane increases platelet aggregation and prostacyclin decreases platelet aggreation.

27
Q

If nitric oxide is not present during the extravastion of inflammatory cells into connective tissue, how will the mechanism be affected?

A

There is decreased vascular permeability for neutrophils, which subsequently cannot particiate in the homing mechanism.

28
Q

You are studying the mechanisn of an inflammatory response. You decide to introduce inhibitors to the P-selectin receptors on endothelial cells. How will this affect the response?

A

Leukocytes will be unable to bind to P-selectin, which will prevent the homing mechanism from occurring.

29
Q

In erythroblastosis fetalis, why does the first pregnancy of a woman not result in complications?

A

The IgM that is produced is too large to cross the placenta.

30
Q

You encounter a patient who is pregnant with her second child, who has an enlarged liver and jaundice upon birth. A blood test reveals that the mother has high levels of IgG’s in her blood. What condition has most likely occurred?

A

Erythroblastosis fetalis.

31
Q

Circulating leukocyte counts often increase in patients suffering from serious bacterial infections. Which cell type is likely to account for most of this increase?

A

neutrophils

32
Q

What is a niche?

A

Micro-environment in which there are many different factors that allow differentiation along a specific pathway.

33
Q

What is the first stage in the lineage in which cells are incapable of further mitosis?

A

polychormatophilic erythroblast

34
Q

What is the earliest stage at which specific granulocyte types can be distinguished from one another?

A

promyelocyte.

35
Q

In which iste are blood cells first formed during embryogenesis?

A

blood islands (yolk sac)

36
Q

What cells are considered agranulocytes?

A

monocytes and lymphocytes.

37
Q

Excluding erythopoietin, which is made in the kidney, what are the sources of GM-CSFs?

A

Endothelial cells and T cells.

38
Q

After treating a patient with cancer, a blood test reveals that they have neutropenia (reduction of neutrophils). What CSF could be used to increase the level of neutrophils in the patient’s blood?

A

G-CSF.

39
Q

You take a blood test of a patient who has polycythemia. What hematopoietic growth factor is most likely abnormally high in the patient?

A

erythropoietin.

40
Q

You test a drug that reduces the production of platelets. What hematopoietic growth factor is most likely targeted?

A

thrombopoietin.

41
Q

What precursor of platelets is too large to exit the bone marrow through the sinusoids?

A

megakaryocyte

42
Q

You encounter a patient who has myasthenia gravis. What receptors on the motor neuron are affected in this disorder?

A

acetylcholine receptors.

43
Q

How do nebulin and titin differ?

A

nebulin is connected to actin filaments and titin is connected to myosin filaments.

44
Q

You conduct a study on the sarcomeric arrangement of cardiac and skeletal cells. Microscopic slides indicate that lines move during skeletal contraction. Which lines have moved?

A

The I and H lines.

45
Q

You encounter a patient who has decreased muscle tone in their legs and suffers from muscular dystrophy. What abnormality in the sarcomeric arrangement has most likely caused the disorder?

A

An absence of dystrophin, which links actin on the sarcomeres to the dystroglycan complex.

46
Q

When the body is experiencing stess, what type of cells divide and become myogenic or hematopoietic precursor cells?

A

satellite cells.

47
Q

In a study you are conducting, you have mice that do not have the c-met receptor in their plasma membrane. How will this affect the mice?

A

The satellite cells will not differentiate into myogenic precursor cells or hematopoietic cells. (HGF cannot bind to the satellite cells).

48
Q

As you are examining the muscle contraction of dogs, you lesion alpha motor neurons connected to the muscle. What part of the muscle will be affected by this lesion?

A

extrafusal fibers.

49
Q

What information do intrafusal fibers relay to the CNS?

A

Information about the contractile state of the fibers.

50
Q

The neural tube is made up of what type of epithelium?

A

pseudostratified

51
Q

You are conducting a neurological study that involves Golgi II neurons. What are the physical features of this neuron?

A

They have short axons, which enter the gray matter.

52
Q

As you are dissecting a cadaver in a lab, you note bundles of nerves and ganglion. What region of the nervous system do nerves and ganglion belong to?

A

The PNS. Nerves are bundles of axons and ganglion are aggregations of cell bodies and dendrites.

53
Q

You are dissecting a tract of neurons that are collected in a fascicle. You remove an outer covering of the fascicle. What is this outer covering called?

A

perineurium

54
Q

In the majority of brain cancer patients, brain tumors arise from abnormalities in glial cells, but not neurons. Why is this so?

A

Glial cells have the ability to mitotically divide, but neurons do not.

55
Q

You look at a histological slide of two neurons. You note that one cell wraps around the axons of both neurons. What is the neuron that wraps around the axons, and from what region of the nervous sytem did these neurons most likely originate?

A

oligodendrocytes; the neurons are located in the CNS.

56
Q

You ae interested in studying cells that line the ventricles and secrete CSF. What type of cells should you study?

A

Ependymal cells.

57
Q

You are studying the cytoskeletal components of an axon. You note that vesicles and neurotransmitters are transmitted by a specific protein from the cell body to the terminal buttons. What protein is responsible for the transport, and in what direction is it traveling?

A

kinesin; anterograde transport.

58
Q

The eye originates from what early region of the brain?

A

diencephalon

59
Q

In an early developing eye, an optic cup is formed posterior to the future sclera and cornea. What does the optic cup subsequently differentiate into?

A

Different photopigment cells (Bipolar and ganglionic neurons).

60
Q

You encounter a patient who has abnormalities in dilating and constricting the pupil. What region of the eye is most likely abnormal?

A

the iris - it has muscles for vasoconstriction and vasodilation.

61
Q

What is found within the sclera proper?

A

muscles for the lens.

62
Q

The bones of a developing fetus are composed of what type of cartilage?

A

Hyaline cartilage.

A. White- Histology (25 decks)

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