Heme Review Flashcards

1
Q

Lab values for iron def anemia?

A

Ferritin down, iron down, TIBC up, percent saturation

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2
Q

MCV of iron deficiency anemia?

A

Normocytic, then microcytic.

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3
Q

Alpha thalassemia

A

Decrease in alpha globin chains due to deletions. 4 genes. 1 or 2 deletions is fine. Cis deletion is worse. 3 Deletions causes severe anemia. Beta tetramers HBH form which are toxic to RBCs and cause RBC death. 4 deletions is incompatible with life and causes hydrops fetalis.

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4
Q

Beta thalassemia

A

Due to mutations of the beta globin genes. Prevalent in mediterranean populations. Thalassemia minor has slight increase in HBA2. Thalassemia major has massive erythroid hyperplasia in skull in facial bones. A2A2 is formed which is toxic and leads to extravascular hemolysis.

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5
Q

Lead poisoning

A

Destroys ferrochelatase and ALAD. Prevents rRNA degeneration which causes basophilic stippling. Abdominal colic and sideroblastic anemia.

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6
Q

How to treat lead poisoning

A

Dimercaprol and EDTA. Succimer in kids.

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7
Q

Sideroblastic anemia

A

due to a genetic mutation in ALAS. No protoporphyrin so free iron in mitochondria. Can be caused by b6 deficiency isoniazid and MDS. Iron up, tibc normal, increased ferritin. b6 for treatment.

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8
Q

Things that cause nonmegaloblastic microcytic anemias

A

Liver disease, alcoholism, 5FU, zidovudine, hydroxyurea.

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9
Q

Orotic aciduria

A

Due to a lack of UMP synthase that causes orotate to build up in cells. This causes a megaloblastic anemia in kids that cannot be cured with folate or B12. This doesn’t have hyperammonemia like ornithine transcarbamylase deficiency does.

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10
Q

Orotic aciduria

A

Due to a lack of UMP synthase that causes orotate to build up in cells. This causes a megaloblastic anemia in kids that cannot be cured with folate or B12. This doesn’t have hyperammonemia like ornithine transcarbamylase deficiency does.

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11
Q

Consequences of extravascular hemolysis

A

Anemia, increased unconjugated bilirubin in blood, splenomegaly due to work hypertrophy of macrophages. Can cause jaundice or bilirubin gallstones

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12
Q

What diseases are characterized by extravascular hemolysis?

A
Hereditary spherocytosis
Sickle Cell Anemia
G6PD deficiency
Pyruvate Kinase Deficiency
IgG autoimmune hemolytic anemia (SLE, CLL, methyldopa)
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13
Q

Defect in hereditary spherocytosis

A

Ankyrin spectrin missing, autosomal dominant. Loss of central pallor can’t pass through sinusoids – extravascular hemolysis

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14
Q

Defect in sickle cell

A

Glutamate to valine at position 6, causes sickling in hypoxic conditions and eventually irreversible sickling. Some intravascular hemolysis as well causing decreased haptoglobin.

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15
Q

Metabisulfate screen

A

Will cause sickling of RBCs even with sickle cell trait.

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16
Q

What diseases are characterized by extravascular hemolysis?

A

Hereditary spherocytosis
Sickle Cell Anemia
Pyruvate Kinase Deficiency
IgG autoimmune hemolytic anemia (SLE, CLL, methyldopa)

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17
Q

G6PD Deficiency

A

Mostly intravascular hemolysis causing hemoglobinuria and back pain. Most common deficiency where halflife is markedly reduced. African variant and mediterranian variant. Mediterranian is worse. No NADPH can be generated so glutathione can’t be reduced back to GSH to help get rid of H2O2. Free radical damage causes aggregates of hemoglobin called heinz bodies. Bite cells.

Free radicals from fava beans, sulfa drugs, antimalarials,

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18
Q

Pyruvate kinase deficiency

A

Disease of the newborn where RBCs cannot generate ATP and become very rigid.

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19
Q

Pyruvate kinase deficiency

A

Disease of the newborn where RBCs cannot generate ATP and become very rigid.

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20
Q

Diseases with predominantly intravascular hemolysis

A

G6PD deficiency
IgM mediated hemolysis
PNH
TTP/HUS

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21
Q

What happens with intravascular hemolysis?

A

Increased serum hemoglobin, decreased serum haptoglobin, hemoglobinuria, hemosiderinuria days later.

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22
Q

PNH and treatment

A

No gpi anchor, complement mediated lysis treat with eculizumab (terminates complement).

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23
Q

IgM autoimmune hemolytic anemia

A

Cold agglutinins cause hemolytic anemia intravascularly also happens with mycoplasma and mono.

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24
Q

TTP

A

Defect in ADAMTS13 that breaks vWF down. Platelet aggregation everywhere causes schistocytes.

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25
Q

HUS

A

Reaction to e.coli o157H7 causes thrombosis and microangiopathic hemolytic anemia in the nephron.

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26
Q

Infections that cause intravascular hemolysis

A

malaria— Plasmodium ovale/vivax (every other day), plasmodium falciparum (every day).

Also babesiosis

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27
Q

Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura

A

IgG antibody formed against GP2B3A. Platelet destruction and thrombocytopenia.thrombosis

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28
Q

Qualitative platelet disorders

A

Bernard Soulier Syndrome

Glansmann’s Thrombasthenia

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29
Q

Qualitative platelet disorders

A

Bernard Soulier Syndrome
Glansmann’s Thrombasthenia
Uremia
Aspirin

Numbers are fine, bleeding time up.

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30
Q

Glansmann’s Thrombasthenia

A

Issue with GP2B/3A reduced platelet aggregation.

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31
Q

How does uremia affect platelets

A

Prevents activation and aggregation.

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32
Q

Platelet Quantity Diseases

A

TTP (AdamTS13)
HUS (O157:H7)
ITP (Abs against gp2b3a)

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33
Q

Symptoms of quantitative vs qualitative platelet disorders

A

Quantitative disorders are marked by skin and mucosal bleeding with petechiae.

Qualitative disorders have skin and mucosal bleeding but not petechiae.

Gum bleeding a feature of both.

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34
Q

Symptoms of secondary hemostasis disorders

A

Deep bleeding in joints and rebleeding after surgery.

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35
Q

What three things does the coag cascade need to start?

A

Phospholipids, calcium, factors.

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36
Q

Name some disorders of secondary hemostasis

A
Hemophilia A and B
von willibrand disease
Coag inhibitors
Vit K deficiency
Liver failure
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37
Q

Hemophilia A

A

X-linked recessive or sporadic factor VIII deficiency. Increased PTT only

38
Q

Hemophilia B

A

Genetic factor IX deficiency

39
Q

Most common coagulation factor inhibitor

A

anti-factor VIII

40
Q

Von Willibrand Disease

A

Genetic deficiency of vWF which prevents platelet adhesion but also causes factor VIII to degenerate more quickly. Most commonly due to an autosomal dominant defect. Treat with desmopressin. Increase bleeding time increase PTT.

41
Q

How to diagnose vWD

A

Ristocetin test (does not induce aggregation. Normally it does).

42
Q

Vit K deficiency

A

Happens in newborns, malabsorption, CF. Both PT and PTT increase.

43
Q

How to follow liver failure induced coag problem?

A

PT because factor VII has shortest half life.

44
Q

How to follow liver failure induced coag problem?

A

PT because factor VII has shortest half life.

45
Q

HIT

A

Heparin induced thrombocytopenia. Heparin will bind to platelet factor 4. This will generate IgG against platelets and cause thrombosis/thrombocytopenia. Less so with bivalrudin/argatroban. Do not use warfarin

46
Q

DIC

A

Caused by LPS, amniotic fluid, adenocardinoma. Platelets activate, aggregate, take up clotting factors. Causes bleeding from lines. Increased PT/PTT, increased bleeding time, decreased fibrinogen, increased fibrin split products (D-dimer).

47
Q

What does plasmin due

A

Cleaves fibrin, destroys fibrinogen and clotting factors, blocks platelet aggregation.

48
Q

How can plasmin be erroneously activated?

A

Due to radical prostatectomy (urokinase).

49
Q

Lab values for bleeding after radical prostatectomy

A

Increased PT/PTT, increased bleeding time with normal platelet count. Decreased fibrin, normal D-dimer.

50
Q

How to stop plasmin activation?

A

Aminocaproic acid.

51
Q

How to stop plasmin activation?

A

Aminocaproic acid.

52
Q

How does endothelial damage cause thrombosis

A

Decreased PGI2, decreased NO, reduced heparin like molecules which activate antithrombin, decreased thrombomodulin which turns thrombin into a protein C and S activator.

53
Q

Three things that damage endothelial cells

A

Atherosclerosis, vasculitis, homocysteine

54
Q

Two ways that homocysteine can be elevated?

A

1) B12/folate deficiency

2) Cystathionine beta synthase deficiency (can’t turn homocysteine into cystathionine).

55
Q

Cystathionine beta synthase deficiency symptoms

A

Long slender fingers, mental retardation, increased thrombosis, lens dislocations.

56
Q

Protein C or S deficiency

A

Autosomal dominany. Can cause hypercoagulable state because factor V stays active. INCREASED risk of warfarin skin necrosis.

57
Q

Warfarin skin necrosis

A

Thrombosis that occurs after warfarin administration because protein C and S are degraded first this causes transient hypercoagulability.

58
Q

Factor V leiden

A

Most common cause of hypercoagulability. Factor V can’t be inactivated by proteins C or S.

59
Q

Prothrombin 20210 A

A

Point mutation that causes increased expression of prothrombin. Increased coagulation

60
Q

ATIII deficiency

A

Antithrombin III normally inactivates thrombin and factor X. If no ATIII, then thrombin and factor X are more active. Also heparin isn’t able to do its job, so PTT only rises when large doses of hep given.

61
Q

ATIII deficiency

A

Antithrombin III normally inactivates thrombin and factor X. If no ATIII, then thrombin and factor X are more active. Also heparin isn’t able to do its job, so PTT only rises when large doses of hep given.

62
Q

Why does estrogen cause hypercoagulable state?

A

Because estrogen increases synthesis of coagulation factors.

63
Q

Why does estrogen cause hypercoagulable state?

A

Because estrogen increases synthesis of coagulation factors.

64
Q

Neutropenia

A

ANC

65
Q

Neutropenia

A

ANC

66
Q

Lymphopenia

A

ALC

67
Q

Lymphopenia

A

ALC

68
Q

Acute Leukemia

A

Due to the presence of an undifferentiated progenitor cell. Can be myeloid or lymphoid. Crowds out the rest of the cells too so pancytopenia (anemia, thrombocytopenia, and infections).

By definition, blast percentage is >20%.

69
Q

ALL

A

Due to the presence of a lymphoid progenitor that doesn’t mature. Common in patients less than 15 and perhaps in adults. Also common in Down Syndrome after age 5

Cells are TDT positive. Respond well to chemotherapy, but need to give CSF and testicular prophylaxis.

B-ALL (most common) - Cells are CD10, CD19, CD20+. CD10 is marker of preB-cells. t(12,21). Small chance of appearance in adults with t(9,22).

T-ALL - Cells are CD2-CD8+. Presents in teens as a thymic mass.

70
Q

AML

A

Due to the presence of a myeloid blast that will not mature. Common in older patients.

Cells are MPO+. Risk factors include MDS, exposure to alkylating agents.

M3 type is APML and is a t(15,17). Due to a mutation in the RAR. Causes MPO to accumulate in auer rods which can cause DIC. Good prognosis responds to ATRA.

Acute monocytic leukemia - presents with infiltration of gums. No MPO in monoblasts.

Acute megakaryoblastic leukemia- associated with downs before age 5.

71
Q

AML

A

Due to the presence of a myeloid blast that will not mature. Common in older patients.

Cells are MPO+. Risk factors include MDS, exposure to alkylating agents.

M3 type is APML and is a t(15,17). Due to a mutation in the RAR. Causes MPO to accumulate in auer rods which can cause DIC. Good prognosis responds to ATRA.

Acute monocytic leukemia - presents with infiltration of gums. No MPO in monoblasts.

Acute megakaryoblastic leukemia- associated with Downs before age 5.

72
Q

MDS

A

In older men who have received radiation, exposed to alkylating agents. Lots of blasts in bone marrow but not more than 20%. Can progress to AML.

Marked by psedo-pelger-huet anomaly with bilobed neutrophils

73
Q

Pseudo-pelger-huet anomaly

A

Bilobed neutrophils in MDS or seen after chemotherapy

74
Q

Chronic Leukemia

A

Mature cell neoplasms that cause symptoms insidiously

75
Q

CLL

A

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia is caused by a proliferation of mature B cells. Generally in adults over 60.

They are CD5+ (which is normally a t-cell marker).

Characterized by smudge cells.

Can present with hypogammaglobulinemia, autoimmune hemolytic anemia (due to Ig against RBC).

Can transform to diffuse large b-cell lymphoma.

If predominantly in lymph nodes it’s called smalled lymphocytic lymphoma.

76
Q

CLL

A

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia is caused by a proliferation of mature B cells. Generally in adults over 60.

They are CD5+ (which is normally a t-cell marker).

Characterized by smudge cells.

Can present with hypogammaglobulinemia, autoimmune hemolytic anemia (due to Ig against RBC).

Can transform to diffuse large b-cell lymphoma.

If predominantly in lymph nodes it’s called smalled lymphocytic lymphoma.

77
Q

Hairy Cell Leukemia

A

TRAP positive B cells that get trapped in the bone marrow and cause marrow fibrosis and a dry trap. In older adults.

Presents with splenomegaly with expansion of the red pulp (which is unique) and no lymphadenopathy.

78
Q

ATLL

A

Caused by HTLV-1 virus that is seen in carribbean and Japan. Causes a T-cell leukemia that causes a rash and has lytic bone lesions with hypercalcemia. Multiple myeloma with a rash basically.

79
Q

Mycosis fungoides

A

Mature CD4+ T cell neoplasm that causes a rash and scales.

Biopsy shows Pautrier Microabsesses. If spreads to the blood its called Sezary Syndrome characterized by cerebriform nuclei.

80
Q

Hairy Cell Leukemia

A

TRAP positive B cells that get trapped in the bone marrow and cause marrow fibrosis and a dry trap. In older adults.

Presents with splenomegaly with expansion of the red pulp (which is unique) and no lymphadenopathy.

Treat with 2-CDA (cladribine) which is an adenosine analog.

81
Q

Mycosis fungoides

A

Mature CD4+ T cell neoplasm that causes a rash and scales.

Biopsy shows Pautrier Microabsesses. If spreads to the blood its called Sezary Syndrome characterized by cerebriform nuclei.

82
Q

CML

A

Caused by a t(9,22) which creates a BCR-ABL fusion protein (constitutively active tyrosine kinase). Peak incidence at 65 years. Caused by mature neutrophils and other granulocytes (mast cells and basophils).

Can have 3 phases
1) chronic 2) accelerated- with enlarging spleen 3) blast crisis where it changes to AML or ALL.

Distinguish from leukemoid reaction because CML cells have decreased LAP, have a translocation, and are monoclonal.

Treat with imatinib - small molecule inhibitor of the bcr-abl tyrosine kinase.

83
Q

Myeloproliferative disorders

A

Disorders of mature myeloid cells. Include CML, PV, essential thrombocytosis, and myelofibrosis. With the exception of CML, these are mostly due to a JAK 2 mutation.

84
Q

Polycythemia cera

A

Due to a mutation in a JAK 2 Kinase which causes proliferation of erythrocytes (and other myeloid cells). Usually presents with intense itching in the shower. Highly viscous blood can cause neurologic symptoms, budd-chiari syndrome, visual problems. Hyperuricemia and gout due to frequent removal of nuclei.

Marked by erythromelalgia – painful swelling of extremities due to thrombosis.

85
Q

Essential thrombocytosis

A

Chronic proliferation of megakaryocytes. Bleeding and thrombosis are a problem. No gout because no nuclei. Lots of platelets on smear (can also be due to iron deficiency anemia).

86
Q

Myelofibrosis

A

Proliferation of megakaryocytes produces PDGF which causes marrow fibrosis. Causes teardrop RBCs, HSM with leukoerythroblastic smear.

87
Q

Myelofibrosis

A

Proliferation of megakaryocytes produces PDGF which causes marrow fibrosis. Causes teardrop RBCs, HSM with leukoerythroblastic smear.

88
Q

Lymphomas

A

Distingished by NHL or HL. NHL is 60% and has worse prognosis. HL is 40% and has better prognosis.

89
Q

NHLs

A

Worse prognosis, usually in people 20-40. Extranodal involvement common, non-continguous spread. Mostly involve B-cells. Fewer constitutional symptoms.

Large B-Cell Lymphoma- Most common in adults. Caused by a t(14,18) BCL2 onto Ig heavy chain. Can proceed from CLL or follicular lymhpoma.

Intermediate B- Cell Lymphoma: Burkitt’s Lymphoma t(8,14) of c-myc to Ig heavy chain. African variety is jaw lesion. Sporadic variety is abdominal/pelvis. Associated with EBV. Has starry sky appearance due to areas of necrosis with macrophages. Treat with rituximab.

Small B- Cell Lymphoma
Follicular- t(14,18) of BCL2 onto Ig heavy chain. Forms follicle like structures in lymph node, no tingible body macrophages. Waxing and waning nodes with painless LAD. Treat with ritux

Marginal- t(11,14) of cyclin D1 into Ig heavy chain. CD5+ B cells. Cyclin D takes from G1-S
Mantle- due to mature B cells that expand marginal zone usually due to chronic inflammatory conditions like hashimoto’s, sjogrens, malt lymphoma.

90
Q

Hodgkins Lymphoma

A

Better prognosis usually seen in younger patients. Associated with CD15 and CD30 positive Reed-Sternberg cells that give off lots of cytokines so have lots of B symptoms like night sweats, fever, weight loss. Continuous nodes, localized. Produce IL5 so lots of eosinophilia.

91
Q

Hodgkins Lymphoma

A

Better prognosis usually seen in younger patients. Associated with CD15 and CD30 positive Reed-Sternberg cells that give off lots of cytokines so have lots of B symptoms like night sweats, fever, weight loss. Continuous nodes, localized. Produce IL5 so lots of eosinophilia. 4 types:

Lymphocyte rich - good prognosis
Nodular-sclerosing (70%) enlarging lymph node in young female with bands of fibrosis and lacunar RS cells.
Lymphocyte depleted - worst prognosis, seen in elderly and HIV+
Mixed cellularity - lots of eos.

92
Q

Pure red cell aplasia

A

Erythroid precursors destroyed by T lymphocytes from a thymic tumor, from parvovirus B19, or from lymphocytic leukemia.