Hematology and Oncology Flashcards

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1
Q

What is “sunburst pattern” classical for?

A

Osteogenic sarcoma

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2
Q

What is “onion-skinning” classical for?

A

Ewing’s sarcoma

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3
Q

What is the most common cause of transient fever in blood transfusions?

A

Febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reactions

1 in 300 (sensitization to WBC antigens)

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4
Q

What is the most common complication of hereditary spherocytosis?

A

Gallstones (50%)

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5
Q

What is the severity of Rh incompatibility at time of birth best predicted by?

A

cord hemoglobin

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6
Q

Which paraneoplastic syndromes are associated with neuroblastoma?

A
  1. Pepper syndrome (liver involvement w/ or w/out resp. distress)
  2. Horner syndrome (unilateral ptosis, myosis, anhidrosis)
  3. Hutchinson syndrome (limping and irritability)
  4. Opsoclonus-myoclonus ataxia syndrome
  5. Kerner-Morrison syndrome (intractable secretory diarrhea)
  6. Neurocristopathy syndrome
  7. ROHHAD (rapid-onset obesity, hypothalamic dysfunction, hypoventilation, and autonomic dysregulation)
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7
Q

What is the most serious complication of chronic transfusion?

A

Cardiac hemosiderosis

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8
Q

What syndromes are Wilm’s tumour associated with?

A
  1. WAGR
  2. Denys-Drash syndrome
  3. Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome
  4. deletion 11p13
  5. Neurofibromatosis
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9
Q

What are the characteristics of early hemorrhagic disease of the newborn?

A

Timing: 0-24h of life
Cause: Maternal intake of warfarin, phenobarbital, rifampin, isoniazid, phenytoin

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10
Q

What are the characteristics of classic hemorrhagic disease of the newborn?

A

Timing: 1-14 DOL
Cause: Breastfeeding w/ vitamin K deficiency

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11
Q

What are the characteristics of late hemorrhagic disease of the newborn?

A

Timing: 2-12 wks
Cause: CF or cholestatic liver disease (i.e. biliary atresia, alpha-1-antitrypsin def.)

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12
Q

What bloodwork is consistent with DIC?

A

Increased INR, PTT, fibrinogen degradation products

Decreased fibrinogen, platelets

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13
Q

What is better prognosis associated with in neuroblastoma?

A
  1. <12-18mo
  2. Hyperdiploid cells in infants
  3. Fewer MYCN gene amplifications
  4. Other tumor markers
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14
Q

What factors make an individual standard risk in ALL?

A
  1. 1-10yo
  2. Leukocyte count <50
  3. Favourable cytogenetics
    (i. e. Philadelphia chromosome bad prognosis)
  4. Rapid response to treatment
  5. MRD at end of induction therapy
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15
Q

What type of brain tumor most commonly causes torticollis, blurred vision, diplopia, nystagmus, and ataxia?

A
Infra-tentorial brain tumors
35-40% medulloblastoma
35-40% cerebellar astrocytoma
10-15% brainstem glioma
10-15% ependymoma
>5% atypical teratoid/rhabdoid
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16
Q

What are the characteristics for osteopetrosis?

A
  1. Macrocephaly
  2. Hepatosplenomegaly
  3. Deafness
  4. Blindness
  5. Severe anemia
  6. Diffuse bone sclerosis
  7. Low serum Ca and PO4
  8. Elevated PTH
  9. Normal vitamin D
  10. FTT
  11. Psychomotor delay
17
Q

What are indications for bone marrow biopsy in a child with ITP?

A
  1. Abnormal WBC count or differential
  2. Unexplained anemia
  3. Findings on history/physical suggestive of a bone marrow failure syndrome or malignancy
18
Q

What is the mechanism for neonatal allo-immune thrombocytopenia (NAIT)?

A

Transplacental transfer of maternal antibodies directed against antigens on fetal platelets that are shared with father
Normal maternal platelets

19
Q

What is the mechanism for neonatal auto-immune thrombocytopenia?

A

Transplacental transfer of maternal antibodies directed against antigens on maternal platelets
Low maternal platelets

20
Q

What is the treatment for NAIT?

A

Tranfusion with PLA-1 negative platelets

21
Q

What is the treatment for maternal ITP?

A

IVIG

22
Q

How is the volume calculated for a partial exchange transfusion for polycythemia?

A

o Volume (mL) = [(Initial Hct – Desired Hct)/Initial Hct] x Weight (kg) x 90mL/kg

23
Q

What are indications for transfusion in sickle cell disease?

A
●	Acute chest crisis 
●	Acute stroke 
●	Aplastic crisis 
●	Splenic sequestration 
●	Prophylactic transfusion for prevention of acute chest crisis post-surgery 
Prophylaxis for stroke