Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

MTAP 2 > Hema > Flashcards

Hema Flashcards

1
Q

Following a myelodysplastic syndrome or myeloproliferative disorder
* Without antecedent myelodysplastic syndrome

A

Acute myeloid leukemia with multilineage dysplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Abnormalities in granulopoiesis include hypogranular cytoplasm and hypolobulated or
bizarrely segmented nuclei

A

Acute myeloid leukemia with multilineage dysplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Acute myeloid leukemia with multilineage dysplasia usually occurs in these age grp

A

ADULTS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

characterized by ringed sideroblasts, vacuolated cytoplasm, and
nuclei that are multiple, fragmented, or megaloblastic

A

Abnormal erythropoiesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

small or have single-lobed or multiple, discrete nuclei in AML with multilineage dysplasia

A

Abnormal megakaryocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

In MDS, from alkylating agent result, it may progress to this type of AML

A

AML with maturation (M2)

Less common: M4, M5, M6, M7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

AML (FAB) result from topoisomerase type II inhibitors

A

M4
M5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

average interval between topoisomerase II inhibitors treatment and AML

A

33 months
(without passing MDS phase)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

examples of Topoisomerase type II inhibitor

A

etoposide
doxorubicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Classifies CML by chronic, accelerated, or blast phase

A

WHO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

typically seen in blood smear with CML

A

small megakaryocytes
granulocytic hyperplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Describe chronic phase of CML

A

▪ mild anemia; leukocytosis (>25x109
/L)
▪ increased myelocytes
and mature neutrophils
▪ Basophils increased
▪ Eosinophilia
▪ Serum LDH and uric acid – increased (due to excessive cell proliferation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe ACCELERATED PHASE of CML

A

Fulfilling at least one of the following:

o Increasing WBC ct
o Increased spleen size
o Persistent thrombocytopenia (<100 x109
/L) or thrombocytosis (>1000 x 109
/L)
o Blast: 10-19%
o Basophilia: > 20%
o Clonal evolution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe BLAST PHASE of CML

A

one or more of these features:

o Blast: >20% of peripheral WBCs or nucleated BM cells

o Blast proliferating in extramedullary site (skin, lymph node, spleen)

o Large aggregates of blasts in BM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

WHO DIAGNOSTIC CRITERIA FOR CML:

A
  1. Persistent monocytosis (>1x109
    /L)
  2. No Philadelphia chromosome on BCR/ABR fusion gene
  3. <20% blasts (myeloblasts, monoblast, or promonocyte)
  4. Dysplasia in >1 myeloid lines
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Characterized by hypercellular marrow, erythrocytosis, granulocytosis, and thrombocytosis, myelofibrosis

A

CHRONIC MYELOPROLIFERATIVE DISORDERS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

All may terminate in ACUTE LEUKEMIA

A

CHRONIC MYELOPROLIFERATIVE DISORDERS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Defect of the myeloid stem cell (named for the cell line most greatly affected)

A

CHRONIC MYELOPROLIFERATIVE DISORDERS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

– gene that instructs protein production that
promotes cell growth and development

A

Janus kinase 2 (JAK2) oncogene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Molecular diagnostic studies (helpful) for this disorders

A

CHRONIC MYELOPROLIFERATIVE DISORDERS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Fusion gene

A

BCR/ABL oncogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Conditions where JAK 2 is present

A

✓ Polycythemia vera
✓ Chronic idiopathic myelofibrosis
✓ Essential thrombocythemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Conditions where BCR/ABL gene is present

A

✓ Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia
✓ Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Malignant hyperplasia of the multipotential myeloid stem cell causes increase in all cell lines; High blood viscosity

A

Hypercellular Marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
  • Malignant hyperplasia of the multipotential myeloid stem cell causes increase in all cell lines “pancytosis” (particularly RBCs → WBCs + Platelets)
  • High blood viscosity
A

Polycythemia Vera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

LAP in PV

A

Increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Distinct gene for PV

A

JAK2 oncogene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

ESR in PV

A

Probability of low ESR due to viscous blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

proliferation of granulocytes (granulocytosis)

A

Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Bone marrow has an increased M:E ratio (25:1)

A

CML

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Blast crisis

A

CML

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

LAP in CML

A

Low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

CML has this chromosome

A

Philadelphia chromosome t(9;22)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Proliferation of megakaryocytes

A

Essential Thrombocythemia (ET)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Platelets >1000 x 109/L (Giant forms, platelet function abnormalities)

A

Essential Thrombocythemia (ET)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Myeloid stem cell disorder characterized by proliferation of erythroid, granulocytic, and
megakaryocytic precursors in marrow with dyspoiesis

A

Chronic Idiopathic Myelofibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Progressive marrow fibrosis (fibrin clots may accumulate causing blood vessel blockage → stroke,
heart attack

A

Chronic Idiopathic Myelofibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Distinct cell found in Chronic Idiopathic Myelofibrosis

A

Teardrop cells (RBC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Group of acquired clonal disorders affecting pluripotential stem cells

A

MYELODYSPLASTIC SYNDROMES (MSDs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Progressive blood cytopenias, despite bone marrow hyperplasia

A

MYELODYSPLASTIC SYNDROMES (MSDs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

High incidence of terminating in acute myelogenous leukemia

A

MYELODYSPLASTIC SYNDROMES (MSDs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

MDS development is triggered by

A

chemotherapy, radiation, chemicals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

WHO classification of MDS has an additional groups

A

Refractory cytopenia with multilineage dysplasia,

5q deletion syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

5 subgroups of MDS using the FAB classification scheme (up to 30% blasts in bone marrow)

A

RA
RARS
CMML
RAEB
RAEB-t

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Anemia that is refractory (not responsive) to therapy

A

Refractory anemia (RA)

43
Q

Refractory anemia (RA)
BM blasts:
PB blasts:

A

BM blasts: <5%
PB blasts: <1%

44
Q

Ringed sideroblasts comprise >15% of bone marrow nucleated cells

Dimorphic erythrocytes

45
Q

Leukocytosis
BM blasts: 5-20%
PB blast: <5%
Absolute monocytosis >1.0 x 109/L

46
Q

BM blasts: 5-20%
PB blast: <5%
NO absolute monocytosis

47
Q

Trilineage (RBC, WBC, platelet) cytopenias

48
Q

WHO classification reassigns this MDS as an ACUTE LEUKEMIA

49
Q

RAEB-t
BM blasts:
PB blasts:

A

BM blasts: >20-<30%
PB blasts: >5%

50
Q

ALL is differentiated based on morphology including:

A
  • Cell size
  • Prominence of nucleoli
  • Amount and appearance of cytoplasm
50
Q

CMML, RAEB
BM blasts:
PB blasts:

A

BM blasts: 5-20%
PB blasts: <5%

51
Q

most common cancer in children, 23% of cancer diagnoses among children <15 years of age

A

ACUTE LYMPHOBLASTIC LEUKEMIA

52
Q

results from the malignant transformation of normal developing T cells in the thymus, the so-called THYMOCYTES

A

T-cell acute Lymphoblastic leukemia (T-ALL)

53
Q

Small homogenous lymphoblasts
Scanty cytoplasm, inconspicuous nucleoli
Round irregular/indistinct nucleus

54
Q

Most common CHILDHOOD ALL with best prognosis

55
Q

Large heterogenous lymphoblasts
Abundant basophilic cytoplasm
Clefted nuclei
Nucleoli present

55
Q

WHO CLASSIFICATION OF ALL is based on

A

Phenotyping

56
Q

Adult type ALL

56
Q

Burkitt type ALL

57
Q

Large homogenous lymphoblast
VACUOLATED
Rarest

57
Q

WHO classification of ALL

A

PRECURSOR B-CELL ALL
PRECURSOR T-CELL ALL
MATURE B-CELL ALL

58
Q

ALL with poor prognosis

59
Q
  • 75% of cases occur in children <6 y/o
  • 85% of ALL are this type
A

PRECURSOR B-CELL ALL

60
Q

(+): enlarged lymph nodes, liver, spleen
* Leukocyte count: variable
* Lymphoblasts are pleomorphic and vary from small to large with nuclei having prominent or
inconspicuous nucleoli, compact or dispersed chromatin
* Blue or blue-gray cytoplasm is usually scant (but may be abundant)
* Coarse azurophilic granules may be present

A

PRECURSOR B-CELL ALL

61
Q

Neoplasm of lymphoblasts committed to the B-cell lineage

A

PRECURSOR B-CELL ALL

62
Q

under PRECURSOR B-CELL ALL

A

o Early Pre-B cell ALL
o Common ALL
o Pre-B cell ALL

63
Q
  • 15% of childhood ALL
  • 25% of adult ALL
A

PRECURSOR T-CELL ALL

64
Q
  • Leukocyte count: often markedly elevated
  • Lymphoblasts are similar to those in precursor B-cell ALL with a wide variation in morphology
A

PRECURSOR T-CELL ALL

65
Q

Under PRECURSOR T-CELL ALL

A

o Early T cell ALL
o Intermediate T-ALL
o Mature T-ALL

66
Q

Neoplasm of lymphoblasts committed to the T-cell lineage

A

PRECURSOR T-CELL ALL

67
Q

expressed by specific cell lines at different maturation stages

A

Cluster differentiation (CD) markers

68
Q
  • B cell malignancy (CD19, CD20 positive)
  • Smudge cells
  • Small lymphocyte lymphoma – CLL lymphoma phase
A

Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL)

69
Q

CHRONIC LYMPHOPROLIFERATIVE DISORDERS

A

CLL
HCL
Prolymphocytic leukemia

70
Q
  • B cell malignancy (CD19, CD20 positive)
  • Dry tap on bone marrow aspiration
  • TRAP stain positive
A

Hairy Cell Leukemia (HCL)

71
Q
  • B cell (most common) or T cell malignancy
A

Prolymphocytic leukemia

72
Q

Plasma cell neoplasms

A

MULTIPLE MYELOMA

WALDENSTROM MACROGLOBULINEMIA

73
Q

Monoclonal gammopathy causes B cell production of excess IgG or IgA

74
Q

Identified on serum protein
electrophoresis by an “M” spike in the gamma globulin region

75
Q
  • Bone tumors
  • Increased blood viscosity
  • Prolonged bleeding
  • Bence Jones proteins (free light
    chains-kappa or lambda)
76
Q

Monoclonal gammopathy causes B cell production of excess IgM (macroglobulin)
and decreased production of other
immunoglobulins

A

WALDENSTROM MACROGLOBULINEMIA

77
Q
  • Lymphadenopathy and
    hepatosplenomegaly
  • No bone tumors
  • Increased blood viscosity
A

WALDENSTROM MACROGLOBULINEMIA

78
Q

T/F

WHO classification considers CLL and SLL (small lymphocytic leukemia) as one entity with different clinical presentations

79
Q

CL L vs SLL

A

Diagnosis is based on the predominant site of involvement

CLL - peripheral blood (lymphocytosis, >10x109/L) and bone marrow involvement

SLL - lymph nodes and other lymphoid organs

80
Q

Proliferation of malignant cells in solid lymphatic tissues

81
Q

→ group of closely related disorders that are characterized by over proliferation of
one or more types of cells of the lymphoid system (lymphoreticular stem cells, lymphocytes,
reticular cells and histiocytes)

81
Q

→ includes various forms of leukemias and malignant lymphomas
that are of lymphoreticular origin.

A

Lymphoproliferative disorder

81
Q

METHODS for lymphomas

A

Tissue biopsy,
CD4 marker identification,
Cytogenetics,
PCR

82
Q

aka Classical Hodgkin Lymphoma, Nodular Lymphocyte Predominant Hodgkin Lymphoma

A

Hodgkin Lymphoma

83
Q

Aneuploidy, or a deviation from the diploid no. of chromosomes

Gain of chromosomes 1, 2, 5, 12, and 21 is a recurring numerical abnormality

A

Hodgkin Lymphoma

84
Q

Structural rearrangements involving chromosome 1 are frequently observed

A

Hodgkin Lymphoma

85
Q

– Follicular lymphoma
– Multiple myeloma
– Chronic lymphocytic lymphoma

A

Low-grade/Indolent type NHL

85
Q

– diffuse large B-cell lymphoma
– most frequent type of NHL
– Burkitt’s lymphoma

A

High-grade/Aggressive type NHL

86
Q

40% of lymphomas

86
Q

3 different types of diffuse large B-cell lymphomas

A
  1. Germinal center, B-cell–like lymphoma
  2. Activated B-cell–like lymphoma
  3. Type 3 diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (NEW)
87
Q

Affected lineage in HOGKIN

A

B-cell lineage

87
Q

WHO classification of HODGKIN

A

Nodular sclerosis (70%)
Mixed cellularity (20%)
Lymphocyte rich
Lymphocyte depleted

87
Q

Associated with EBV

88
Q

60% of lymphomas

89
Q

B cell neoplasms in NON HODGKIN

A

a) Mantle cell
b) Follicular
c) Burkitt

90
Q

Skin itching, leading to ulcerative tumors

Sezary syndrome

CD2, CD3, CD4 (+)

A

MYCOSIS FUNGOIDES
(CUTANEOUS T CELL
LYMPHOMA)

91
Q

leukemic phase of cutaneous T-cell lymphoma

A

Sezary Syndrome

92
Q

typically the size of a small lymphocyte and has a dark-staining, clumped, nuclear chromatin pattern

A

Sézary cell

93
Q

derived from mature or post thymic T cells

A

Mature T-Cell & NK-Cell Neoplasms

94
Q

Used for cytochemistry studies

A

Fixatives containing alcohol (methanol or ethanol), acetone, formaldehyde

95
Q

Leukocyte count reference value

A

3.4 – 9.7 X 109/L

96
Q

Found in the central part of smear

A

Lymphocytes

97
Q

Found in the edge part of the smear

A

Monocytes
Granulocytes

MTAP 2 (23 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions